winter exam Flashcards
(253 cards)
1
Q
what are the layers of the eye?
A
fibrous, vascular, and inner layer.
fib- 2 regions called sclera (white of eye) and cornea (clear, allows light to enter eye)
vas- consists of, choroid that nourishes eye, ciliary body, and iris
inn-retina, optic disc, macula lutea and fovea centralis
2
Q
what is the lens?
A
helps you focus on things
3
Q
what are the humours of the eye?
A
fluid that maintains eye shape.
anterior cav- located between pupil and cornea, filled with aqeous humour that supplies nutrience and oxygen to lens and cornea as well as carries away waste.
posterior cav- keeps eye round, filled with viterous humour that transmits light, supports lens, holds retina, and maintains pressure
4
Q
what are rods?
A
-sensitive to light, best suited for night vision
-cant resolve colour or sharp images
-they are peripheral vision
-have more rods than cones
5
Q
what are cones?
A
-best for bright light and provide high resolution colour vis
-humans have 3 kinds, blue, red, and green
-each cone is individually connected to optic nerve so image is sharper
6
Q
what is cataracts?
A
clouding of the lens.
causes dim or blurry vision, faded colours, and trouble seeing at night or w bright lights
7
Q
what is glaucoma?
A
condition where the drainage of aqueous humour is blocked causing fluid to build up and increase pressure in the eye.
can lead to blindness.
8
Q
where does light first enter the eye?
A
the cornea
9
Q
what is the retina?
A
contains photoreceptors, rods, cones, bipolar cells, and ganglion. has nerves to detect light.
10
Q
how is light focused in distant vision?
A
cil musc are relaxed as suspensory ligs are stretched causes lens to be flat
11
Q
how is light focused in close vision?
A
lens thickens, pupil constricts, eyeball convergence. sus ligs are loose and cil musc is contracted
12
Q
what is an astigmatism? what causes this?
A
uneven curvature of the cornea or lens that produces blurred images
13
Q
what is nearsightedness? what causes this? what is another name for it?
A
aka myopia, objects focus infront of the retina, can see close objects but far ones are blurred.
eyeball is too long
14
Q
what is farsightedness? what causes this? what is another name for it?
A
aka hyperopia, objects focus behind retina resulting in seeing distant object but close ones are blurred.
eyeball is too short
15
Q
how is light converted to a neural signal?
A
rods and cones convert light energy into nerve signals that travel through the optic nerve to the brain
16
Q
what is light adaptation?
A
occurs when we move from darkness to the light
17
Q
what is dark adaptation?
A
occurs when we go from a bright area to a dark one
18
Q
what are the steps in visual processing?
A
primary visual cortex maps retinal info onto occipital lobe, which then is divided into two streams, either ventral stream (go to temporal lobe for memory and emotion) or the dorsal stream (go to occipital or parietal lobes to let you interact with what youre seeing)
19
Q
what is the pathway to the visual cortex?
A
retinal ganglion cells merge at back of eyeball to become the optic nerve that crosses at optic chiasma to become optic tracts connected to the thalamus, then optic radiations project to the primary vis cortex in occipital lobes
20
Q
what are the special senses?
A
vision, smell, taste, hearing, and equilibrium.
21
Q
what are accessory structures of the eye?
A
eyebrows, eyelids, conjunctiva, lacrimal apparatus and extrinsic eye muscles and the eyeball.
all help to make the eye function better and are all located outside of the eye.
22
Q
what is the conjuctiva?
A
transparent membrane that produces lubricating mucus to prevent the eye from drying out.
covers the whites and has blood vessels
23
Q
what is the Lacrimal apparatus?
A
consists of the lacrimal gland, which secretes tears
has glands to drain the fluid to the nose
24
Q
iris
A
controls how much light gets thru and gives you eye colour
25
cilliary body
smooth musc that controls how thick or thin the lens is in order to focus on things, controls shape and how much light is ket in.
cil musc pulls on sensory ligaments to change shape
26
what is the blind spot?
optic disc, allows vessels to get to brain
27
what gives you the best colour vision
fovea centralis
28
what is the pathway of light?
cornea- aqueous humour- lens- vit humours- neutral layer of retina- photoreceptors.
