A&P Final Flashcards
(125 cards)
1
Q
Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood?
A
epiphyseal plate
2
Q
Osteogenesis is the process of
A
bone formation
3
Q
Which of the following statements best describes interstitial growth?
A
Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow from within.
4
Q
Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream?
A
parathyroid hormone
5
Q
lengthwise, long bone growth during infancy and youth is exclusively through
A
interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plate
6
Q
Bones are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process
A
osteoclast
7
Q
what tissue forms the model for endochondrial ossification.
A
cartilage
8
Q
Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of
A
osteoblasts and osteoclasts
9
Q
The canal that runs through the core of each osteon (the haversion canal) is the site of
A
blood vessels of nerve fibers
10
Q
Which of the following is a bone marking name that indicates an armlike bar of bone?
A
ramus
11
Q
cartilage grows in two ways, appositional and interstitial. What is appositional growth?
A
The secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage.
12
Q
Normal bone formation and growth are dependent on the adequate intake of ____.
A
Calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D
13
Q
Ossification of the ends of long bones____.
A
is produced by secondary ossification centers
14
Q
What causes osteoporosis?
A
Osteoclasts out-pace osteoblasts due to low hormone production of the ovaries.
15
Q
Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal systems?
A
Communication
16
Q
osteomyelitis is _____.
A
Due to pus-forming bacteria.
17
Q
Yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of _____.
A
fat
18
Q
The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the _____.
A
osteoblast
19
Q
The term diploe refers to the _____.
A
internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones
20
Q
The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand tension stress?
A
compact bone
21
Q
In the epiphyseal plate, cartilage grows_____.
A
by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis.
22
Q
The process of bones increasing in width is known as _____.
A
appositional growth
23
Q
A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the _______.
A
diaphysis
24
Q
What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo?
A
Hyaline cartilge
25
The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by dense connective tissue called______.
perforating (sharpey's) fibers
26
Thoracic vertebrae differ from the other vertebrae in that they have _____.
costal facets
27
Which part of the vertebral column receives the most stress by bearing most of the weight of the body?
The lumbar region
28
which part of the ethmoid bone forms the superior part of the nasal septum?
perpendicular plate
29
Along with support, the anterior ligament of the vertebral column also acts to ____.
Prevent hyperextension of the spine
30
Which bone acts as a moveable base for the tongue?
Hyoid bone
31
Which forms the largest portion of the coxal bone?
Ilium
32
Which of the following is true about paranasal sinuses?
Paranasal sinuses enhance the resonance of the voice and lighten the skull.
33
What makes up the axial skeleton
The skull, vertebral column, and rib cage.
34
The "true wrist" or carpus consists of _____.
A group of eight short bones united by ligaments
35
Which vertebra does not have a body
atlas
35
Which of the following is not a movement that can occur between vertebrae?
supination
36
The articulation that most closely resembles a hinge in the body involves which bones?
Humerus-ulna
37
Which bone is in direct contact with the first metatarsal?
Medial cuneiform
38
What is the major function of the axial skeleton?
Provide central support for the body and protect internal organs
39
What is the major function of the intervertebral discs?
absorb shock
40
Which bone contains areas of diaphysis and epiphysis areas, a tuberosity near its middle, and its proportionally more compact than spongy bone?
humerus
41
The superior oribital fissure is formed in the sphenoid bone, whereas the inferior orbital fissure is formed between the sphenoid and _____.
maxilla
42
Which of the following phrases best describes the function of the vertebral curves?
To provide resilience and flexibility
43
The pituitary gland is housed in the ______.
sella turcica of the sphenoid bone
44
Which portion of the fibula articulates with the talus?
lateral malleolus
45
Paranasal sinuses are found in which of these facial bones?
Maxillae
46
Which bone forms the prominence of the cheek?
zygomatic bone
47
The superior nasal concha is part of which bone?
ethmoid
48
The membranous areas between the cranial bones of the fetal skull are called ______.
Fontanelles
49
The suture that connects the two parietal bones together is the _____.
Sagittal
50
Which of the following movements does not increase or decrease the angle between bones?
rotation
51
Extrascapular ligaments stabilizing the knee include____.
lateral and medial collateral ligaments preventing later or medial angular movements
52
Which ligament of the knee initiates the knee-jerk reflex when tapped?
The patellar ligament
53
Tendon sheaths ______.
Act as a friction-reducing structures
54
A fibrous joint is a peg-in-socket is called a _____ joint.
gomphosis
55
The gliding motion of the wrist uses ______ joins.
plane
56
A joint united by dense fibrocartilaginous tissue that usually permits a slight degree of movement is a ____.
symphysis
57
An example of a interosseous fibrous joints is _____
the radius and ulna along its length
58
Which of the following statements defines synchondroses?
cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage united the ends of bones
59
Synarthrotic joints_____.
permit essentially no movement
60
Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to keeping the articular surfaces diarthroses in contact?
Number of bones in the joint
61
Which of the following are cartilaginous joints?
