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A&P II -- Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is sensation?

A

Conscious awareness of the effects of stimuli, received by sensory receptors. The brain perceives info about body and environment via senses.

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2
Q

What are the 5 types of sensory receptors according to the categorized by the type of stimulus?

A

Mechanoreceptors: Respond to manual stimulus tickle, touch, vibration.

Chemoreceptors: Respond to different chemicals. Smell and taste.

Thermoreceptors: Respond to change in temperature.

Photoreceptors: Respond to light. Sense of vision.

Nociceptors (pain receptors): Extreme mechanical, chemical or thermal stimuli. Causes sense of pain.

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3
Q

What are the 3 types of receptors catergorized by location?

A

Exteroreceptors: Associated with skin

Visceroreceptors: associated with organs.

Proprioceptors: Associated with joints and tendons.

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4
Q

What are Direct Pathways and what are their two tracts?

A

Control fine, skilled movements in the face and distal limbs

Corticospinal: direct control of movements below the head
Corticobulbar: direct control of movements in head and neck

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5
Q

What are the four special senses?

A

Olfaction, Taste, Sight and Balance

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6
Q

What kind of neurons are found in the olfactory system?

A

Bipolar Neurons which have 1 axon and 1 dendrite.

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7
Q

What are the three regions of the frontal lobe that affect the perception of smell?

A

Lateral Olfactory Area: Concious perception of smell

Medial Olfractory Area: Visceral and emotional reactions to smell

Intermediate Olfactory Area: affect modification of incoming information.

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8
Q

What are the 4 types of papillae in the tongue?

A

Vallate: Largest, least numerous. In the middle area of tongue.

Fungiform: Mushroom-shaped. Scattered irregularly over the superior surface of tongue.

Foliate: Leaf-shaped. In folds on the sides of the tongue. Decrease in number with age.

Filiform: fiber shaped. Most numerous on the tongue surface.

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9
Q

What are the five types of taste types?

A

Sour: Caused by Hydrogen ions

Salty: Caused by Sodium ions

Bitter: presence of g-protein that open gated channels

Sweet: Sugars and carbs. carbs break down into sugars.

Umami: Caused by amino acids. Found in rich aged foods.

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10
Q

What are the 5 accessory structures of the visual system?

A

Eyebrows: inhibit sweat

Eyelids (palpebrae): help lubricating the eyes and protect the eyes from foreign objects.

Conjunctiva: thin transparent mucous membrane. Covers the inner eyelid and part of the eye;

Lacrimal glands: produce tears (lubrication and protection of the eye);

Extrinsic eye muscles: move the eyeball (clinical test for normal eye movement – “H” test).

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11
Q

What are the four areas of the lacrimal apparatus?

A

Lacrimal gland: produces tears to moisten, lubricate, wash. Tears pass through ducts and then over eye.

Lacrimal canaliculi: collect excess tears through openings called “puncta” in the corner of eye.

Lacrimal sac: collects excess tears to drain through nasolacrimal duct.

Nasolacrimal duct: opens into nasal cavity

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12
Q

What are the three layers of the eyeball?

A

Fibrous Tunic (outer layer): contains sclera and cornea

Vascular tunic (middle layer): choroid, ciliary body, iris. Contains most of the blood vessels in eye.

Nervous tunic (inner layer): retina

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13
Q

What is the sclera?

A

The outer white area of the eye that is made of dense collagenous connective tissue.

Maintains shape and protects internal structures of eye

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14
Q

What is the cornea?

A

The transparent front area of the eye. Its is transparent to allow light to enter the eye

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15
Q

What are the two sublayers of the Nervous layer?

A

Pigmented retina: reduce light scattering

Sensory retina: contains rod and cone cells that are sensitive to light. Only area that contains photoreceptors.

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16
Q

What does the area of light focus in the retina consist of?

A

Macula Lutea and Fovea Centralis

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17
Q

Describe the Fovea Centralis?

