a&p fall final Flashcards

1
Q

what are common characteristics of connective tissue?

A

all arise from embryotic tissue (mesenchyme)
highly vascularized
composed mainly of extracellular matrix that allows it to bear weight and withstand tension

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2
Q

list the structural elements of CT

A

ground substance, cells, and fibres

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3
Q

what are the CT found in the body?

A

areolar, adipose, reticular, dense reg, dense irreg, and elastic
also cartillage, bone, and blood

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4
Q

what is ground substance?

A

ground substance- gel like material that fills the space between cells. consists of interstitual fluid, adhesion pros, proteoglycans, and protein fibres.

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5
Q

what are the cells in CT? what do they do?

A

cells- “blasts” are immature cells that actively work. “cytes” are mature cells arent active and maintain health of matrix. fibroblasts in CT proper, chondroblasts in cartiallge, and osteoblasts in bone.

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6
Q

what are the fibres in CT?

A

fibres- fibre and ground sub make up extracellular matrix, collagen fibres provide strength, elastic fibres provide stretch, and reticular fibres provide branches between CT and other tissue and found where filtration occurs

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7
Q

what is a cutaneous mem?

A

a dry mem known as skin. consists of keratinized
stratified squamous
epithelium over areolar connective tissue and dense irregular connective tissue.
help protect the rest of the body’s tissues and organs from physical damage.

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8
Q

what is a mucous mem?

A

wet membranes that line body cavities that open to the
outside of the body.
made of stratified squamous
or simple columnar epithelia over a layer of areolar connective tissue called lamina propria

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9
Q

what is a serous mem?

A

lines the walls of cavities and organs within closed ventral body cav.
made of simple squamous epithelium on top of a layer of areolar CT
The cavity between layers is filled with serous fluid to reduce friction

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10
Q

what is a Synovial membrane?

A

line joint cavities and secrete synovial fluid to lubricate and support bones that move. They lack epithelium and are considered a specialized connective tissue

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11
Q

what is muscle tissue? what are the 3 types?

A

Muscle tissues are highly cellular, well-vascularized tissues responsible for movement. contains myofilaments made of actin and myosin responsible for contraction.
skeletal, smooth, and cardiac

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12
Q

what is skeletal muscle tissue?

A

voluntary muscle that attaches to the skeleton and when they contract cause movement of the skeleton. aka musc fibres
composed of long cylinder cells that have multiple nuclei around the edges. has visible striations.

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13
Q

what is smooth muscle tissue?

A

non voluntary, unstriated,
uninucleate and spindle-shaped cells. They are found in
the walls of the hollow organs, in dig tract, pushes food thru tract by contracting and relaxing (peristalsis)

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14
Q

what is cardiac muscle tissue?

A

striated, single nucleus, and branched.
located linging walls of the heart, has intercalated discs where the cardiac cells join at gap junctions and desmosomes. the contractions of the musc pump blood thru the body, involuntary

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15
Q

what is nervous tissue?

A

main component of nerv sys, has CNS and PNS, regulates and controls body functions. contains neurons and neuroglial cells.
found in the brain, spinal chord, and nerves

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16
Q

what 2 ways does tissue repair occur?

A

regeneration, in which damaged cells are replaced with the same type of cell.
fibrosis, which replaces damaged cells with fibrous connective tissue. happens in tissues that do not regenerate

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17
Q

what is the first step of tissue repair?

A

Inflammation
prepares the area for repair by
dilating blood vessels and increasing in blood vessel permeability. Inflammatory chemicals are released by damaged tissues.
Scabbing and clotting occurs.

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18
Q

what is the second step in tissue repair?

A

Organization
process that replaces the blood
clot with granulation tissue (new capillary-rich tissue), restoring blood supply. Macrophages phagocytize dead and dying cells and, Fibroblasts produce collagen fibres to in a process called fibrosis, and surface epithelial cells multiply and migrate over
the granulation tissue.

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19
Q

what is the final step in tissue repair?

A

Regeneration and/or fibrosis
restores tissue the scab detaches as fibrous tissue matures.
Epithelium thickens and begins to resemble adjacent tissue

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20
Q

what tissues regen well?

A

epithelial tissues, bone, areolar connective tissue,
dense irregular connective tissue, blood-forming
tissue

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21
Q

what tissues do not regen?

A

cardiac muscle and nervous tissue of brain and spinal cord

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22
Q

what are the two layers of skin?

A

super- epidermis
deep- dermis

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23
Q

what is the subcutaneous tissue?

A

aka hypodermis, consisting mostly of adipose tissue that anchors the skin to underlying muscle, allows skin to slide over muscle, and acts
as a shock absorber and insulator

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24
Q

what are the cells in epidermis?

A

keratinocytes- keratinized strar sqaumous
melanocytes- synth pigment and prtect against UV
longerhorns- WBC
tacktile- sensory

