A&P Midterm Flashcards
1
Q
The layer of the pleura membrane that lines the entire thoracic cavity is known as the _____________________ layer.
A
parietal
2
Q
The structure that divides the ventral cavity into two parts is the
A
diaphragm
3
Q
The red dot is ____________ to the blue dot.
A
rostral
4
Q
The structure that divides the ventral cavity into two parts is the
A
diaphragm
5
Q
Which of these is an example of microanatomy?
A
examining cells on a blood smear
6
Q
Inflammation of the pleura membrane is known as _______________________.
A
pleuritis
7
Q
Which anatomic plane divides the body into equal R and L halves?
A
median plane
8
Q
The dog has 13 pairs of ribs- each rib on the right side of the thorax has a matching rib on the left side of the thorax. This is an example of
A
bilateral symmetry
9
Q
The study of the normal function of living organisms is
A
physiology
10
Q
An example of a group of different types of tissues working together for a common purpose is/are
A
the brain.
11
Q
The reference plane that divides the body into cranial and caudal parts that are not necessarily equal is the
A
transverse plane.
12
Q
Which end of a donkey’s tail attaches to the body?
A
proximal
13
Q
The layer of the pleura membrane that covers the organs in the thoracic cavity is known as the _____________________ layer.
A
visceral
14
Q
The red line is along the ____________ aspect of the leg.
A
plantar
15
Q
Which anatomic plane divides the body into equal R and L halves?
A
median plane
16
Q
The shoulder of a camel is ____________ to its carpus.
A
proximal
17
Q
Choose the correct term to complete the statement. In the picture of the horse, G in on the ________ aspect of the right rear leg.
A
medial
18
Q
Which anatomic plane separates the body into cranial and caudal regions?
A
transverse plane
19
Q
The thin membrane that lines the thoracic cavity is known as the ______________________ membrane.
A
pleura
20
Q
If you were told to look for a cut on the palmar surface of a dog”s leg, where would you look?
A
the back surface of the front leg below the carpus
21
Q
The body cavity that contains the heart is the
A
thoracic cavity.
22
Q
Choose the correct term to complete the statement. In the picture of the horse, F is ________ to E.
A
distal
23
Q
The red line is along the ____________ aspect of the leg.
A
cranial
24
Q
The red line is along the ____________ aspect of the leg.
A
caudal
25
The layer of the pleura membrane that lines the entire thoracic cavity is known as the _____________________ layer.
parietal
26
The layer of the peritoneum membrane that lines the entire abdominal cavity is known as the _____________________ layer.
parietal
27
Which letter in the diagram indicates “plantar”?
D
28
The layer of the pleura membrane that covers the organs in the thoracic cavity is known as the _____________________ layer.
visceral
29
The outer surface of a cow's leg that is facing away from its body is the __________ surface.
lateral
30
The red dot is on the ____________ aspect of the leg.
medial
31
The red line is along the ____________ aspect of the leg.
palmar
32
The red dot is ____________ to the blue dot.
proximal
33
The red dot is on the ____________ aspect of the leg.
lateral
34
The layer of the pleura membrane that lines the entire thoracic cavity is known as the _____________________ layer.
parietal
35
In the picture above C is ________ to D.
rostral
36
The thin membrane that lines the whole thoracic cavity is called the parietal layer of _________________.
pleura
37
Inflammation of the pleura membrane is known as _______________________.
pleuritis or pleurisy
38
The red line lies along the ____________ plane.
dorsal
39
The red line is along the ____________ aspect of the leg.
dorsal
40
The type of tissue that forms sweat glands is __ tissue.
epithelial
41
On a horse, the area dorsal to the scapulas is known as the
withers
42
The layer of the peritoneum membrane that covers the organs in the abdominal cavity is known as the _____________________ layer.
visceral
43
The plane labelled B in the diagram is the
dorsal place
44
Which anatomic plane separates the body into cranial and caudal regions?
transverse plane
45
The body cavity that contains the heart is the
thoracic cavity.
46
The reference plane that divides the body into cranial and caudal parts that are not necessarily equal is the
transverse plane.