A

The dark spot in center of retina. Contains the highest area of visual ability and the most photoreceptor cells.

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18
Q

What is the name of the blind spot in your eye? Why is it called the blind spot?

A

Optic Disc.

It is called the blind spot because it contains no photoreceptors and only contains a port in which blood vessels and the optic nerve enter/exit the eye.

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19
Q

Describe the focal point and where is the ideal place for it on the retina?

A

It is the crossing point for all converging light rays. The ideal focal point is the fovea centralis.

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20
Q

Describe Rods

A

A photoreceptor cell responsible for black and white vision. Found over retina but not in fovea centralis.

Has two components opsin and retinal

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21
Q

Describe Cones

A

Photoreceptor cells responsible for color vision and visual acuity. Found mostly in fovea centralis and macula lutea.

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22
Q

How does light travel through the retina?

A

The action potential first reaches the pigmented layer of the retina —> then goes through the photoreceptor layer containing rods and cones —> then the AP reaches the bipolar cells —> reaches the ganglion cells —> then transfers to the optic nerve.

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23
Q

Describe the eye disorders myopia and hyperopia

A

Myopia (near-sightedness) Focal point too near lens, image focused in front of retina

Hyperopia: (Farsightedness)
Image focused behind retina

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24
Q

What are the three main areas of the ear?

A

External ear: (hearing). Terminates at eardrum
(tympanic membrane). Includes auricle and external auditory meatus

Middle ear: (hearing). Air-filled space containing auditory ossicles

Inner ear: (hearing and balance). Interconnecting fluid-filled tunnels and chambers within the temporal bone