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25
what are the layers of epidermis starting with the deepest?
stratum basale stratum spinosum stratrum granulosum stratum lucidum stratum corneum
26
what is the stratum basale layer?
attached to dermis always actively dividing(mitotic) has melanocytes
27
what is the stratum spinosum layer?
3-5 cells thick has keratinocytes and melanocytes web-like system of intermediate pre-keratin filaments attached to desmosomes. This allows them to resist tension and pulling.
28
what is the Stratum granulosum layer?
4-5 cells thick Cells flatten, nuclei and organelles disintegrate and keratinization begins Cells above this layer die because they are too far from dermal capillaries to survive
29
what is the Stratum lucidum layer?
only found in skin that covers the palms , soles of the feet and the surfaces of fingers and toes It consists of thin, translucent band of two to three rows of clear, flat, dead keratinocytes
30
what is the Stratum corneum layer?
the outermost layer of the epidermis,constantly being replaced by cells beneath
31
what is ther dermis?
composed of strong, flexible connective tissue and is supplied with blood vessels, nerves and lymphatic vessels it has two layers, papillary layer and reticular layer
32
what is the papillary layer?
superficial layer composed of areolar connective tissue that forms dermal papillae that result in fingerprints.
33
what is the reticular layer?
80% of the thickness of the dermis It consists of dense fibrous connective tissue with stretchy elastic fibers and durable collagen fibers has felxure lines which are found at folds of joints on your hand has tention lines caused by collagen fibres running parrallel to skin surface. easily allows for cuts to be made without scaring, and dermal tears are called striae aka stretch marks
34
what is melanin?
a group of skin and hair pigments that are brown or black (eumelanin) or pinkish red (pheomelanin)
35
how does melanin protect against UV?
physical barrier that scatters UV and reduces UV penetration thru epidermis
36
why are there different skin colours?
skin colour differences are due to the amount and type of melanin
37
what is carotene?
a yellow-orange pigment found in certain foods
38
why is there a pinkish hue seen in fair skin?
due to hemoglobin in blood seen thru transparency of skin
39
what gives skin its colour?
melanin and hemoglobin
40
what is Cyanosis? Jaundice? Erythema?
-blue skin due to low O -yellow skin due to liver disorder -red skin due to anger or fever
41
what is Pallor? bronzing? bruising?
-pale skin -steroid hormones causes over- expression of melanin -Bleeding or coagulated blood under the skin outside of the blood vessels (hematoma)
42
what are the parts of a hair follicle?
peripheral connective tissue sheath- a thickened basement membrane from the dermis inner epithelial root sheath- derived from the epidermis
43
what is hair? what is its function?
flexible strands of dead keratinized cells produced by hair folicules made of hard keratin -insulating against heat loss -protecting head against physical trauma -shielding skin from sunlight
44
what are the 2 main regions of hair?
hair shaft- projecting from skin hair root- embedded in skin
45
what are the 3 layers of hair starting deepest?
medulla (in thick hair) cortex cuticle
46
how does hair get its colour?
melanocytes at the base of the hair follicle, combos of diff melanocytes create diff hair colours
47
what is a hair follicule?
folds down from the epidermis into the dermis and occasionally into the hypodermis
48
hair bulb
contains the dermal papilla and hair matrix,regulates hair growth
49
hair matrix
mitotically active in the hair bulb
50
hair papilla
a knot of capillaries that supplies nutrients to growing hair
51
what is the muscle that allows hair to stand up?
arrector pili muscle
52
what is vellus hair?
pale, fin, thin hair
53
what is terminal hair?
long, coarse, thick hair
54
what does hair growth depend on?
age, sex, location, hormones, and nutrition
55
how does hair on your head grow?
in increments; grow continuously for 2-7 years, then slow down for 2-3 weeks and rest for 2-4 months before growing begins again.
56
why do ppl bald or have thinning hair?
hair has a limited amount of cycles. bald- genetic, thinning-hair is not replaced as quickly as it is lost, which leads to hair thinning and some degree of balding
57
what are Sebaceous glands?
holocrine glands that secrete sebum (oil) into a hair follicle or to a pore on the surface of the skin to softens and lubricates the hair and skin, slows water loss, reduce friction, and is bactericidal
58
what are Eccrine sweat glands?
merocrine glands ducts are connected to glands to produce sweat regulated by the sympathetic nervous system and is used to prevent the body from overheating
59
what are Apocrine sweat glands?
only in armpit, They produce a fat and protein-rich true sweat causing body odur starts at puberty
60
what are the two modified sweat glands?
Ceruminous glands- are modified apocrine sweat glands found lining the ear canal that secrete ear wax Mammary glands- are modified apocrine sweat glands that secrete milk
61
what is a nail?
scale-like modification of the epidermis that forms a protective covering on the dorsal side of the distal finger or toe
62
do toe or finger nails grow faster?
fingernails
63
what is the structure of nails?
made up of hard keratin and have a free edge, a nail body attached to the skin, and a root embedded in the skin
64
what is the nail matrix?
proximal part of nail bed, mito active and responsible for gorwth
65
what is the free edge of the nail?
extends past finger or toes
66
what is the nail body?
attached to skin
67
what is Proximal nail fold and lateral nail folds
the skin covers over the edges of the nail, holds in place
68
what is Lunula on the nail?
white half circle on nail bed, thickest
69
what is the eponychium(cuticle)?
the stratum corneum of the epidermis at the proximal nail fold
70
what is the nail root?
not viable, embedded in skin where the nail grows
71
what is the nail bed?
the skin below the nail body
72
what is the hyponychium?
secures nail to finger
73
what is the distal phalanx?
bone under nail
74
what are the 3 barriers skin provides?
protects from external enviro, chem- protect from UV by secreting secretions low in pH physical- hardness of the keratinized cells biological- living cells (WBC) that change and adapt that look for things that have gotten thru the physcial barrier
75
what are the 5 functions of skin?
barrier regulation and sensation metabolism body temp regulation heat exchange
76
how does skin regulate body temp?
by manufacturing sweat to cool the body and causing constriction of dermal capillaries to prevent heat loss
77
what provides sensation in skin?
cutaneous sensory receptors
78
how does skin contribute to metabolism?
makes vit D precurser when exposed to sunlight can be a blood reserve (can hold 5% of blood) to be used when needed like in exercise
79
what is apart of core body?
skull, abdom and thorasic cavities 37 degrees vital organs that must be protected
80
what is the shell?
skin, has lowest body temp
81
what are the 4 mechanisms of heat exchange?
radiant- heat exchange from skin to external enviro conductive- flow of warmth from warmer to cooler objects convective- movement of warm air away from the body evaporation- heat loss of fluids from the lungs, oral mucosa, and the skin
82
what is insensible heat loss?