29
how many cranial nerves does the tongue have? the nose?
tongue has 3, nose has 1
30
what type of receptors are taste and smell ones?
chemoreceptors
31
what is the olfactory epithelium? olfactory sensory neuron?
epi- the organ of smell in the roof of nasal cav.
sens- bipolar neurons with apical dendrites that have olfactory cilia covered in mucous that is the solvent for odorants
32
what is anosmia
temp or permanent loss of smell
33
what are mitral cells
second order neurons that carry signal from olfacotry bulb to your brain to report what youre smelling
34
what is olfactory transduction?
an odorant binds to receptor, G protein, and the secondary messengery of AMP which depolarizes the cell and allows for action pot
35
what are taste buds?
sensory receptor organs for taste located within the papillae of the tongue.
36
what are the bumps on your tongue for?
not taste buds, allow for you to hang onto or move food
37
what are gustatory epithelial cells?
taste receptor cells tat have microvili called gustatory hairs. the dendrites located around these cells are what sends taste signals to your brain. they are replaced by basal epithelial cells every 7-10 days
38
how can a chemical be tasted?
must be dissolved in saliva, move into taste pore, and contact a receptor or ion channel on the surface f the gustatory cell. the gustatory cel is then able to release neurotrans to dendrites which then sends action pot along one of the 3 cranial nerves.
39
what are the 5 basic tastes?
sweet, sour, salty, bitter, and umami
40
what is the function of the outer ear?
sends direct sound waves to auditory canal.
structures apart of this: the external visable part and ear drum.
41
what is the function of the middle ear?
auditory ossicles (3 tiny bones, malleus, incus, and stapes) that vibrate because of the ear drum. they send vibrations to oval window. auditory tube is also included
42
what is apart of the inner ear?
cochlea, semicanals, and vesibule
43
what is the sound conduction pathway?
44
what is sound transduction?
when trapped sterocilia of hair cells are deflected by local movement of basilar mem. physical vibrations that are turned into electrical signals that we can understand. this happens in the cochlea and the hair cells within.
45
what is the tympanic?
ear drum
46
what is the cochlea?what are the 3 bony parts?
converts vibrations to sounds we understand. contains cochlear duct and basilar mem which is the floor of it and important for sound reception.
the bony part is divided in to three layers; scala vestibuli (intake of vibrations), scala media (lets out vibrations), and scala tympanic.
47
what is the order sound enters ear?
external canal, ear drum, 3 bones, oval window, canal of fluid, and cochlea.
48
what fluid is in the bony labryrinth? membranous lab?
perilymph, endolymph
49
what is amplitute? frequency?
amp- height or size of waves and their intensity.
fre- number of waves that pass at a given point
50
what is the pathway of impulses from cochlea to auditory cortex?
spiral ganglion -> cochlea -> pons medulla -> tract -> thalamas -> PAC
51
what is pitch and loudness?
pitch- (frequency) perceived by hair cells in different positions along basilar mem.
loudness- (volume) perceived by vibrations in fluids of cochlea that produce larger graded potentials that generate more frequent action potentials.
52
how do we detect source of sound?
depends on relative intensity and timing sound waves reach both ears.
53
how do semicircular canals maintain equalibrium?
each canal contains a semicircular duct that has an ampulla on one end which contains an equalibrium detector called crista ampullaris. crista ampullaris detects angular or rotational acceleration.
54
how do vestibules maintain equalibrium?
vestibule is a central cav of the bony labyrinth that contains two membranous sac that house an equilibrium receptor called maculae.
the saccule is near the cochlea and utricle is near the semicircular canals. they monitor the position of the head in space and linear acceleration (moving straight)
55
what are inner hair cells?
sensory, in basilar mem, sends signals along cochlear branch of vestivulocochlear nerve
56
what are outer hair cells?
effector, receives signals from brain and alter the tension which improves hearing sensitivity. they also help distinguish between similar sound frequencies.
57
list the 3 functions of blood
transport, regulatory, and protective
58
what does blood transport?
oxygen, nutrience, metabolic waste, and hormoes.