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25
What is the name of the membrane of the external ear that vibrates during sound? Describe it.
Tympanic membrane Sound waves cause it to vibrate Border between external and middle ear
26
What are the names of the three bones found in the middle ear?
Auditory Ossicles: Malleus, incus, stapes
27
Name the three areas of the ear where we find bony labyrinth.
Cochlea: hearing Vestibule: balance Semicircular canals: balance
28
Describe two of the qualities of sound
Volume or amplitude: function of wave amplitude | Pitch: function of wave frequency
29
Describe how sound travels through your ear.
1. Sound waves strike the tympanic membrane and cause it to vibrate. 2. Sound waves strike the tympanic membrane and cause it to vibrate. 3. The foot plate of the stapes vibrates in the oval window. 4. The vibrations of the oval window causes a vibration through the cochlea and vibrates the perilymph.
30
What are the two muscles of the middle ear that move the ossicles?
Tensor tympani: inserts on malleus Stapedius: inserts on stapes
31
What are the two subgroups of the Peripheral Nerves?
Sensory Neurons- Carry AP from the periphery to the CNS Motor Neurons- Carry AP from the CNS to effector organs. Sensory neurons carry info up the hill. Motor Neurons carry info down the hill.
32
What are the two types of motor neurons?
Somatic Motor Neurons - Supply information to the skeletal muscles. Autonomic Motor Neurons - Supply infornation to the smooth/cardiac muscle.
33
Describe the cell bodies of Somatic Motor Neurons
These cell bodies are located in the CNS. Their axons extend from CNS to skeletal muscle and the tails of the axon can sometimes be quite long. Controlled consciously most of the times.
34
Describe the cell bodies of Autonomic Motor Neurons
Contain 2 Neurons. 1-preganglionic 2- postganglionic Body of 1st neuron in CNS body of 2nd neuron in autonomic ganglia. Synapse within the autonomic ganglia. Unconcious control.
35
What is a gland?
Organ of secretion
36
What is a exocrine gland?
Glands that secrete substances onto the bodies external surface
37
What is an endocrine gland?
Glands that secrete chemical signals or hormones into the circulatory system.
38
What is a hormone?
Type of intercellular signal, between cells, that are produced by endocrine glands, enter circulatory system and affect distant cells.
39
What is Autocrine?
Released by cells and have an affect only on the same cell type from which the chemical signal was released.
40
What is Paracrine?
Released by cells and affect other cell types locally. Does not get transported through blood.
41
What is Pheromones?
Secreted into environment and modify behaviior and physiology of the other organism.
42
What are neurohormones?
Produced by neurons and function like hormones.
43
Describe positive feedback?
When the body increases the deviation from the norm.
44
Describe negative feedback?
When the body works against positive feedback to keep the body at homeostasis
45
What is the function of the endocrine system?
Responsible for maintaining homeostasis via precise regulation.
46
What is the function of the pituitary gland?
Regulates many body functions and other endocrine glands.
47
Where is the pituitary gland located?
Beneath the hypothalumus of the brain in the skull bone indentation called Stella Turcica which forms a nest to protect the gland.
48
What are the two areas of the pituitary gland?
Posterior Pituitary: Extention of the hypothalumus, produces neurohormones. Anterior Pituitary: Produces endocrine hormones. Contains glandular tissue.
49
What is the name of the structure that connects the Hypothalumus and the Posterior Pituitaty? How does it function?
Hypothalamo-Hypophysial Tract Nerve cells are produced by the hypothalumus, they are sent through the posterior pituitary via the HHT and then they are released into the bloodstream.
50
What is the name of the structure that connects the hypothalumus to the anterior pituitary gland? How does it function?
Hypothalamo-hypophysial Portal System Neurohormones are produced by Hypothalumus and decend through portal system. They enter anterior pituitary and leave the capillaries and enter the endocrine glands and tell them to produce certain hormones.
51
What hormones are produced by the Posterior Pituitary?
Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) - Prevents the output of large amounts of urine. Oxytocin: Stimulates smooth muscle fibers in the uterus for childbirth and promotes ejection of milk during lactation.
52
How does the thyroid gland function to produce T3/T4?
First the follicular cells produce thyrogobulin and fills the follicle. Then Iodine enters the cell from the outside. Iodine then binds with the component of the thyrogobulin called tyrosine. This binding causes T3/T4