heat loss you dont feel youre losing ex heat loss when you breathe
83
what is sensible heat loss?
feel yourself cooling down ex sweating
84
what causes heat cramps
loss of water and salt
85
what are the 3 major types of skin caaner?
Basal cell carcinoma, sqamous cell carcinoma, and melanoma
86
Basal cell carcinoma
least malignant, most common, slow growth, and can be surgically removed
87
Squamous cell carcinoma
can metastasize, derives from keratinocytes in stratum spinosum, seen as scaly red patches, grow rapidly and can be removed or use radiation
88
melanoma
most dangerous, resistant to chemo, cancer of melanocytes, looks like moles or patches
89
what is cancer?
occurs when DNA of a cell is damaged or mutated causing it to grow uncontrolably and dividing rapidly
90
what is a burn?
denatures proteins and cause cell death by heat or electricity or chemical damage
91
what are risks of a burn?
dehydration, fluid loss, and infection
92
what is the rule of nine?
body div into 11 sections that account for 9% of body, except genitals which acc for 1%, used to evaluate burns and estimate volume of fluid loss
93
what are first and second degree burs?
1- epidermis damage only, red, swells, pain 2- epi and dermis damage, blisters
94
what are partial thickness burns?
burns through epidermis and upper dermis are involved
95
what are third degree burn?
full thickness burns, goes thru epi, dermis, and underlying tissue. skin turns grey, red, or black and nerve endings are destoryed
96
what are 4-6th degree burns?
all layers of skin, burn the underlying fat, muscle and bone
97
what are the 6 functions of bone?
-support for body and organs -protection of brain, spine, and organs -movement for musc action -mineral and growth storage of calcium and phosphorus -blood cell formation (hematopoiesis), in red bone marrow -fat storage in yellow bone marrow, which can be used for energy
98
what is the function of red bone marrow?
produces RBC
99
what is the function of yellow bone marrow?
produces and fat WBC
100
what is compact bone?
outer layer that is smooth and solid
101
what is spongy bone?
inner layer, helps to reduce stress. consists of pieces of trabeculae instead of osteons
102
what is articular cartilage?
hyaline cartillage, provides support
103
what is periosteum?
covers surface of bone, contains osteogenic cells hold blood vess and nerves in place thru nutrient foramen openings contains an outer fibrous layer of dense irregular connective tissue that secure the membrane to the bone matrix. anchoring point for tendons and ligaments.
104
what is endosteum?what cells does it contains? what are the functions?
covers internal surface, contains osteogenic cells covers the trabeculae of spongy bone. It lines the canals that pass through compact bone functions in remodelling, repairing and building cells in the membranes
105
what are osteogenic/osteoprogenitor cells?
give rise to all bone cells can create new cells mitotically active found in peri and endo
106
what are osteoblasts?
bone forming cells that secrete un-mineralized bone matrix called osteoid (form matrix)
107
what are osteoclasts?
large ultinuclei cells that produce macrophages to break down bone by releasing dig enzymes and acids found in resorption bays which is the location that bone is broken away at when their job is done they die by adoptosis
108
what are osteocytes?
mature bone cells in lacunae that no longer divide. They maintain bone matrix and They send information to osteoblasts and osteoclasts so bone remodeling can occur.
109
what are periosteal cells?
bone lining cell found on external surface They are found on bone surfaces in places where there aren’t any osteoblasts or osteoclasts
110
what are endosteal cells?
bone lining cell found on internal surface They are found on bone surfaces in places where there aren’t any osteoblasts or osteoclasts
111
what is trabeculea?
in spongy bone, gives strength consists of irregularly arrrenged lamelle and osteocytes connected by cannaliculi
112
what is the diaphysis?
shaft of bone in between the two ends of long bones, hollow. made of an outer layer of compact bone around a central medullary cavity filled with yellow bone marrow
113
what is the epiphysis?
ends of long bones, has proximal and distal ends. compact bone around spongy bone filled with red marrow.
114
what is the medaphysis?
place on the bone where the epiphysis turns to the diaphysis. includes the epiphyseal line
115
what is the epiphyseal line?
remnant of the childhood epiphyseal plate where bone growth occurs making you taller after puberty this hardens so you no longer grow.
116
what is the osteoid?
un-mineralized bone matrix made of collagen and calcium that turns bone hard not mito active
117
what is an osteon?
the structural unit of compact bone that acts as a weight bearing pillar consists of many rings of bone matrix called lamelle
118
what is lamelle?
rings of bone matrix in an osteon. contains collagen fibres that run in different directions in adjacent rings, to withstand stress and resist twisting. Bone mineral salts are found between collagen fibres.
119
what is a central (Haversian) canal?
runs thru centre of osteon contains blood vessels and nerves
120
what are perforating (Volkmann’s) canals?
lined with endosteum and occur at right angles to the central canal. transmits blood vessels from the periosteum into the bone and communicates with the Haversian canals
121
what are Lacunae?
small cavities that contain osteocytes
122
what are Canaliculi?
hairlike canals that connect the lacunae to each other and the central canal
123
when do canaliculi form?
when bone matrix hardens and cells are trapped
124
how do bone cels communicate?
maintain contact with each other via cell projections with gap junctions
125
what are the organic components of bone? what do they do?
organic component of bone is the osteoid, which contains ground substance, proteoglycans, glycoproteins and collagen fibers. allows for flexability and tensile strength without it, bone would be very brittle and it would break if twisted or stretched.
126
what are the inorganic components of bone? what do they do?
hydroxyapatite, aka mineral salts. consists of tiny calcium phosphate crystals in and around collagen fibres. responsible for hardness and resistance of compression
127
what is bone remodeling? what cells are involved?
consists of both bone deposit and bone resorption. It occurs at the surfaces of both the periosteum and the endosteum osteoblasts and clasts
128
why do hormones regulate bone remodelling?
Hormonal control of remodelling is mostly used to maintain blood calcium homeostasis and balances activity of parathyroid hormone and calcitonin.
129
what is interstitial lamelle?
lamellae that are not part of osteon. Some fill gaps between forming osteons; others are remnants of osteons cut by bone remodelling
130
what is circumferential lamelle?
layers of lamellae that extend around entire surface of diaphysis that help to resist twisting
131
explain bone depositing
a new matrix is deposited by blasts at the osteoid seam, which is a band of unmineralized bone matrix that marks areas of new deposition
132
what are Triggers for bone deposit?
mechanical signals, increased concentrations of calcium and phosphate ions and matrix proteins or enzymes to bind calcium and phosphate ions
133
explain bone remodeling. what cells are involved?
osteoclasts dig grooves as they break down the matrix by secreting dig enzymes and acids