47
The layer of the peritoneum membrane that covers the organs in the abdominal cavity is known as the _____________________ layer.
visceral
48
This body cavity lies caudal to the diaphragm. This is the _____________________ cavity.
abdominal
49
H + is the symbol for ____________ ion.
hydrogen
50
Mg +2 is the symbol for ____________ ion.
magnesium
51
NH 4 + is the symbol for ____________ ion.
ammonium
52
CA +2 is the symbol for ____________ ion.
calcium
53
Which group of lipids has a hydrophilic end and a hydrophobic end that causes them to line up in two layers when placed in water?
phospholipids
54
A/An ______ is formed when an atom gains or loses an electron.
ion
55
Water is the most abundant substance in the body. Which is true of water?
It is a compound.
56
An ____________ bond is formed when one atom in a molecule loses electrons and another gains electrons.
ionic
57
Which group of lipids is made up of a glycerol molecule and three fatty acids?
neutral fats
58
Substances that are catalyzed by enzymes are
substrates
59
Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen are the ____________ that make up most of the matter found in living organisms.
elements
60
____________ have a negative electrical charge and orbit around the nucleus of the atom.
electrons
61
Denatured proteins become
a straight chain of amino acids.
62
A covalent bond is formed between two molecules when they share _____________.
electrons
63
Choose the term that makes the statement true. If at atom (gains/ loses) electrons it will become a positively charged ion.
loses
64
Electrolytes are ________ _________.
ionized salts.
65
Water and fats don"t mix well because fats are
hydrophobic
66
To buffer a solution means to
keep the solution in a neutral pH range.
67
An ion with a positive charge is a/an
cation
68
A ____________ is the smallest unit of a compound that retains the unique properties of the compound.
molecule
69
____________ have a neutral electrical charge and are found in the nucleus of the atom.
neutrons
70
Which of these is an example of a pure substance?
100% oxygen in a tank.
71
Which group of lipids is made up of a glycerol molecule and three fatty acids?
neutral fats
72
A(n) ____________ is a protein that acts as a catalyst for chemical reactions in the cell.
enzyme
73
Iodine-127 and I-131 are isotopes. This means
they have different numbers of neutrons.
74
Water is the universal ____________.
solvent
75
Which is true of buffers?
They are weak acids or weak bases.
76
Which is true of buffers?
They are weak acids or weak bases.
77
Which group of lipids is made up of a glycerol molecule and three fatty acids?
neutral fats
78
____________ have a positive electrical charge and are found in the nucleus of the atom.
protons
79
Substances that are catalyzed by enzymes are
substrates
80
Electrolytes are present when a ________ is dissolved in water.
salt
81
The three major subatomic particles are protons, neutrons and ____________.
electrons
82
Blood samples are typically centrifuged to separate the blood cells from the serum. This is an example of
a physical process
83
Glycogen, the storage form of glucose, is a
polysaccharide.
84
A covalent bond is formed between two molecules when they share _____________.
electrons
85
Which group of lipids contains prostaglandins that help mediate an inflammatory reaction?
eicosanoids
86
Hair is an example of a ___________ protein.
structural
87
Of the pH values below, which is considered 'neutral' pH?
7
88
Choose the term that makes the statement true. If at atom (gains/ loses) electrons it will become a negatively charged ion.
gains
89
Digestive enzymes help breakdown complex molecules like proteins and carbohydrates by catalysing ____________ reactions.
hydrolysis
90
Special proteins in living organisms that speed up a chemical reaction but are not destroyed or used up are called
catalysts/enzymes.
91
Fe+3 is the symbol for ____________ ion.
ferric or iron (III)
92
The energy source for cells of the body to function properly is stored in and released by
ATP
93
____________ have a positive electrical charge and are found in the nucleus of the atom.
protons
94
A polypeptide can be made up of a chain of as many as _____ amino acids.
100
95
Which four elements make up 96% of the matter found in all living organisms?
Correctb. hydrogen, oxygen, carbon, nitrogen
96
A saturated fatty acid is defined as
a chain of carbon atoms with one or two hydrogen atoms attached to each carbon atom by a single bond.
97
A sequence of nucleotides that carries information to make one peptide chain is a/an
gene
98
Which is true of hydrogen bonds?
They form between complementary bases in strands of nucleic acid.
