A&P Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

The layer of the pleura membrane that lines the entire thoracic cavity is known as the _____________________ layer.

A

parietal

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2
Q

The structure that divides the ventral cavity into two parts is the

A

diaphragm

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3
Q

The red dot is ____________ to the blue dot.

A

rostral

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4
Q

The structure that divides the ventral cavity into two parts is the

A

diaphragm

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5
Q

Which of these is an example of microanatomy?

A

examining cells on a blood smear

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6
Q

Inflammation of the pleura membrane is known as _______________________.

A

pleuritis

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7
Q

Which anatomic plane divides the body into equal R and L halves?

A

median plane

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8
Q

The dog has 13 pairs of ribs- each rib on the right side of the thorax has a matching rib on the left side of the thorax. This is an example of

A

bilateral symmetry

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9
Q

The study of the normal function of living organisms is

A

physiology

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10
Q

An example of a group of different types of tissues working together for a common purpose is/are

A

the brain.

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11
Q

The reference plane that divides the body into cranial and caudal parts that are not necessarily equal is the

A

transverse plane.

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12
Q

Which end of a donkey’s tail attaches to the body?

A

proximal

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13
Q

The layer of the pleura membrane that covers the organs in the thoracic cavity is known as the _____________________ layer.

A

visceral

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14
Q

The red line is along the ____________ aspect of the leg.

A

plantar

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15
Q

Which anatomic plane divides the body into equal R and L halves?

A

median plane

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16
Q

The shoulder of a camel is ____________ to its carpus.

A

proximal

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17
Q

Choose the correct term to complete the statement. In the picture of the horse, G in on the ________ aspect of the right rear leg.

A

medial

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18
Q

Which anatomic plane separates the body into cranial and caudal regions?

A

transverse plane

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19
Q

The thin membrane that lines the thoracic cavity is known as the ______________________ membrane.

A

pleura

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20
Q

If you were told to look for a cut on the palmar surface of a dog”s leg, where would you look?

A

the back surface of the front leg below the carpus

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21
Q

The body cavity that contains the heart is the

A

thoracic cavity.

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22
Q

Choose the correct term to complete the statement. In the picture of the horse, F is ________ to E.

A

distal

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23
Q

The red line is along the ____________ aspect of the leg.

A

cranial

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24
Q

The red line is along the ____________ aspect of the leg.

A

caudal

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25
Q

The layer of the pleura membrane that lines the entire thoracic cavity is known as the _____________________ layer.

A

parietal

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26
Q

The layer of the peritoneum membrane that lines the entire abdominal cavity is known as the _____________________ layer.

A

parietal

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27
Q

Which letter in the diagram indicates “plantar”?

A

D

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28
Q

The layer of the pleura membrane that covers the organs in the thoracic cavity is known as the _____________________ layer.

A

visceral

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29
Q

The outer surface of a cow’s leg that is facing away from its body is the __________ surface.

A

lateral

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30
Q

The red dot is on the ____________ aspect of the leg.

A

medial

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31
Q

The red line is along the ____________ aspect of the leg.

A

palmar

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32
Q

The red dot is ____________ to the blue dot.

A

proximal

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33
Q

The red dot is on the ____________ aspect of the leg.

A

lateral

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34
Q

The layer of the pleura membrane that lines the entire thoracic cavity is known as the _____________________ layer.

A

parietal

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35
Q

In the picture above C is ________ to D.

A

rostral

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36
Q

The thin membrane that lines the whole thoracic cavity is called the parietal layer of _________________.

A

pleura

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37
Q

Inflammation of the pleura membrane is known as _______________________.

A

pleuritis or pleurisy

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38
Q

The red line lies along the ____________ plane.

A

dorsal

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39
Q

The red line is along the ____________ aspect of the leg.

A

dorsal

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40
Q

The type of tissue that forms sweat glands is __ tissue.

A

epithelial

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41
Q

On a horse, the area dorsal to the scapulas is known as the

A

withers

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42
Q

The layer of the peritoneum membrane that covers the organs in the abdominal cavity is known as the _____________________ layer.

A

visceral

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43
Q

The plane labelled B in the diagram is the

A

dorsal place

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44
Q

Which anatomic plane separates the body into cranial and caudal regions?

A

transverse plane

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45
Q

The body cavity that contains the heart is the

A

thoracic cavity.