134
what is Wolff’s law?
states that bones grow or remodel in response to demands placed on them (physical stress)
135
what is intramembranous ossification?
is when bone develops from fibrous membrane. These bones are called membrane bones, forms flat bones like skull and collar bone
136
what is endochondral ossification?
when bone forms by replacing hyaline cart. bones are called cartilage (endochondral) bones forms essentially all bones other than skull and collar bone
137
explain the 4 steps of bone fracture repair
1- hematoma; after the bone breaks, torn blood vessels hemorrhage, forming a mass of blood clotting called hematoma 2-Capillaries grow into the hematoma, fibroblasts secrete collagen fibres to connect broken ends forming Fibrocartilaginous callus tissue 3- fibro callus converts to spongy bone 4- bone remodeling; Excess material is removed and compact bone reconstructs the shaft walls and bone is back to normal
138
what is ossification?
the process of bone tissue formation formation of bone begins at 2 moths- early adulthood
139
explain the 4 steps of Intramembranous ossification
1- Development of ossification centre: Osteoblasts secrete organic extracellular matrix. 2-Calcification: Calcium and other mineral salts are deposited and extracellular matrix calcifies (hardens), osteocytes trapped 3- Formation of trabeculae: Extracellular matrix develops into trabeculae that fuse to form spongy bone 4-Development of the periosteum: Mesenchyme at the periphery of the bone develops into the periosteum
140
explain the 6 steps in Endochondral ossification
1- development of cart: begins at primary ossification centre in the centre of the shaft. mesenchymal cells develop into chondroblasts 2- Growth occurs by cell division of chondrocytes. 3-Development of primary ossification center: In this region of the diaphysis, bone tissue replaces most of the cartilage and calcifies outward from the centre and blood vess run thru 4-formation of medullary (marrow) cavity 5- second oss centre forms in epiphysis 6- forms epiphyseal plate and articular cart that both consist of hyaline cart
141
what is growth hormone?
most important hormone in stimulating epiphyseal plate activity in infancy and childhood
142
what are the functions of the nervous system?
-controls body functions -communication sys of the body via electrical and chem signals -gathers input from sensory receptors -processes and interprets sensory input to decide appropriate responses -using motor output to activate effector organs, muscles and glands, to cause a response
143
what are somatic senses?
all over body, pain, temp and touch
144
what are special senses?
eyes or vision, smell, and taste
145
what is the somatic nervous system?
controlable skeletal musc
146
what is the autonomic ner sys?
uncontrolable sys, tells your body to react. includes Sympathetic, paraympathetic, and Enteric nerv systems sym (high stress response) and para- (keeps relaxed) control Smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands ent- controls smooth musc in dig tract
147
what is the CNS?
contains brain and spinal chord control centre that interprets sensory input and dictates motor output.
148
what is the PNS?
contains nerves that extend from brain and spinal cord. Spinal nerves go to and from the spinal cord and cranial nerves go to and from the brain
149
what div of the nerv sys carries impulses toward the central nervous system from sensory receptors located throughout the body?
the sensory (afferent) div
150
what fibres of the nerv sys convey impulses from skin, skeletal muscles and joints to the CNS?
somatic sensory fibres
151
what fibres of the nerv sys carry impulses from organs within the ventral body cavity?
viceral sensory fibres
152
what div of the nerv sys transmits impulses from the CNS to effector organs, such as muscles and glands?
motor (efferent) div
153
what are the two divs of the motor div of the PNS?
somatic and autonomic
154
what are astrocytes?
regulate the chemical environment around neurons and play a role in exchanges between neurons and capillaries
155
what are Microglial cells?
monitor health and perform defense functions for neurons, and they migrate toward injured neurons and can transform to phagocytize (like WBC)
156
what are Oligodendrocytes?
make mylein sheaths in CNS, each can insulate dozens of nearby axons
157
what are Ependymal cells?
line the central cavities of the brain and spinal cord and help circulate CSF. can be cilliated and either sqamous of columnar
158
what are Satellite cells?
in PNS, like astrocytes
159
what are Schwann cells (neurolemmocytes)?
make myeline sheaths in PNS also vital to the regeneration
160
what are myelin sheaths?
insulate axons in ner sys. lipid-rich sheath of plasma membrane that wraps around part of the axon and allows for faster transmission of electrical signals. Proteins in the myelin help to hold the wrap together.
161
what is a neuron?
specialized cells that conduct messages in the form of electrical impulses throughout the body.
162
what is a dendrite?
receive communication from other cells convey incoming messages toward cell body as graded potentials
163
what is the function of the neuron cell body?
pools signals and decides which are most important and should move thru to axon synthesize proteins, membranes and chemicals
164
what are nissl bodies?
like rough ER, found in cytoplasm along w neurofibrils (protein filaments), synthesis of proteins
165
what are Neclei?
clusters of neuron bodies in CNS
166
what are ganglia?
clusters of neuron bodies in PNS
167
what are tracts?
bundles of neuron processes in the CNS, processes are axons or dendrites
168
what are nerves?
bundles of neuron processes in PNS arry electrical impulses
169
what is the axon?
starts at axon hillock, conducts info to other cells The ends are called axon terminals or terminal boutons
170
what is anterograde movement?
away from cell body towards axon
171
what is retrograde movement?
towards cell body from axon bacteria can use this to get thru brain blood barrier and cause harm
172
what are multipolar neurons?
most common in CNS has an axon and 2 or more dendrites
173
what are bipolar neurons?
single axon and dendrite. in special senses like retina of eye and olfactory mucosa (vision and smell)
174
what are unipolar neurons?
axon and dendrite share same pathway gets sig quickly
175
what are sensory neurons?
afferent, neurons conduct impulses toward the CNS from receptors mostly unipolar and cell body in PNS
176
what are motor neurons?
efferent, neurons conduct impulses from the CNS to effectors multipolar cell bodies are located in the CNS
177
what are interneurons? aka association neurons
conduct impulses between sensory and motor neurons, or in CNS integration pathways. mostly in CNS
178
what is a current?
The flow of electrical charge from point to point is called depends on voltage and resistance
179
what is voltage?
a measure of the amount of difference in electrical charge between two points, called the potential difference
180
what is resistance?
hindrance to current flow
181
what is resting membrane potential?
The difference in electrical charge across the cell membrane, resting membrane potential depends on differences in ion concentration and permeability.
182
how does depolarization affect mem potential?
increases the probability of producing nerve impulses
183
how does polarization affect mem potential?
decreases the probability of producing nerve impulses.