59
what does blood regulate?
body temp, pH, and fluid balance.
60
what does blood protect against?
blood loss and infections
61
why is blood a CT?
it has cells, fibres, and ground subtsnce.
cells- red and white BC and platlets.
fibres- dissolved in plasma.
GS- plasma
62
what is the composition of blood?
3 layers.
blood plasma and dissolved element.
buffy coat- white BV and platelets.
erythrocytes- RBC
63
what is the composition of plasma?
90% water, solutes including nutrience, gases, hormones, wastes, products of cell activ, ions, and proteins
64
what are the characteristics of blood?
-slightly basic (7.4 or 7.5 pH)
-denser than water
-5-6 liters in male, 4-5 liters in female.
65
what is the function of RBC
carries oxygen using hemoglobin, releases O in tissues when needed, and picks up O by lungs
66
what is the structure of RBC?
-lack nucleus and most organelles
-bioncave in shape
-contain mostly hemoglobin
-makes ATP thru glycolysis (breaks dwon blood sugar)
67
what is hemoglobin?
protein consisting of 4 polypeptide chains, globin proteins each in a ring like heme. each heme contains an iron atom that allows O to bind.
68
what is hematopoiesis?
occurs in red bone marrow, the production of BCs. makes either myeloid stem cells (cell can turn into any type of BC) or lymphoid stem cells ( makes WBC)
69
how are erythrocytes formed?
through erythropoiesis.
when a hematopoietic stem cell is thransformed to a proerthroblast. after it has accumulated enough hemoglobin it ejects most organelles, assumes biconcave shape and makes room for hemoglobin. this makes a RBC
70
how long does it take to make new RBC
15 days
71
what is erythroprotein?
regulates how much RBC are being made and is produced in kidneys.
72
anemia
a condition that develops when your blood produces a lower-than-normal amount of healthy red blood cells.
causes blood loss, iron deficiency, low EPO, low vit B12, or destruction of red bone marrow
72
polycythemia
excess of RBC due to oxygen deficency or disease.
increases blood viscosity causing poor blood flow and oxygen delivery and can lead to blood clots.
73
what is blood doping?
artificially inducing polycythemia for an advantage in athletics.
74
what is diapedesis
when WBC leave the blood to enter the tissues
75
what are granulocytes? what cells are included?
major group of WBC, large cells with visible granules and are phagocytic.
neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
76
what are agranulocytes? what cells are included?
lack visible granules
lymphocytes and monocytes
77
neutrophils
fights pathogenic micro-organisms, bacterial infections, and foreign matter
78
eosinophils
respond to allergies and attack parasites
79
basophils
involved in allergic reactions and release histamine to promote inflammation
80
lymphocytes
produce antibodies for immune response.
T - attack infected cells
B- bind antigens and produce antibodies
NK- innate immune response
81
monocytes
phagocytic macrophages that absorb particles and activate lymphocytes
82
what is leukopoiesis
formation of WBC in 2 ways;
lymphoid- stem cells dev into lymphocytes
myeloid- stem cells dev into all other WBC, platelets and RBC
83
Leukopenia
abnormally low WBC count
84
leukemias
cancer
85
what are plateletes
fragments of bone marrow called megakaryocytes.
helps w blood clotting and forming temp seals when blood vessel breaks
86
what hormone regulates platelets?
thrombopoietin
87
what is hemostasis? what are the 3 steps?
the process of preventing blood loss.
1 vascular spasm
2 platelet plug formation
3 coagulation
88
explain vascular spasms
the narrowing of the arteries caused by a persistent contraction of the blood vessels, which is known as vasoconstriction.
temp mechinism to reduce blood flow bc slower blood is easier to clot.
89
explain platelet plug formation
when endothelium is damaged platelets stick to exposed collagen fibres to form a platelet plug.