Synchondroses
62
The hip joint is a good example of a(n) _____ synovial joint.
Multiaxial
63
Bending your head back until it hurts is an example of _____.
Hyperextension
64
Presence of a synovial cavity, articular cartilage, synovial membrane, and ligaments are characteristics of what type of joint?
Hinge joint
65
Which of the following is a true statement?
The annular ligament surrounds the head of the radius
66
Compared to the shoulder, displacements of the hip joints are ______.
rare because of the ligament reinforcement
67
Which of the following is not a part of the synovial joint?
Tendon sheath
68
The cruciate ligaments of the knee ______.
Prevent hyperextension of the knee
69
In symphysis joints the articular surfaces of the bones are covered with _____.
hyaline cartilage
70
Football players often sustain lateral blows to the extended knee. Which of the ligaments is (are) damaged as a result?
Medial collateral, medial meniscus, anterior cruciate
71
Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to _____.
Provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints
72
On the basis of structural classification, which joint is fibrous connective tissue?
Syndesmosis
73
Which of the following is a correct statement about development of joints?
Joints develop in parallel with bones.
74
Which of the following statements best describes angular movements?
They change (increase or decrease) the angle between two bones.
75
The oxygen-binding protein found in the muscles cells is ______.
myoglobin
76
Which of the following is true about smooth muscle?
Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers.
77
In an isotonic contraction, the muscle _______.
changes in length and move the "load"
78
Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by _____.
storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesizes ATP
79
Which of the following is not a role of ionic calcium in muscle contraction?
Activates epinephrine released from adrenal gland
80
What produces the striations of skeletal muscle cell?
The arrangements of myofilaments
81
What is the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue?
The ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy
82
The contractile units of skeletal muscles are _____.
myofibrils
83
During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pryuvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to _______.
Lactic acid
84
The muscle cell membrane is called the ______.
sarcolemma
85
Fatigued muscle cells that recover rapidly are the products of ______.
intense exercise of short duration
86
Which of the following is not a component of the standard treatment for muscle strain?
stretching of the muscle
87
Most skeletal muscles contain ______.
a mixture of fiber types
88
What is the role of calcium ions in muscle contraction?
bind to regulatory sites on troponin to remove contraction inhibition
89
Which of the following surrounds the individual muscle cell?
endomysium
90
When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods?
Refractory period
91
Hypothetically, if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped, _____.
no muscle tension could be generated
92
Three discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their size, speed, and endurance. Which of the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of red ribers?
a long, relaxing swim
93
Which of the following statements is true?
striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei
94
muscle tone is ______.
a state of sustained partial contraction
95
During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites?
actin filaments
96
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions?
motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
97
What does excess post exercise oxygen consumption represent?
the difference between the amount of oxygen needed for totally aerobic muscle activity and the amount actually used
98
muscle tissue has all of the following properties except _____.
secretion
99
The sliding filament model of contraction involves ______.
actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping
100
Which of the following muscles fixes and depresses the ribs and stabilizes the pelvis during walking?
Rectus abdominis
101
What type of muscle assists an agonist by causing like movement or by stabilizing a joint over which an agonist acts?
synergist
102
What is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle?
The total number of muscle cells available for contraction
103
If L= load, F= fulcrum, and E= effort, what type of lever system is described at LEF?
third class lever
104
Paralysis of which of the following muscles would make an individual unable to flex the knee?
Hamstring muscles
105
Which of the following muscles is not a member of the hamstrings group?
Vastus intermedius
106
The names of muscles often indicate the action of the muscle. what does the term levator mean?
the muscle elevates
107
Which type of lever is demonstrated by using scissors?
first class lever
108
Which of the following inserrts by the calcaneal tendon
the gastronemius
109
A muscle that opposes, or reverses, a particular movement is an
antagonist
110
Which generalization concerning movement by skeletal muscles is not true?
during contraction the two articulating bones move equally
111
Which of the following muscles serves as a common intramuscular injection site, particularly in infants?
the vastus lateralis
112
What muscle is primarily responsible for preventing foot drop?
extensor digitorum longus
113
Which of these is not a way of classifying muscles?
the type of muscle fibers
114
Which of the following muscles is involved in producing horizontal wrinkles in the forehead?
The frontal belly of the epicranius
115
Which group of muscles flexes and rotates the neck?
The scalenes
116
What is the major factor controlling how levers work?
The difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum
117
Which of the following muscles is a flexor of the thigh?
adductor magnus
118
Which of the following is not a member of the hamstrings?
Gracilis
119
A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that adults also use for whistling. What is this muscle called?
buccinator
120
Which of the following muscles is involved in inversion at the ankle joint?
Tibialis anteior
121
Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the thigh?
iliopsoas and rectus femoris
122
Which of the following describes the suprahyoid muscles?
they are a group of muscles that lie superior to the hyoid bone and help form the floor of the oral cavity
123
If a lever operates at a mechanical disadvantage, it means that the
load is far from the fulcrum and effort is applied near the fulcrum
124
What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called?
An agonist