184
what are graded potentials?
short lived changes in membrane potentials that can be depolarizations or hyperpolarizations. Graded potentials are “graded” based on magnitude of the stimulus corresponds to the magnitude of the response
185
what is action potential? how are they generated?
Higher-stimulus intensity, occurs when it is able to reach depolarization
186
what are ion channels?
allow ions to pass thru mem, selective for a certain type of ion
187
Leakage (non-gated) channels are...
always open
188
what is a Chemically-gated (ligand) ion channel?
open when the correct chemical or ligand binds to the channel
189
Mechanically-gated channels
open when the channel is physically bent or stretched, based on mech stimuli how we build something that senses touch
190
Voltage-gated channels
open in response to a change in membrane potential triggered by depolarization doesnt initiate flow of ions, but if another type of channels does, then voltage gate will get involved and participate in movement of ions
191
what are receptor potentials?
Graded potentials occurring on receptors of sensory neurons are called receptor potentials, or generator potentials.
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what are postsynaptic potentials.
Graded potentials occurring in response to a neurotransmitter released from another neuron are called postsynaptic potentials.
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Explain how action potentials propagate along neurons
by the movement of the ions through voltage-gated ionic channels embedded in the plasma membrane of the neurons
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Define absolute and relative refractory periods
ab- while the Na+ channels are open, the cell cannot respond to another stimulus, regardless of how strong. rel-the Na+ channels are mostly reset, the cell is repolarizing, and a very strong stimulus may reopen Na+ channels and generate another action potential
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what is saltatory conduction
the way an electrical impulse skips from node to node down the full length of a myleinated axon
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what is continuous conduction
the way an electrical impulse skips from node to node down the full length of an unmyielenated axon
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what is synapse?
points of contact between neurons where information is passed from one neuron to the next
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what are electrical and chemical synapses?
chem-nformation is transferred via the release of a neurotransmitter from one cell elec- the cytoplasm of adjacent cells are directly connected by clusters of intercellular channels called gap junctions to give eahco ther info
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what are excitatory and inhibitory postsynaptic potentials
ex-Bind to chemically gated ion channels, cause depolarization in-Hyperpolarize the membrane by making it more permeable to K+ or Cl−, Moving membrane potential away from threshold
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Define neurotransmitter
the chems used to send signals in nerves
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what are the 4 steps to aaction pots?
1- At rest, all gated Na+ and K+ channels are closed 2-Local currents depolarize the axon, and voltage- gated Na+ channels open, allowing Na+ ions to enter the cell. 3-Repolarization restores resting membrane potential as Na+ channels close and K+ channels open. 4-Hyperpolarization occurs when some K+ channels remain open, allowing excessive efflux of K+ to produce a slight dip following the spike.
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what is a refractory period?
the period of time required before a neuron can generate another action potential.
203
Describe three ways in which ATP is regenerated during skeletal muscle contraction
creatine phosphate- turn ATP to creatine phos for temp storage, creatine transfer ADP to ATP anaerobic glycolysis-1 glucose produces 2 ATP and 2 lactic acid, ATP from glycolysis aerobic respiration- 1 glucose produces 30-32 ATP, 6 CO2 and 6 H2O, good for long term
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what are functions of muscles?
-produce movement by acting on bones of the skeleton, pumping blood, forming valves or propelling substances through hollow organs. -maintaining posture -stabilize joint -generate heat as a function of their metabolic processes. -enclose and protect internal organs
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what are four important characteristics of muscle tissue?
-responsivness to receive and respond to a stimulus. -Contractility is the ability to contract forcibly when stimulated. -Extensibility is the ability to be stretched -Elasticity is the ability to resume the cells’ original length once stretched.
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what are fascia?
CT that support muscle tissue
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what are tendons
attach musc- bone
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what are ligaments
attach bone to bone
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what is Endomysium, Perimysium and Epimysium in muscle?
Endomysium- surrounds individual muscle cells Perimysium- surrounds a bundle of muscle fibres. Epimysium- encircles entire muscle
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what are oxidative and glycolytic muscles?
ox-has abundant blood vessels and mitochondria for prolonged use, high endurence gly- relatively few blood vessels and is good for short bursts of intense activity, short and high intensity
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what are myofibrils?
contain the contractile elements of the musc cell
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what are sarcoplasmic reticulum?
regulates the availability of calcium ions(stores ions), surrounds each myofibril
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what are T tubules of skeletal muscle fibres?
T tubules is the cell mem that runs into the cell for cell communication to make them contract
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what causes skeletal musc to have a striated appearance?
myofibrils, alternating dark A bands of myosin and light I bands of actin
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what is tropomyosin?
wraps around actin filaments, stabilizing them and blocking the myosin binding sites.
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what is troponin?
chases calcium pulling tropomyosin out of the way to allow myosin to bind to actin to start contraction
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how do musc fibres contract?
1- The fibre is activated (stimulated) by a nerve ending so that there is a change in membrane pot 2-musc fibre generates action pot in sarcolemma 3-calcium levels rise causing troponin to chase them allowing for contractions
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what events occur at the neuromuscular junction
1-Action potential arrives at axon terminal at the neuromuscular junction 2-Acetylcholine is released and binds to chemically-gated channels on the sarcolemma, producing a graded response. 3-opens membrane voltage gated channels 4-Acetylcholinesterase breaks down acetylcholine allowing for relaxation