90
explain coagulation
aka blood clotting, process wher blood is transformed form liquid to fibrin
91
what factors limit clot formation
-rapid moving blood
-clotting factors inhibited by other compounds in blood
92
what are thromboembolic disorders?
result from conditions that cause unwanted clotting
thrombus- clot forms in unbroken vessel and blocks blood flow. if thrombus breaks away its called embolus
93
Impaired liver function
can result in insufficient synth of clotting facotrs
94
hemophilia
genetic condition that results in deficiency of clotting factors
95
Explain the diagnostic importance of blood testing
it can signal diseases like anemia, heart disease, diabetes and infection.
96
what are antigens
substances that trigger the body’s adaptive immune response
97
what are antibodies
proteins produced by lymphocytes that target specific antigens.
98
explain ABO blood groups
based on the presence or absence of type a and type b.
99
what antigens in ab blood
has both antigens
100
what antigens in o blood
has no antigens
101
explain what is Rh
a groups of RBC antigens that are either present or not in blood. ppl w D antigen are blood type + and ppl w/o it are -.
102
what is a transfusion reaction?
when the donars antigens are attacked by recipients antibodies resulting in aggulation of donor cells
103
where is the heart located? whats its size?
mediastinum, between lungs.
size of a fist
104
what side of the heart receives oxygen poor blood? whats the circuit?
right,
rfecives from body tissues and then pumps to lungs
pulmanary circuit
105
what side of the heart receives oxygenated blood? whats the circuit?
left
gets blood from lungs and pumps to body (system circuit)
106
what are the layers of the heart starting superficially?
fibrous pericardium, serous pericardium consisting of firsrt a parietal layer, pericardial cavity, then the viseral layer.
107
what doe fibrous pericardium do? serous pericardium?
fib- anchors and protects heart and resists against overfilling.
ser- has serous fluid to prevent frictions and lubricate movmemnt
108
what are coronary vessels
supply nutrient to heart itself
109
what is myocardium? endocardium?
myo- musc layer in heart that supports heart .
end- lines chambers of the heart
110
what 3 veins enter R atrium?
superior vena cava- collect blood from everything above heart
inferior- collect blood from everything below heart.
and coronary sinus- returns blood from myocardium
111
where do the ventricles pump blood?
R- pulmonary trunk to take blood to lungs
L- aorta to carry blood throughout body
112
why is L ventricle thicker?
is it can generate at a higher pressure and overcome greater resistance
113
what are AV valves
tricuspid and bicuspid valves, and mitral valve in the left.
forces blood upward against the flaps pushing them closed
seperate artia and ventricles
114
what are semilunar valves
located at the base of artieres to prevent back flow of blood into ventricles.
seperate ventricles from arteries
115
what happens to semilunar valves when ventricles are contracted?
When ventricular pressure rises above aortic and pulmonary pressure, the semilunar valves are forced open allowing blood to be ejected from the heart.
116
what happens to semilunar valves when ventricles are relaxed?
When the ventricles relax, blood flows backward toward the heart, filling the cusps of the semilunar valves, forcing them closed
117
what is a myocarfial infraction
heart attack, blockage of blood flow to the coronary vessels
118
what is the pathway of blood?
body - inferior vena - super vena - R atrium - tri valve - R ventricle - pulmonary semilunar valve - pulmonary trunk - lungs - 4 main pulmonary veins - L atrium - bicuspid valve - L ventricle - aortic semi valve - aorta - body
119
what is the structure of cardiac musc?
musc cells are striated, short, and branched. they have one central nucleus. they have intercalated discs
120
what do intercalated discs do in cardiac musc
makes desmosomes for strength and gap junctions for ions to flow between cells to allow the heart to beat as a coordinated unit.
121
what connects cardiac musc to cardiac skeleton?
lose CT inn myocardiums matrix
122
how is cardiac musc different than skeletal?
cardiac musc cells have many large mitochondria, myofibrils arranged in sarcomeres, but less sarco reticulum.
123
why is cardiac cells refractory period longer than skel musc?
to prevent tetanic contractions.
heart needs time to relax and refill
124
how many av beats per min in heart?
75 bpm
125
what does the intrinsic conduction sys set?
basic rythum of heart
126
what does the extrinsic innervation of the heart do?
modifies the basic rythum
127
what makes heart beat
gap junctions, conduct impulses and intrinsic conduction sys
128
explain the role of the intrinsic con sys
determinds the pace of the heartbeat pacemakers have an unstable resting potential and produce pacemaker potentials that continusly depolarize in initiating action pots that are cinducted thru the heart.