53
What are the symptoms of hyperthyroidism or the overproduction of T3/T4?
Increase metabolic rate Increase blood pressure/heart rate Increase appetite/weight loss
54
What hormone does the parathyroid secrete?
PTH- parathyroid hormone. This inreases calcium levels in the blood by promoting calcium reabsorbtion.
55
Describe the composition of the adrenal gland
Found on the superior poles of the kidneys. Has two sections: Cortex - outer layer, Medulla - inner layer.
56
What does the adrenal medulla secrete?
Secretes the neurohormone epinephrine and norepinephrine.
57
What hormone is produced by the Zona glomerulosa layer of the adrenal cortex?
Mineralocorticoids: increase the rate of sodium reabsorption by the kidneys.
58
What hormone is produced by the Zona fasciculata layer of the adrenal cortex?
Glucocorticoids: increases fat and protein breakdown.
59
What hormone is produced by the Zona reticularis layer of the adrenal cortex?
Androgens: Stimulate pubic and axillary hair growth.
60
Describe the structure and function of the pancreas
Located along the small instestine and stomach. Has a dual function as both an endocrine and exocrine gland.
61
How is the pancreas an exocrine gland?
It secretes digestive juices into the small intestine to break down food that did not fully digest in the stomach.
62
What are the three hormones secretes by the pancreas?
Alpha Cells: Secrete glucagon Beta Cells: Secrete Insulin Delta Cells: Secrete somatostatin
63
What is the function of the insulin produced by the pancreas' beta cells?
Increases the absorption of glucose and makes the cells use the sugar for energy. Keeps the blood sugar stabilized.
64
What is the function of the glucagon produced by the pancreas' alpha cells?
Causes the breakdown of the secondary storages areas for sugar glycogen and fats. Uses it for energy.
65
Describe Type I diabetes
Insulin Depending Diabetes Melatose Pancreas not producing enough insulin
66
Describe Type II diabetes
Non-Insulin Depending Diabetes Melatose Receptors that are stimulated by insulin are not functioning properly
67
What is the function of the blood?
Transport of nutrients and waste products and hormones and gases. Maintenance of body temperature, Protection against different pathogens, Clot formation
68
What is the composition of blood?
Plasma (55%) Formed Elements (45%)
69
What is the composition of blood plasma?
Consists of : 91% water + proteins and other components
70
Describe red blood cells
Called erythrocytes. Biconcave discs, anucleate, contain hemoglobin; transports oxygen and carbon dioxide
71
Describe white blood cells
Called leukocytes Two different types: Granulocytes: cytoplasm contains large granules; have multi-lobed nuclei Agranulocytes: cytoplasm contains small granules and nuclei that are not lobed
72
What are the five hemocytoblasts and what do they eventually form into?
Proerythroblasts: Develop into red blood cells Myeloblasts: Develop into basophils, neutrophils, eosinophils (granulocytes) Lymphoblasts: Develop into lymphocytes Monoblasts: Develop into monocytes Megakaryoblasts: Develop into platelets
73
What hormone stimulates red blood cell production and what organ produces it?
Erythropoietin produced by kidneys in response to low blood O2 levels.
74
What is the role of leukocytes?
Protect body against microorganisms and remove dead cells and debris.
75
Which leukocyte is the marine of the immune system and is the first responder during damage and phagosizes bacteria and secretes lysozyme?
Neutrophil
76
Which leukocytes enter damaged tissues and release histamine and heparin that promotes inflammation?
Basophil
77
Which leukocyte enters the tissue during inflammatory response and is prevalant in allergic reactions?
Eosinophils
78
Which leukocyte is responsible for antibody production and accounts for 20-25% of the white blood cells?
Lymphocytes
79
What leukocyte becomes a macrophage after its job and breaks down antigens and presents them to lymphoctes?
Monocytes
80
What are the two atrium's of the heart?
Two upper chambers of heart. Right Atrium: Receives Deoxygenated blood to heart from body. Left Atrium: Receive blood from pulmonary veins, receives oxygenated blood from the lungs.
81
What are the three major openings of the right atrium that receive blood?
Superior Vena Cava: Receives deoxygenated blood from upper body. Inferior Vena Cava: Receives deoxygenated blood from lower body. Coronary Sinus: Receives deoxygenated blood from the heart only.
82
What are the two ventricles of the heart?
Two Lower Chambers of Heart Right Ventricle: carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs. Left Ventricle: Carries oxygenated blood to the aorta which supplies body.