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Describe how an action potential is generated in a muscle cell
occurs when ACh binds to ACh receptors at the neuromuscular junction, causing chemically gated ion channels to open. causes depolarization that triggers an action potential, which propagates along the sarcolemma by opening voltage-gated Na+ channels.
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what is the sarcolemma?
cell mem of skeletal musc cell that froms T tublues
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what are the A bands? what are the I bands?
dark bands of myosin, light bands of actin
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what is a sarcomere?
consists of dark (A) and light (I), dark in the mid and light at the ends.
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what is the H zone?
a slightly lighter region in the centre of the A band, has only thick (myosin) myofilaments
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what is the M line?
in the middle of the H zone, is where fine protein strands hold adjacent thick (myosin) myofilaments together.
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what are Z discs?
inside each I band separate sarcomeres.
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what is the purpose of a titan filament?
to prevent over stretching and anchor myosin
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what is cross bridging?
myosin feet grab onto actin pros and pulls to contract, called cross bridging
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what is Excitation-contraction coupling?
is the sequence of events by which an action pot on the sarcolemma results in the sliding of the myofilaments
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what are the steps in Excitation-contraction coupling?
1-A nerve impulse reaches the axon terminal, The action pot travels across the entire sarcolemma. 2-The action potential travels along T tubules 3-Sarcoplasmic reticulum releases Ca2+, which binds to troponin. Myosin-binding sites on actin filaments are exposed. 4-myosin heads bind to actin filaments. Muscle contraction begins.
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what is the synaptic cleft?
where the axon terminal and muscle fibre are separated by a narrow gap
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Describe the sliding filament model of muscle contraction
the thin filaments slide past the thick filaments. Overlap between the myofilaments increases and the sarcomere shortens causing whole musc cell to get shorter
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describe the steps of cross bridgin
1-Calcium ions bind to troponin and expose the active site on actin filaments, myosin heads attach to actin binding sites, forming the cross bridge 2- head pivots, pulling the thin filament past the thick filament 3- new ATP attaches causing head and actin to detatch 4- ATP primes the myosin head so that it is ready to bind to a new actin binding site next time
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what is a motor unit?
consists of a motor neuron and all the muscle fibres it innervates, fine control
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what is a muscle twitch?
the response of a muscle to a single action potential on its motor neuron
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what are the 3 phases of a musc twitch?
letent period-lag between stimulation and excitation-contraction. contraction relaxtion
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how are graded contractions of a skeletal muscle produced?
a wave summation occurs when impulses reach the muscle in rapid succession, preventing the cell from relaxing between stimulation events causes tetanus
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what are the four major regions of the brain?
cerebral hemispheres diencephalon brain stem cerebellum
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what are gyri?
raised region in the brain folds
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what are sulci?
the inward wrinkles in brain
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what is a fissure?
deep wrinkle that seperates lobes
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what is the job of Cerebral white matter?
responsible for communication between cerebral areas and the cerebral cortex and lower CNS centres.
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what are the 3 fibres in cerebral white matter?
association- connect diff parts of same hemisphere commissural- connect corresponding areas of grey matter in the two hemispheres, allow to func as a whole projection-connect the cerebral cortex to the lower brain or cord centres
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what is the largest region of brain?
cerebrum
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what is the cerebrum?
seperated into left and right halves has 3 regions; superficial cortex of grey matter, internal white matter, and the basal nuclei and has 4 lobes; frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital
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what is the cerebral cortex?
conscious mind, allowing us to communicate, remember, and understand
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what is func of basal nuceli?
regulate cognition and emotion, and decide which action you should take
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lateralization of cortical functioning
each cerebral hemisphere has unique control over abilities not shared by the other half.
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what does premotor cortex control
musc memory and language
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association cortex
understanding of the stimulus being felt.
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vestibular cortex
awareness of balance
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gustatory cortex
taste
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what is the diencephalon?
includes the thalamus and hypothalamus
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what is the thalamus?
sensation, motor activies, learning, decides what to pay attention to, and memory. conduct sensory impulses to the primary sensory areas of the cerebral cortex and transmits motor information from the cerebellum and basal nuclei to the primary motor area of the cerebral cortex.
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what is the hypothalamus?
integration centre of the autonomic nervous system. It initiates physical responses to emotions, and regulates body temperature. maintains balance in body sys regulates pituitary gland
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what are the 3 regions of the brain stem?
midbrain, pons, and medulla
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what is corpora quadrigemina?
startle reflex
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what is the pons?
has pathways between the brain and spinal cord, gives rise to some cranial nerves, helps w breathing
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what is the medulla oblinglata?
location of the medullary pyramids, which act as crossover points for corticospinal motor tracts, results in the contralateral control of voluntary movements. controlls cardiac and respiratory rate
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what is the cerebellum?