129
what is the order of the intrinsic conduction sequence?
impulses pass thru pacemakers in the folloeing order:
-SA node (sinoatrial) that triggers musc contraction in L and R atriums.
-AV node (atrioventricular) slightly delays firing in order to follow atria to finish contracting before ventricles go
-bundle of his (AV bundle) conducts impulses into the ventricles from the AV node.
- R and L bundle branches, conduct impulses down the interventricular septum.
-purkinje fibres, penetrates throughout the ventricular walls, distributing impulses through the ventricles.
130
what does sympathetic and parasympathetic nerv sys to do HR
sym- increases
par- decreases
131
what are arrhythmias
irreg heart beats
132
what is fibrillation
musc spasms
treatment is defibrillation which resets heart
133
how are actions potentials generated in the heart?
voltage gated Na channels allow Na to enter resulting in. depolarization.
this opens slow Ca channels that allow Ca to enter as K exits causing action potentials to delay repolarization (plateau phase).
Ca channels are then inactivated, K channels open and the cell repolarizes back to resting mem pot
134
what is a P wave? QRS complex? T wave?
p- atrial depolarization
qrs- ventricular depolarization
t- ventricular repolarization
135
what is the contractile phase of the cardiac cycle? what is the relaxtion phase?
systole and diastole
136
what are the first 6 events in cardiac cycle and what phase are they
1 atrial contraction (atrial systole)
2 isovolumetric contraction and ventricular election (ventricular sys)
3 isovolumetric relaxtion and ventricular filling (relaxation period)
4 atrial contraction (atrial sys)
137
what happens in ventricular systole
The atria relax and the ventricles contract
includes isovolumetric contraction (atrioventricular vals shut) and ventricular ejection (all 4 valves shut)
138
what is the end systolic volume
volume remaining i each ventricle after systole
139
what is Isovolumetric relaxation
occurs in early diastole resulting in a drop in ventricular pressure, which then causes closure of the semilunar valves and the opening of the atrioventricular valves.
140
what does the normal heart sound mean (lub dub)?
lub- the closing of atrioventricular valves in ventricular systole.
dub- closing of aortic and pulmonary valves during ventricular diastole.
141
what are heart murmurs
heart sounds due to the backflow of blood thru a valve that does not fully close (incompetent) or does not fully open (stenotic)
142
what is stroke volume?
the amount of blood pumped out of the heart during one cardiac cycle.
the volume of blood between end diastolic and end systolic volumes.
143
what is congestive heart faliure?
occurs when the pumping efficiency of the heart is so low that blood circulation cannot meet tissue needs
144
what is pulmonary congestion
occurs when the left side of the heart fails but the right side continues to pump blood to the lungs. Blood is not taken back into the left side of the heart and accumulates in the lungs, resulting in pulmonary edema and can lead to suffocation
145
what do arteries, veins, and capillaries do?
a- carry blood away from heart
v- carry blood towards heart
c- does direct gas exchange
146
what are the layers of blood vessels starting deepest
tunica interna (endothelium), tunica media(smooth musc and elastin),
and tunica externa (loose collagen fibres).
in large arts theres also elastica interna and externa
147
what is the function of tunica media?
controls vasoconstriction and vasodilation of the vessel.
147
what is the function of tunica interna
reduces friction between the vessel walls and blood.
148
what is the function of tunica externa?
protects, reinforces, and anchors the vessel to surrounding structures.
149
what are the 3 types of arteries
elastic, muscular, and arterioles
150
elastic arteries
nearest to the heart
have lots of elastin to withstand pressure changes of cardiac cycle
151
muscular arteries
deliver blood to specific body parts and have lots of tunica media bc they more active in vasoconstriction
152
arterioles
smallest, regulate blood flow into capillary beds thru vasoconstriction and vasodilation
153
continuous capillaies
most common, allow passge of fluids and solutes
154
fenestrated capillaries
helps w absorption and filtration in small intestine and kidneys, good for picking up nutrients
155
sinusoid capillaries
leaky capillaries that allow large molecules to pass between blood and surrounding tissues, like in liver, spleen or bone marrow
156
what is vascular anastamoses
a connection between blood vessels that supply blood to the same region of the body.
it allows blood to have alternative routes to tissues and heart incase a vessel gets blocked.
can occur between two arts or veins or and art and vein.