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46
Q

The reference plane that divides the body into cranial and caudal parts that are not necessarily equal is the

A

transverse plane.

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47
Q

The layer of the peritoneum membrane that covers the organs in the abdominal cavity is known as the _____________________ layer.

A

visceral

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48
Q

This body cavity lies caudal to the diaphragm. This is the _____________________ cavity.

A

abdominal

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49
Q

H + is the symbol for ____________ ion.

A

hydrogen

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50
Q

Mg +2 is the symbol for ____________ ion.

A

magnesium

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51
Q

NH 4 + is the symbol for ____________ ion.

A

ammonium

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52
Q

CA +2 is the symbol for ____________ ion.

A

calcium

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53
Q

Which group of lipids has a hydrophilic end and a hydrophobic end that causes them to line up in two layers when placed in water?

A

phospholipids

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54
Q

A/An ______ is formed when an atom gains or loses an electron.

A

ion

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55
Q

Water is the most abundant substance in the body. Which is true of water?

A

It is a compound.

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56
Q

An ____________ bond is formed when one atom in a molecule loses electrons and another gains electrons.

A

ionic

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57
Q

Which group of lipids is made up of a glycerol molecule and three fatty acids?

A

neutral fats

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58
Q

Substances that are catalyzed by enzymes are

A

substrates

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59
Q

Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen are the ____________ that make up most of the matter found in living organisms.

A

elements

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60
Q

____________ have a negative electrical charge and orbit around the nucleus of the atom.

A

electrons

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61
Q

Denatured proteins become

A

a straight chain of amino acids.

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62
Q

A covalent bond is formed between two molecules when they share _____________.

A

electrons

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63
Q

Choose the term that makes the statement true. If at atom (gains/ loses) electrons it will become a positively charged ion.

A

loses

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64
Q

Electrolytes are ________ _________.

A

ionized salts.

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65
Q

Water and fats don”t mix well because fats are

A

hydrophobic

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66
Q

To buffer a solution means to

A

keep the solution in a neutral pH range.

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67
Q

An ion with a positive charge is a/an

A

cation

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68
Q

A ____________ is the smallest unit of a compound that retains the unique properties of the compound.

A

molecule

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69
Q

____________ have a neutral electrical charge and are found in the nucleus of the atom.

A

neutrons

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70
Q

Which of these is an example of a pure substance?

A

100% oxygen in a tank.

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71
Q

Which group of lipids is made up of a glycerol molecule and three fatty acids?

A

neutral fats

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72
Q

A(n) ____________ is a protein that acts as a catalyst for chemical reactions in the cell.

A

enzyme

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73
Q

Iodine-127 and I-131 are isotopes. This means

A

they have different numbers of neutrons.

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74
Q

Water is the universal ____________.

A

solvent

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75
Q

Which is true of buffers?

A

They are weak acids or weak bases.

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76
Q

Which is true of buffers?

A

They are weak acids or weak bases.

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77
Q

Which group of lipids is made up of a glycerol molecule and three fatty acids?

A

neutral fats

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78
Q

____________ have a positive electrical charge and are found in the nucleus of the atom.

A

protons

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79
Q

Substances that are catalyzed by enzymes are

A

substrates

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80
Q

Electrolytes are present when a ________ is dissolved in water.

A

salt

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81
Q

The three major subatomic particles are protons, neutrons and ____________.

A

electrons

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82
Q

Blood samples are typically centrifuged to separate the blood cells from the serum. This is an example of

A

a physical process

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83
Q

Glycogen, the storage form of glucose, is a

A

polysaccharide.

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84
Q

A covalent bond is formed between two molecules when they share _____________.

A

electrons

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85
Q

Which group of lipids contains prostaglandins that help mediate an inflammatory reaction?

A

eicosanoids

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86
Q

Hair is an example of a ___________ protein.

A

structural

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87
Q

Of the pH values below, which is considered ‘neutral’ pH?

A

7

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88
Q

Choose the term that makes the statement true. If at atom (gains/ loses) electrons it will become a negatively charged ion.

A

gains

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89
Q

Digestive enzymes help breakdown complex molecules like proteins and carbohydrates by catalysing ____________ reactions.