controls motor output, ensuring coordination and balance. coordinates musc movement thinking, language, and emotion.
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what are the 3 lobes within the cerebellum?
posterior and anterior lobes; coordinate body movements flocculonodular lobes; posture to maintain balance
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what is the grey matter and white matter locations called in the cerebellum?
grey- outer cortex (called folia) and deeper nuclei white- arbor vitae
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what is the limbic system?
involved w emotions, links info together
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what is the reticular activating system?
responsible for deciding what youre noticing and what youre ignoring
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what part of the brain is responsible for language?
Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area
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what part of the brain is responsible for memory?
hypocampus
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what are the two types of memory?
declarative-fact based, short term memory and long term memory Procedural- motor skills
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what factors affect long term memory?
affected by emotional state while intaking info, best if alert, motivated, excited or surprised, rehearsal, association, or the automatic formation of memory while concentrating on something else
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what is consciousness? what are the 4 stages?
how awake you are, clinically defined on a continuum that measures behaviour in response to stimuli and ranges through several stages: alertness, drowsiness or lethargy, stupor, and coma.
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what is REM sleep?
partially paralyzed so you dont move, allows the brain to analyse events or eliminate meaningless information
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what are meningies?
3 layers; (deep) pia mater, arachnoid mater, and dura mater.
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what is CSF?
fluid found within the ventricles of the brain and surrounding the brain and spinal cord, protects against impact damage, and is a delivery medium for nutrients and chemical signals.
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what is the blood brain barrier?
helps maintain a protective environment for the brain. tight junctions keep brain separated from many bloodborne substances. 3 layers; endothium in capillary walls, basla lamina around capillaries, astrocytes surround neurons
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what is meningitis?
immflamuation of the meninges
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what is the Arachnoid granulation villi ?
where CSF is reabsorbed
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what are the 2 main functions of the spinal cord?
carries signals to and from brain and integration centre for reflexes able to make its own decisions (reflex) if something happens fast enough it doesnt need to check w the brain
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how many nerves do you have in your spinal cord?
31 nerves
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what are dorsal nerves for? ventral?
dorsal is sensory input, ventral is motor output
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what is the cauda equina?
the point of transition between spinal cord to nerves
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what is the ventral (anterior) median fissure and dorsal (posterior) median sulcus?
divides spine into left and right halves
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what is the central canal in the spine?
runs thru the middles and filled w CSF
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what are the dorsal and ventral horns in the spinal grey matter for?
dorsal- contains interneurons ventral- contains cell bodies of somatic motor neurons
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what is the grey commissure in the spinal cord?
connects masses of grey matter on either side
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in the spinal cord, what allows for communication between the cord and brain?
white matter
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what is flaccid and spastic paralysis?
flaccid- damage to the ventral root or ventral horn, nerve impulses are not transmitted to the skeletal muscles bc neurons are damaged spastic- upper motor neurons of the primary motor cortex are damaged, voluntary control over skeletal muscle is lost.
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what is paralysis and paraesthesia?
paralysis- loss of motor func paraesthesia- loss of sensory func
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what are the characteristics of neuronal pathways?
carry sensory and motor information to and from the brain. 2 going up and 3 going down
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what is the Lateral spinothalamic tract?
lateral column of white matter, goes upwards from spine to thalamus, and is sensory.
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how can you tell what a conductive nerve pathway is? example is Anterior (ventral) corticospinal tract.
lateral, anterior, posterior tells you where in the grey matter it is located in the other of terms tells you which way the impulse is being carried (from cerebral cortex to spinal cord) which tells if its motor or sesnsory. ( sensory towards brain, motor away) ex- anterior in white matter, going from cerebral cortex to spinal cord, a motor impulse
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what are the 3 neurons in ascending sensory pathways?
1-unipolar, receptor to the spinal cord or brain stem 2- conducts the impulse to the thalamus. 3-thalamus- cerebral cortex
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what are Spinocerebellar tracts?
convey information about muscle and tendon to cerebellum instead of thalamus ipsilateral (dont cross over) involve two neurons, not three.
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what are descending pathways?
two neurons: upper motor neurons and lower motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscle.
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what are direct descending pathways?
upper motor neurons from the cerebral cortex regulates fast, finely controlled or skilled movements.
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what are indirect descending pathways?
upper motor neurons from the brainstem regulate muscles for balance and coarse movements and visual tracking automatic skeletal musc movement like walking
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what is included in the PNS?
sensory receptors, peripheral nerves and their associated ganglia, and efferent motor endings
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what are non encapsulated dendritic endings
free nerve endings that detect temperature, pain, itch, light touch, or are located at the base of hair follicles
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what are encapsulated dendritic endings?
consist of a dendrite enclosed in a connective tissue capsule and detect touch, initial, continuous, and deep pressure, and stretch of muscles, tendons, and joint capsules.