83
What type of blood is found in the right side of the heart (right atrium & right ventricle)?
Deoxygenated blood that is low in O2 and high in CO2
84
What type of blood is found in the left side of the heart (left atrium & left ventricle)?
Oxygenated blood that is high in O2 and low in CO2
85
What is the function of arteries?
Carry blood away from the heart to the body.
86
What is the function of veins?
Carry blood toward the heart from the body.
87
What are the two AV Valves found in the heart?
Tricuspid Valve: Separate R Atrium from R Ventricle. Bicuspid Valve: Separate L Atrium from L Ventricle.
88
What are the two semilunar valves?
Aortic Valve: Seperates Aorta from the Left Ventricle Pulmonary Valve: Separates pulmonary trunk from right ventricle.
89
What are the three layers of the heart tissue?
Epicardium: Smooth outer surface of the heart. Protects against friction during the hearts beating. Myocardium: Thick middle layer. Only place that contains cardiac muscle. Responsible for contraction and pumping of heart Endocardium: Innermost layer of heart. Reduces friction as blood passes through the heart.
90
Describe the AV Valves?
AV valves prevent backflow of blood back into the atria. This valve separate the atrium and ventricles.
91
Describe semilunar Valves?
Halfmoon valves that prevent bloodflow from major vessels back into the ventricles.
92
Where is the SA Node and what is its function?
Found in the right atria near the entrance to the superior vena cava. It functions as the natural pacemaker of the heart. It generates action potential and causes the atria of the heart to contract.
93
What is the AV Node and what is its function?
Found below the SA node close to the right AV Valve. Allows for the completion of the atrial contraction then after begins contraction of the ventricle.
94
What are the three functions of the Lymphatic System?
- Fluid Balance - Fat Absorption - Defense
95
How does the lymphatic system regulate fluid balance?
Excess interstitial fluid enters lymphatic capillaries and becomes lymph. Small lymphatic vessels are embedded in our tissues and drains fluid to prevent swelling.
96
What is the composition of lymph?
Water plus solutes from nutrients, gases, cells and proteins.
97
What are the two lymph ducts and there function?
They drain tissues and move lymph into major veins. Right Lymphatic Duct: Drains right side of head, right upper limbs and right thorax. Thoracic Duct: Drains remainder of body.
98
Which Lymphatic Duct is the largest?
Thoracic Duct because it drains the lower body tissues and the left side body tissues.
99
What are tonsils?
Large groups of lymphatic nodules in the naso-pharynx and oral cavity
100
What are the three groups of tonsils?
Palatine Pharyngeal Lingual
101
Where do Pre-B cells mature?
In the red bone marrow before they are released into the blood.
102
Where do Pre-T cells mature?
In the thymus then move into the blood.
103
What do B and T cells do after they migrate into the blood?
They populate all lymphtic tissues and respond to infections.
104
What areas are contained in the upper tract of the respiratory system?
Nose, Pharynx, Nasal Cavity,
105
What areas are contained in the lower tract of the respiratory system?
Larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs and tubing of the lungs.
106
What is the pharynx?
The common opening for digestive and respiratory systems
107
What are the three regions of the pharynx?
Nasopharynx: Where the nasal cavity opens into the throat. Oropharynx: Where the oral cavity opens into the throat. Laryngopharynx: Epiglottis to esophagus.
108
What type of cells are found in the nasopharynx?
Pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells. Secretes mucous.
109
What type of cells are found in the oropharynx and laryngopharynx?
Stratified squamous epithelium. This protects the area from high levels of friction caused by passing food and drink.
110
What two sections does the trachea divide into?
Left Primary Bronchi and Right Primary Bronchi
111
What is the entire breakdown of the tracheobronchial tree?
Trachea --> L&R Primary Bronchi --> Secondary Bronchi --> Tertiary Bronchi --> Bronchioles --> Terminal Bronchioles
112
Where is the site of gas exchange in the lungs found?
Alveoli
113
What is the hilus?
The medial surface of the lungs where the bronchi and blood vessels enter the lung.
114
What is the cavity that surrounds each lung?
Pleural Cavity
115
What are the two "pleura"
Visceral Pleura: Adheres to the lung Parietal Pleura: Adheres to the thoracic wall
116
What structures make up the "GI Tract?"
Stomach and Instestines
117
What organs and openings make up the Digestive System?
Mouth, Pharynx, Esophagus, Stomach, Small Intestine, Large Instestine, Anus
118