157
what is blood flow?
flow- the volume of blood flowing through a vessel, organ, or the entire circulation in a given period.
158
what is blood pressure
pressure- the force per unit area exerted by the blood against a blood vessel wall
159
what is resistance?
a measure of the friction between blood and the blood vessel walls. the friction blood must overcome to circulate.
160
if blood pressure increases blood flow.....
increases
161
if resistance increases blood flow .....
decreases
162
what is vasoconstriction and vasodiolation?
con-the narrowing of blood vessels
dia- widening of blood vessels as a result of blood ves relaxation
163
why is blood pressure in arteries the highest?
highest in arteries because its close to the heart and have a large volume of blood forced into them.
164
what is systolic pressure
contracted period.
when L ventricle contracts it pushes blood into aorta producing this peak pressure.
120 mmHg is av
165
what is diastolic pressure
relaxed state.
occurs when ventricles enter distole, aortic valves shut, aorta walls recoil so blood continues to flow forawrd.
av is 70-80 mmHg
166
whats the diff between systolic and diastolic pressure
pulse pressure
167
capillary BP
low, 15-40mmHg, to protect caps from rupturing but still allows for gas exchange
168
venus BP
low and changes very little in cardiac cyle.
169
what is hypertension
high blood pressure.
a sustained increase in either systolic or diastolic pressure.
170
what is primary hypertension
most common, in specific cause, problem is hypertension
171
what is secondary hypertension
less common (10%), caused by artery obstruction, kidney disease, or other causes.
172
what is hypotension
low BP, caused by many things
173
what is circulatory shock
any condition in which blood volume is inadequate and cannot circulate normally resulting in blood flow not being able to meet the needs of the tissue
174
hypovolemic shock? vascular shock?
hyp- result from large loss of blood,heart cant pump blood thru body
vas- occurs when normal blood vol but exterme vasodialation resulting in poor circulation and drop in BP
175
transient vascular shock? cardiogenic shock?
tra- due to prolonged exposure to heat resulting in vasodialtion of cutaneuos blood vessels.
car- occurs when the heat is too inefficient to sustain normal blood flow and is related to myocardial damage
176
how is blood pressure measured?
using a sphygmomanometer or BP cuff.
cut off blood flow to arm,
squeeze artery flat, then slowly deflate until blod starts flowinf thru again so u can feel pulse.
thats systolic pressure. keep releasing pressure until sound
stops, art is no longer closing under pressure. write
this # as diastolic pressure
177
what 3 adaptations are critical for venus return?
1- skel muscs creates a muscular pump to move blood back to heart wile venus valves prevent backflow
2- pressure changes from breathing create resp pump to move blood by squeezing abdom veins as thorasic veins expand. (keeps blood from pooling in veins)
3- smooth musc undergo sympathetic venoconstriction pushing blood back to heart
178
what are varicose veins? what is the outcome of this?
veins that have become inlarged or twisted.
caused by insufficient force to move blood in veins which causes them to stretch which increases backflow and pooling of blood so blood falls back down.
179
what 3 things maintain blood pressure?
cardiac output
peripheral resistance
blood volume
180
what is neutral control of BP
clusters of neurons that regulate BP by altering cardiac output and blood ves diameter
181
how do baroreceptors affect BP
decreases BP
detect stretch and send impulses to the vasomotor centre, inhibiting its activity and promoting vasodilation of arterioles and veins.
182
how do chemoreceptors affect BP
detect a rise in carbon dioxide levels of the blood and stimulate the cardioacceleratory and vasomotor centres, which increases cardiac output and vasoconstriction.
183
what is hormonal control of BP
Hormonal controls influence short-term changes in blood pressure by acting on vascular smooth muscle or the vasomotor centre of the brain.
like epinephrine
184
how does a change in HR and blood viscosity affect arterial BP?