A

hydrolysis

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90
Q

Special proteins in living organisms that speed up a chemical reaction but are not destroyed or used up are called

A

catalysts/enzymes.

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91
Q

Fe+3 is the symbol for ____________ ion.

A

ferric or iron (III)

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92
Q

The energy source for cells of the body to function properly is stored in and released by

A

ATP

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93
Q

____________ have a positive electrical charge and are found in the nucleus of the atom.

A

protons

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94
Q

A polypeptide can be made up of a chain of as many as _____ amino acids.

A

100

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95
Q

Which four elements make up 96% of the matter found in all living organisms?

A

Correctb. hydrogen, oxygen, carbon, nitrogen

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96
Q

A saturated fatty acid is defined as

A

a chain of carbon atoms with one or two hydrogen atoms attached to each carbon atom by a single bond.

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97
Q

A sequence of nucleotides that carries information to make one peptide chain is a/an

A

gene

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98
Q

Which is true of hydrogen bonds?

A

They form between complementary bases in strands of nucleic acid.

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99
Q

An example of an organic compound is

A

carbohydrate

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100
Q

HCO 3 - is the symbol for ____________ ion.

A

bicarbonate

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101
Q

Which organelle in the cell breaks down large nutrient molecules into smaller molecules that can be used as fuel in the cell?

A

mitochondria

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102
Q

This thickest and strongest fiber in a cell is the

A

mitochondria

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103
Q

This thickest and strongest fiber in a cell is the

A

microtubule

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104
Q

Within the cell secretory granules, mitochondria and lysosomes will attach to

A

microtubules

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105
Q

Within the cell secretory granules, mitochondria and lysosomes will attach to

A

microtubules

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106
Q

The powerhouse of a cell is the

A

mitochondria

107
Q

Actin and myosin proteins form

A

microfilaments

108
Q

Transport of glucose across the cell membrane

A

a type of passive transport

109
Q

Which organelle in the cell is an important site for protein synthesis?

A

ribosome

110
Q

DNA replication takes place during

A

interphase

111
Q

7% saline is a hypertonic solution. This means its osmolarity is

A

greater than the osmolarity of ICF

112
Q

Under light microscopy the dark strands visible in the nucleoplasm are

A

coiled chromatin.

113
Q

Where in the cell does respiration, where oxygen is consumed and carbon dioxide is excreted, take place?

A

mitochondria

114
Q

The Kreb’s Cycle or Citric Acid Cycle involves _________ respiration that takes place in the ___________.

A

aerobic: mitochondrial matrix

115
Q

Pores in the cell membrane are formed by

A

integral proteins.

116
Q

Which of these helps cells maintain or change shape?

A

microfilaments

117
Q

Which organelle in a cell acts as a modification, packaging, and distribution center for molecules destined for secretion?

A

Golgi apparatus

118
Q

The control center of a cell is the

A

nucleus.

119
Q

Small invaginations in the cell membrane are called

A

caveolae.

120
Q

Protein molecules are moved from the cytoplasm into the nucleus through

A

nuclear pore complexes.

121
Q

The function of a flagellum is to

A

move a cell through a fluid.

122
Q

Cilia are located

A

on the surface of the cell.

123
Q

In nerve cells the sodium-potassium pump moves sodium out of the cell against the concentration gradient. This is an example of

A

active transport

124
Q

The outer layer of a cell”s nuclear membrane is continuous with the

A

endoplasmic reticulum.

125
Q

Which organelle in the cell breaks down large nutrient molecules into smaller molecules that can be used as fuel in the cell?

A

mitochondria

126
Q

In the lipid bilayer that makes up the cell membrane the hydrophobic fatty acids are

A

the inside of the membrane.

127
Q

The nitrogen base thymine (T) found in DNA can bind only to

A

adenine

128
Q

Transcription refers to

A

synthesis of mRNA from DNA template

129
Q

Glycoproteins that cover the surfaces of almost all mammalian cells and allow the cells to bond with one another are called

A

cell adhesion molecules (CAMs).

130
Q

Which of these cell structures is visible with the light microscope?

A

nucleolus

131
Q

Prions are unique in that they

A

lack DNA and RNA

132
Q

Transport of glucose across the cell membrane

A

is a type of passive transport

133
Q

A virus is composed of a

A

protein-covered capsule that contains either one strand of DNA or one strand of RNA.