99
An example of an organic compound is
carbohydrate
100
HCO 3 - is the symbol for ____________ ion.
bicarbonate
101
Which organelle in the cell breaks down large nutrient molecules into smaller molecules that can be used as fuel in the cell?
mitochondria
102
This thickest and strongest fiber in a cell is the
mitochondria
103
This thickest and strongest fiber in a cell is the
microtubule
104
Within the cell secretory granules, mitochondria and lysosomes will attach to
microtubules
105
Within the cell secretory granules, mitochondria and lysosomes will attach to
microtubules
106
The powerhouse of a cell is the
mitochondria
107
Actin and myosin proteins form
microfilaments
108
Transport of glucose across the cell membrane
a type of passive transport
109
Which organelle in the cell is an important site for protein synthesis?
ribosome
110
DNA replication takes place during
interphase
111
7% saline is a hypertonic solution. This means its osmolarity is
greater than the osmolarity of ICF
112
Under light microscopy the dark strands visible in the nucleoplasm are
coiled chromatin.
113
Where in the cell does respiration, where oxygen is consumed and carbon dioxide is excreted, take place?
mitochondria
114
The Kreb’s Cycle or Citric Acid Cycle involves _________ respiration that takes place in the ___________.
aerobic: mitochondrial matrix
115
Pores in the cell membrane are formed by
integral proteins.
116
Which of these helps cells maintain or change shape?
microfilaments
117
Which organelle in a cell acts as a modification, packaging, and distribution center for molecules destined for secretion?
Golgi apparatus
118
The control center of a cell is the
nucleus.
119
Small invaginations in the cell membrane are called
caveolae.
120
Protein molecules are moved from the cytoplasm into the nucleus through
nuclear pore complexes.
121
The function of a flagellum is to
move a cell through a fluid.
122
Cilia are located
on the surface of the cell.
123
In nerve cells the sodium-potassium pump moves sodium out of the cell against the concentration gradient. This is an example of
active transport
124
The outer layer of a cell"s nuclear membrane is continuous with the
endoplasmic reticulum.
125
Which organelle in the cell breaks down large nutrient molecules into smaller molecules that can be used as fuel in the cell?
mitochondria
126
In the lipid bilayer that makes up the cell membrane the hydrophobic fatty acids are
the inside of the membrane.
127
The nitrogen base thymine (T) found in DNA can bind only to
adenine
128
Transcription refers to
synthesis of mRNA from DNA template
129
Glycoproteins that cover the surfaces of almost all mammalian cells and allow the cells to bond with one another are called
cell adhesion molecules (CAMs).
130
Which of these cell structures is visible with the light microscope?
nucleolus
131
Prions are unique in that they
lack DNA and RNA
132
Transport of glucose across the cell membrane
is a type of passive transport
133
A virus is composed of a
protein-covered capsule that contains either one strand of DNA or one strand of RNA.
134
Which of these helps cells maintain or change shape?
microfilaments
135
Abnormal buildup of fluid in the abdominal cavity is called
ascites.
136
Chemotherapeutic drugs work by
blocking cell division and protein synthesis.
137
A patient that has a capillary refill time (CRT) of 2.5 seconds is
5% to 7% dehydrated.
138
During replication, the double-stranded DNA unwinds and produces two nucleotide chains. If the original strand reads GTTAGA, what is the configuration of the complementary new strand that is formed?
CAATCT
139
Lactated Ringers Solution, a frequently administered IV fluid, is a/an
isotonic, crystalloid fluid.
140
Facilitated diffusion
moves molecules from extracellular spaces to intracellular spaces using no energy from the cell.
141
Which compartment of water makes up the majority of total body water?
intracellular fluid
142
A macrophage 'ingests' a dead neutrophil (white blood cell) through
phagocytosis
143
Which process is limited by the number of available carrier proteins?
facilitated diffusion
144
Protein synthesis begins in the
DNA
145
In a healthy animal, insensible water loss is the water lost
during respiration.
146
X-shaped chromosomes are linked together at the
centromere
147
A patient is depressed and lying down. The mucous membranes and tongue are dry. It is conscious with a weak and rapid pulse. What would you estimate the percentage of dehydration to be?
10% to 12%
148
What is the source of energy for the symport system of electrolyte transport across a cell membrane?
ATP
149
A solution that contains more solutes than plasma is ______________ to the plasma.
hypertonic.
150
if cells (e.g., red blood cells) are placed in a hypotonic solution, what will happen to them?