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what are mechanoreceptors?
mech- stimulated by mechanical force, such as touch, pressure, vibration, and stretch.
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what are chemoreceptors?
stimulated by chemicals, such as odours, tastes, or chemical components of body fluids.
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what are thermorecpetors?
detect changes in temperature
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what are photorecpetors?
detects light
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what are nocieptorsceptors?
respond to painful stimuli
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what are Exteroceptors
located at or near the body surface and detect stimuli from outside the body, such as touch, pressure, pain, skin temperature
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what are Interoceptors
associated with internal organs and vessels, monitor chemical changes, stretch, or temperature
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what are Proprioreceptors
found within skeletal muscles, joints, and associated connective tissues and relay information about body movements.
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what is sensation
the awareness of changes in the internal and external environment.
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what is perception
is the conscious interpretation of those stimuli.
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what are 1st, 2nd, and 3rd order neurons
1- carry impulses from receptors 2-transmit to the cerebellum or third-order neurons 3-carry impulses to the postfrontal gyrus.
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what is the phenomenon of referred pain
pain coming from a specific place but you feel it somewhere else ex is the heart
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what is the function of pain
protects the body from damage
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what is the pain tolerence? what is pain threshold?
tolerence- genetically determined, how much pain you can take threshold- how intense a stimulus has to be in order to perceive pain
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what is visceral pain
results from stimulation of receptors within internal organs from stimuli such as extreme stretch, chemical irritation, and muscle spasms.
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what is a nerve?
a cord-like organ consisting of parallel bundles of peripheral axons enclosed by connective tissue wrappings.
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what are the 3 layers in a nerve starting deepest?
endoneurium- thin layer of loose connective tissue that surronds the axon Perineurium- connective tissue wrapping that bundles groups of fibres into fascicles. Epineurium- wraps around nerve
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what are dermatomes?
areas of skin innervated by cutaneous branches of a single spinal nerve. Most dermatomes overlap, so destruction of a single spinal nerve will not cause complete numbness.
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The junctions between autonomic motor endings and the visceral effectors form what?
synapses en passant (“synapses in passing”)
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what are Varicosities
Autonomic nerve fibres innervate most smooth muscle. these contractions are slower than skeletal
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what is a ganglion?
collections of neuron cell bodies associated with nerves in the PNS.
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what cells help regen nerves in PNS?
schwann cells
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why cant nerves in the CNS regenerate?
oligodendrocytes have growth-inhibiting proteins that do not support regrowth of axons.
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what is Chromatolysis?
the breakdown of Nissl bodies after nerve damage
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what is wallerian degeneration?
the breakdown of the distal portion of the axon and myelin sheath.
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Nerves within a regeneration tube grow at a rate of how much per day?
1mm
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what is a reflex arc?
highly specific neural pathways that control reflexes
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what are somatic reflexes?
affects skeletal musc, stretch reflexes, like when you hit the knee with the mallet
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what are autonomic reflexes?
involve smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and/or glands. happens without you noticing like moving food from stomach to intestine
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what is the autonomic nervous system
involuntary subdiv of the PNS, It helps to maintain homeostasis by controlling smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and glands. The ANS has parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions which cause opp affects
327
what is the somatic nervous system?
responsible for reflexes and for voluntary control over skel musc
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what is sympathetic and parasympathetic?
sym- fight or flight, enables the body to cope with potential threats to homeostasis, by stimulating heart rate and force of contraction, increasing breathing, sweat production and inhibits not essential things like digestion para- conserves energy, keeps body energy use as low as possible
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what does testing a stretch reflex tell you about the PNS?
tells you hoe well it is responding to stimulus
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what are the 5 components of a reflex arc?
1- receptor, responds to stimulus. 2- sensory or afferent neuron, enters dorsal root ganglion. 3- integration centre in grey matter, transfers info from sensory to motor neuron. 4- motor or efferent neuron in grey matter carries impulse into the ventral root to effector organ. 5- effector organ is musc or gland and reacts.
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what is a post and preganglion nerve?
post- unmyelinated axon and carries the signal to an effector organ. releases norepinephrine pre-terminates in a ganglion (outside of the CNS) where it synapses with the postganglionic neuron. releases acetylcholine
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what neurotransmitter is released by the somatic NS? by the ANS? what coordinates these systems?
som- aceytlcohline, which is excitatory and causes contraction ANS- aceytlcholine and epinephrine (aka adrenalin) and both can have either an excitatory or an inhibitory effect. hypothalamus
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what do Cholinergic neurons release? what are their 2 receptors?
-acetylcholine -nicotinic (in post) and muscarinic (in para)
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what is sympathetic and parasympathetic tone?
the rsult of having both active at the same time sym- regulating systemic blood pressure para- dominant in the heart, digestive system and urinary tracts, maintaining normal levels of function unless overridden by the sympathetic system during stress