HR- increased cardiac output
BV- increased systemic or peripheral vascular resistance
185
what is extrinsic control of blood flow?
involves the symapthetic ner sys and hormones to control the flow of blood thru the body
186
what is autoregulation
intrinsic control,
automatic adjustmments of blood flow to each tissue in order to support its needs byt modifying diameter of local arterioles.
187
what is metabolic control
stimulated by shortage of O at tissues.
cells that are lacking release nitric oxide to increase blood flow.
188
what is myogenic control
localized response,
musc based control, when theres a lot of blood flow smooth musc try to tighten and reidrect blood flow to prevent damage to blood vessels
189
what is long term autoregulation
increase in diameter of blood vessels and the number of blood vessels in a process called angiogenesis
190
what is local vasoconstriction
affects one body part,
decreases the amount of BP going down a single blood vessel and allows it to go thru somewhere else
doesnt change BP in anywhere else in the body
191
what is systemic vasocontriction
in all blood vessels, increases BP
192
where does capillary exchange occur
occurs between the blood and interstitial space thru diffusion
193
what is bulk flow
the movement of fluids in and out of capillaries.
helps maintain the interstitial environment.
194
what is hydrostatic and osmotic pressure?
hy- fluid force against a membrane
os- determinds what direction fluids go in capillaries
195
when will fluid leave capillaries
if net hydrostatic exceeds net colloid osmotic pressure, occurs at arterial end
196
when does fluid enter the capillaries
if net colloid osmotic pressure exceeds net hydrostatic pressure
197
what is edema
an abnormal increase in the amount of interstitial fluid causing it to either increase outward pressure, driving fluid out of caps, or decrease inward pressure, not returing fluid back to capillaries or drain into lymph sys
198
what is innate immunnity
what youre born w, looks for recognizable things that are never supposed to be in the body and do not learn
phagocytes and natural killers
199
what are phagocytes and natural killers?
ph- destory pathgens by engulfing them
nk- lyse and kill cells before adaptive immune sys response is activated
200
what is adaptive immunity
involves T and B cells that help immune response learn, adapt, and remember previous pathogens
201
what are the 3 parts of lymphatic sys
lymph vessels, lymph fluid in vess, and plymphatic cells and organs
202
what are lymphatic cappillaries
large molecules that cant enter blood caps enters lymph caps. they flow into lymph vessels and carry to lymphatic trunks
203
what are lymphatic vessels
low pressure vessels that return the lymph back to circ sys
204
where does lymph go back into the circulatory sys?
right lymphatic duct(drains upper right side) or thorasic duct(drains rest of body)
205
what are T cells
go to thymus and then circulation,
manage immune responses, attack, and destroy cells
206
what are B cells
from red bone marrow and goes directly into circulation,
secrete antibodies to mark antigens for destruction by phags
207
what r macrophages
act as phagocytes and active T lypmhs
208
what are dendritic cells
in lymph tiss, activate T lymphocytes
209
what are reticular cells
supports other tissue types, builds and maintains lymph cells
210
what are diffuse and follicular lymphoid tissues?
dif- found in most organs, monitor for trouble
fol- forms larger parts of organs, specialized lymph nodes
211
what are lymphoid tissues
surveillance site for lymphocytes or macrophages
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what are lymph nodes
lymph enters from afferent lymph vess and exits thru effernt vess.
removes and destorys micro rganisms or other debris for the lymph before its transported back to blood
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what are buboes
inflamed lymph nodes
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what is the function of the spleen in the lymphatic sys
largest lymph organ.
removes old blood cells and platelets as well as foregin matter and debris from blood
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what does white and red pulp in the spleen do?
white- immune funcs and contains lymphocytes and reticular fibres.
red- where old blood cells and pathogens are destroyed
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what is MALT
lymph tissue in mucous mems throughout body like in nose or stomach
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what is the thymus? what does it do?
secretes hormones that cause T lymphocytes to become immunocompetent, trains T cells.
made up of thymic lobules that contains outer cortex where T cells divide, and an inner medulla where bad T cells are removed
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what are class I MHC?
all cells w nucleus check thei cytoplasm and put proteins on the outside on I MHC for T cells to check for infection
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what is the purpose of immflamation? what are the 4 signs of it?
occurs when tissues are injured.
limits the spread of damage, disposes of debris and pathogens, alterts adaptive immune sys, and helps w repair.