They will burst (lyse)
151
Protein synthesis begins in the
DNA.
152
Transcription results in
mRNA production.
153
Cell differentiation and development is dependent on
the position of genes in chromosomes.
154
When a liquid is taken into a cell and the cell uses energy to bring it in, the process is known as
pinocytosis
155
Fluid therapy to correct dehydration in an animal would be
replacement therapy.
156
A phagosome found in a cell will contain
solid material.
157
Waste products of cellular metabolism that are carried in the blood are slightly acidic. To counteract the effects of the acidic waste materials, what would be an ideal pH for blood?
7.4
158
The concentration of salt in water in normal saline is
0.9% NaCl.
159
Which form of passive transport requires a pressure gradient to drive the activity of molecules?
filtration
160
Ions that have a negative charge are called
anions
161
Osmolality measures the concentration of ___________ in fluid.
solutes
162
When waste materials are released from a cell into the interstitial fluid, the process is known as
excretion
163
The basement membrane
is formed by a network of fibers
164
These fibers in the tissue of arterials walls allows these vessels to stretch when blood is pumped from the heart into the arteries, then return to normal size.
elastic
165
The type of membrane that lines the cavities of joints is
synovial membrane
166
The _____________ ____________ anchors a cell to its underlying connective tissue.
basement membrane
167
A normal transudate in the abdominal cavity is called
peritoneal fluid.
168
Which type of muscle has muscle cells that connect to one another at junctions called intercalated disks?
striated involuntary muscle
169
The _____________ has many tiny blood vessels that supply nutrients to cartilage.
perichondrium
170
During the inflammatory process phagocytosis is the job of
macrophages.
171
The capillary refill time test is performed
on the gums.
172
Glands produce their secretions in their
endoplasmic reticulum.
173
The urinary bladder is partially lined by _______________ ______________ , giving it the ability to expand and contract as needed.
transitional epithelium
174
Keratin is found
in skin cells.
175
A scab is a/an
external clot.
176
If a gland loses an entire secretory cell during the secretory process, it is classified as a/an
holocrine gland
177
Which type of muscle is responsible for constricting the walls of blood vessels?
nonstriated involuntary muscle
178
The epithelial cells lining the proximal tubule of the kidney have the function of reabsorbing glucose, amino acids and electrolytes so these essential substances are not excreted in the urine. Which of these characteristics is useful for cells which act to absorb substances?
microvilli
179
The most abundant tissue type by weight in the body is
connective tissue.
180
An example of a wandering cell type in connective tissue is
white blood cells.
181
A high fever can lead to _______ mucous membranes
red
182
The most rigid type of cartilage is ____________ cartilage.
hyaline
183
If a tissue has more than one layer of epithelial cells, the epithelial cells are classified as
stratified.
184
The major muscles in all four legs of a horse are
striated voluntary muscle.
184
The major muscles in all four legs of a horse are
striated voluntary muscle.
185
If a gland has a branched duct that carries secretions to the deposition site, it is a
compound gland
186
Which type of muscle makes up the majority of the heart?
striated involuntary muscle
187
Which is a characteristic of second-intention wound healing?
A scar develops
188
The longest cells in the body are
nerve cells
189
The longest cells in the body are
nerve cells.
190
Which of these is NOT a typical characteristic of connective tissue?
closely packed cells
191
Goblet cells are
secretory cells
192
The type of membrane that has no epithelium is
synovial membrane.
193
Exocrine glands
are lined with epithelial tissue
194
Scar tissue is made from
granulation tissue.
195
The type of membrane that lines the cavities of joints is
synovial membrane.
196
A scab is a/an
external clot
197
Glands produce their secretions in their
endoplasmic reticulum.
198
These fibers in the tissue of arterials walls allows these vessels to stretch when blood is pumped from the heart into the arteries, then return to normal size.
elastic
199
The type of connective tissue associated with haversian canals is
bone.
200
The matrix of blood in the body is
plasma.
201
Which of these tissues has the MOST intercellular material?
cancellous bone
202
Ciliated pseudostratified epithelium is found lining the
respiratory tract
203
What part of the pelvis can be seen as the point of the hip in cattle?
ilium
204
The coffin bone in horses is the
distal phalanx.