What are the 4 layers of the digestive tract tissue?
Mucosa Submucosa Muscularis Serosa
119
What are the 3 sublayers of the mucosa?
Mucous Epithelium Lamina Propria Muscularis Mucosae
120
What is peristalsis?
Movement of material through the digestive tract.
121
What are the two waves of peristalsis?
Wave of relaxation: Muscle relaxes in front of the bolus. Wave of contraction: Muscle contracts behind the bolus to move it forward.
122
What are the two sets of teeth?
Deciduous: "baby teeth" Permanent: adult teeth that replace baby teeth between 5-11 years.
123
How many teeth are found in the deciduous teeth set?
20
124
How many teeth are found in the permanent teeth set?
32
125
What are the 4 types of teeth?
Incisors, canines, premolars and molars.
126
What are the two openings into the stomach?
Gastroesophageal (cardiac): upper opening from esophagus to stomach. Pyloric: lower opening from stomach to duodenum.
127
What are the main parts of the stomach (4)?
Cardiac: superior opening into stomach. Fundus: superior rounded area of stomach. Body: Largest part of stomach. Pylorus: funnel shaped area which controls movement out of the stomach.
128
What are the two curvatures of the stomach?
Greater and Lesser curvatures.
129
What are the two sphincters of the stomach?
Cardiac: Part of lower esophagus. Pyloric: Between lower stomach and small intestine.
130
Where in the digestive system is the greatest amount of digestion and absorption of nutrients?
Small Intestine
131
Where is the major site of nutrient absorption in the intestines?
Jejunum and Ileum
132
What is the function of the gallbladder?
To store bile and release it
133
What are the cells that make up the liver called and what are their functions?
Hepatocytes Bile production, detox, phagocytosis.
134
What are the three divisions of the small intestine?
Duodenum: First 10 inches of small intestine Jejunum Ileum
135
Where is bile produced and stored?
Bile is produced in the liver and stored in the gallbladder.
136
What makes up the large intestine?
Consists of cecum, colon, rectum, anal canal
137
What is absorbed in the large intestine?
Water, salt, vitamins and medicine.
138
What are the two sphincters of the large intestine?
Internal anal sphincter: Involuntary control, smooth muscle External anal sphincter: Voluntary control, skeletal muscle.
139
What four organs and vessels make up the Urinary System?
Kidney Ureter Urinary Bladder Urethra
140
What are the 4 functions of the urinary system?
Filter blood Regulation of blood volume, ph, solutes Synthesis of Vitamin D Synthesis of Erythropoietin
141
What is the function of the ureters?
Brings urine from renal pelvis to urinary bladder.
142
What is the function of the urinary bladder?
Stores urine in its hollow muscular container.
143
What is the trigone?
Triangular area between the entry of the two ureters and the exit of the urethra.
144
What is the function of the urethra?
Muscular tube that transports urine to the outside of the body.
145
What are the 4 parts of the nephron?
Bowman's capsule -- capsule that surrounds the glomerulus. Proximal Tubule Distal Tubule Loop of Henle
146
What are the two different types of nephrons?
Juxtamedullary Nephron: has a loop of henle that extend deep into the medulla. Cortical Nephron: has a loop of henle that stays nearer to the cortex.
147
What is the structure of the filtration membrane within the bowman's capsule?
Where the wall of the capillaries are up against the walls of the podocyte. Capillary Endothelium & Podocyte of B-Cells.
148
What are the three processes in urine formation?
Glomerulal Filtration (GF): Movement of material between capillaries and bowman's capsule. Tubular Reabsoption (TR): Reabsorbs materials back into blood if there was too much taken. Tubular Secretion (TS): Checks if something was left behind that wasn't absorbed from blood.
149
What is the first stage of urine formation
Occurs when fluid from blood in capillaries move across the filtration membrane into the lumen of the bowman's capsule through the capillaries smal fenestrae or pores.
150
What are the anatomical differences between the right and left kidney?
Right kidney is slightly lower because liver pushes it down. Left kidney is slightly longer and bigger.
151
What is the renal capsule?
The fibrous connective tissue that surrounds the entire organ of the kidney.
152
What is the function of the renal fascia?
It anchors the kidneys to surrounding adipose tissue and the abdominal wall.
153
What is he development of egg cells?
Oogenia Primary oocytes Secondary oocytes Ovum
154
What is the development of sperm cells?
Spermatogonia Primary spermocytes Secondary spermocytes Spermatids Sperm cells

A&P II (13 decks)

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