4 signs are redness, heat, sweeling, and pain
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what are antimicrobial proteins?
inferons and complement.
enhance innate defences by attacking microorganisms directly or by hindering their ability to reproduce
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what are inferons
small proteins produced by infected cells to help protect surrounding healthy cells by telling them to make proteins to protect themselves
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what are complement cascades
group of plasma proteins that kill a cell by punching a hole in their plasma mem making the cell leak
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what is colonial selection
an antigen binds to a lymphocyte and selects it for further development.
the cell can then divide and make a bunch of other cells that are all able to bind to this antigen (clonal expansion).
theyre either effector (activly fight infections) or memory cells (quick response later)
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what is cellular immunity?
T lymphs that either direct adaptive immunity or attack targets.
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what are CD4 cells? what are CD8 cells? what MHC are they in?
4- helper T cells that activate Bcells, T cells and macros ( in MHC I)
8- cytoxic T lymphocytes that destroy cells or foregin substances (in MHC II)
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what are TH1 and TH2 cells?
1- activate cell immune responses against intracellular threats (make more cells)
2- stimulate an increases ib antibody production against extracellular threats
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what is humoral immunity?
antibodies and proteins target and bind to extracellular antigens, found in fluids in body
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what are plasma cells
antibody secreting cells of the humoral response
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what is the function of the respiratory sys?
supply blood w O2 for cellular resporation and dispose of CO2
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what is pulmonary ventillation?
breathing, air moving in and out of lungs
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what is external resporation
echange of O2 and CO2 between blood and lungs
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what is internal respiation
(apart of circ sys)
exchange of O2 and CO2 between blood and tussyes thru blood vessels
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what is the function and structure of the nose?
func- mositens, warms, filters, and cleans air
struc- extends down from brows and has two opens called external nares (nostrils).
nasal cavity is seperated by nasal septum and ends at pharyna thru teo openings called posterior nasal apertures or chonanae.
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what is the purpose of the two mucous membranes in the nasal cav? what are they?
olfactory mucosa- smell
respiratory mucosa- produces mucus
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what is the nasal conchae
bone that filters and moistens and heats air in nose
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what are paranasal sinuses
surround nasal cav, lightens the skull, warms and moistens air and makes mucous
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what is the nasopharynx
air only passageway, traps and destorys airborne pathogens (behind nose)
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what is the oropharynx
air and food passage, behind mouth, contains soft palate and epiglottis
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what is the laryngopharynx
air and food passage, behind larynx, goes from larynx to esophagus
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what is the structure and function of the larynx?
struc- attaches superiorly to the hyoid bone and attaches inferiorly to the trachea.
func- routes food and air into correct oathway and prduces sound thru vocal cords.
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what closes larynx
epiglottis
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what is the structure and function of the trachea?
struc- descends from larynx to primary bronchi.
func- the cilliated pseudostratified epi propels mucus upwards towards pharynx
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what bronchiles can do gas exchange (respitory zone)
respitory brochi, aveolar ducts, and aveolar sacs
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what is the purpose of pseudostratified epithelium in the resp sys
contains goblet cells which produce mucus that traps foregin particles and the cilia move the mucus out of the resp tract
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what is the respiratory mem?
The external surface of the alveoli are covered by a web of pulmonary capillaries. The capillary endothelium and the alveolar epithelium together form the respiratory membrane where gas exchange occurs.
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what is surfactant?
type II aveolar cells produce this to reduce surface tension in lungs so it takes less effort to breathe.
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what are alveolar pores and macrophages?
p- allow airflow between alveoli
m- phagocytose particles
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what is apart of the conducting zone
tracgea, prim bronchi, second bronchi, and terminal bronchi
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what is the order of the respitory pathway
nose and nasal cav
paranasal sinuses
pharynx
larynx
trachea
bronchi and branches
lungs and alveoli
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