205
The coffin bone in horses is the
distal phalanx
206
Which face bone forms the caudal portion of the hard palate?
palatine
207
Which type of joint allows for only rotation movement?
trochoid
208
A large, round, articular surface found at the distal end of the humerus is called a
condyle.
209
Which bone in the appendicular skeleton has an olecranon process?
ulna
210
Which bone forms the brachium?
humerus
211
Which group of bones forms the joint that is comparable to the wrist in humans?
carpal
212
Which bone of the cranium houses the pituitary gland?
sphenoid
213
Large blood vessels, lymph vessels, and nerves enter large long bones through channels called
nutrient foramina.
214
The cribriform plate is contained in the __ bone.
ethmoid
215
What bony structure on the face of cats and dogs forms the easily palpable widest part of the skull?
zygomatic arches
216
Decreasing the angle between two bones results in
flexion.
217
Dewclaws in dogs are found on the __ surface of the leg.
medial
218
Which face bone forms the lower jaw?
mandible
219
A depressed or sunken area on the surface of a bone is called a/an
fossa.
220
In long bones of a mature animal cartilage is found
covering the articular surfaces of the bone
221
The pelvic symphysis is a
cartilaginous joint
222
Fractures of the __ of long bones are especially common in young animals.
epiphyseal plate
223
Cancellous bone is sometimes called
spongy bone.
224
How many dewclaws does a cow have on its thoracic limb?
2
225
An ununited anconeal process is seen in what bone?
ulna
226
The largest sesamoid bone in the body is the
patella.
227
Red bone marrow consists primarily of
blood-forming tissue.
228
The obturator foramina is found in the
pelvis.
229
Which two species of animal are most commonly affected with Wobbler syndrome?
equine and canine
230
The cells that secrete the matrix of a bone are the
osteoblasts.
231
Where would you find immovable fibrous joints called sutures?
skull
232
Firm connective tissue bands that help stabilize the bones that make up a joint and help hold the joint together are called
ligaments.
233
The point of the hock is actually the
calcaneal tuberosity of the fibular tarsal bone.
234
The coffin bone in horses is the
distal phalanx.
235
Which one of the following bones is classified as an irregular bone?
patella
236
Cancellous bone is sometimes called
spongy bone.
237
In long bones of a mature animal cartilage is found
covering the articular surfaces of the bone
238
Red bone marrow consists primarily of
blood-forming tissue.
239
Where would you find immovable fibrous joints called sutures?
skull
240
The costochondral junction is found
at the ventral end of the bony part of a rib.
241
Splint bones in horses are
vestigial metacarpal bones
242
An ununited anconeal process is seen in what bone?
ulna
243
Hinge joints are capable of only two movements. They are
extension and flexion
244
Besides in the neck region, intervertebral disk disease is usually seen in the __ region.
thoracolumbar
245
Besides in the neck region, intervertebral disk disease is usually seen in the __ region.
thoracolumbar
246
Which bones fuse to make up the acetabulum?
ilium, ischium, pubis
247
Which bone forms part of the nasal septum?
vomer
248
From cranial to caudal what is the correct sequence of letter designations for the five regions of the spinal column?
C, T, L, S, CY
249
Which group of bones forms the joint that is comparable to the wrist in humans?
carpal
250
Which face bones are elongated in dolichocephalic dogs?
nasal
251
The bone that forms the forehead region of the skull is the
frontal bone.
252
Which of these is an example of a ball and socket joint?
hip joint
253
The movement of an extremity away from median plane of the body is
abduction.
254
Besides alignment and immobilization of a fracture, what else is needed for optimal healing to occur?
time
255
What is the correct order of bones on the thoracic limb starting distally and working proximally?
phalanges, metacarpal bones, carpal bones, radius, ulna, humerus, scapula
256
How many dewclaws does a cow have on its thoracic limb?
2
257
Increasing the angle between two bones results in
extension.
258
The point of the hock is actually the
calcaneal tuberosity of the fibular tarsal bone.
259
The point of the hock is actually the.
calcaneal tuberosity of the fibular tarsal bone.
260
Which face bone forms the rostral part of the hard palate?
maxillary
261
The navicular bone is another name for the __ bone in horses.
distal sesamoid
262
As a young animal grows so must its bones grow. Where does creation of new bone that allows long bones to lengthen as the animal grows take place?
epiphyseal plates
263
Which face bone forms the lower jaw?
mandible