134
Q

Which of these helps cells maintain or change shape?

A

microfilaments

135
Q

Abnormal buildup of fluid in the abdominal cavity is called

A

ascites.

136
Q

Chemotherapeutic drugs work by

A

blocking cell division and protein synthesis.

137
Q

A patient that has a capillary refill time (CRT) of 2.5 seconds is

A

5% to 7% dehydrated.

138
Q

During replication, the double-stranded DNA unwinds and produces two nucleotide chains. If the original strand reads GTTAGA, what is the configuration of the complementary new strand that is formed?

A

CAATCT

139
Q

Lactated Ringers Solution, a frequently administered IV fluid, is a/an

A

isotonic, crystalloid fluid.

140
Q

Facilitated diffusion

A

moves molecules from extracellular spaces to intracellular spaces using no energy from the cell.

141
Q

Which compartment of water makes up the majority of total body water?

A

intracellular fluid

142
Q

A macrophage ‘ingests’ a dead neutrophil (white blood cell) through

A

phagocytosis

143
Q

Which process is limited by the number of available carrier proteins?

A

facilitated diffusion

144
Q

Protein synthesis begins in the

A

DNA

145
Q

In a healthy animal, insensible water loss is the water lost

A

during respiration.

146
Q

X-shaped chromosomes are linked together at the

A

centromere

147
Q

A patient is depressed and lying down. The mucous membranes and tongue are dry. It is conscious with a weak and rapid pulse. What would you estimate the percentage of dehydration to be?

A

10% to 12%

148
Q

What is the source of energy for the symport system of electrolyte transport across a cell membrane?

A

ATP

149
Q

A solution that contains more solutes than plasma is ______________ to the plasma.

A

hypertonic.

150
Q

if cells (e.g., red blood cells) are placed in a hypotonic solution, what will happen to them?

A

They will burst (lyse)

151
Q

Protein synthesis begins in the

A

DNA.

152
Q

Transcription results in

A

mRNA production.

153
Q

Cell differentiation and development is dependent on

A

the position of genes in chromosomes.

154
Q

When a liquid is taken into a cell and the cell uses energy to bring it in, the process is known as

A

pinocytosis

155
Q

Fluid therapy to correct dehydration in an animal would be

A

replacement therapy.

156
Q

A phagosome found in a cell will contain

A

solid material.

157
Q

Waste products of cellular metabolism that are carried in the blood are slightly acidic. To counteract the effects of the acidic waste materials, what would be an ideal pH for blood?

A

7.4

158
Q

The concentration of salt in water in normal saline is

A

0.9% NaCl.

159
Q

Which form of passive transport requires a pressure gradient to drive the activity of molecules?

A

filtration

160
Q

Ions that have a negative charge are called

A

anions

161
Q

Osmolality measures the concentration of ___________ in fluid.

A

solutes

162
Q

When waste materials are released from a cell into the interstitial fluid, the process is known as

A

excretion

163
Q

The basement membrane

A

is formed by a network of fibers

164
Q

These fibers in the tissue of arterials walls allows these vessels to stretch when blood is pumped from the heart into the arteries, then return to normal size.

A

elastic

165
Q

The type of membrane that lines the cavities of joints is

A

synovial membrane

166
Q

The _____________ ____________ anchors a cell to its underlying connective tissue.

A

basement membrane

167
Q

A normal transudate in the abdominal cavity is called

A

peritoneal fluid.

168
Q

Which type of muscle has muscle cells that connect to one another at junctions called intercalated disks?

A

striated involuntary muscle

169
Q

The _____________ has many tiny blood vessels that supply nutrients to cartilage.

A

perichondrium

170
Q

During the inflammatory process phagocytosis is the job of

A

macrophages.

171
Q

The capillary refill time test is performed

A

on the gums.

172
Q

Glands produce their secretions in their

A

endoplasmic reticulum.

173
Q

The urinary bladder is partially lined by _______________ ______________ , giving it the ability to expand and contract as needed.

A

transitional epithelium

174
Q

Keratin is found

A

in skin cells.

175
Q

A scab is a/an

A

external clot.

176
Q

If a gland loses an entire secretory cell during the secretory process, it is classified as a/an

A

holocrine gland

177
Q

Which type of muscle is responsible for constricting the walls of blood vessels?

A

nonstriated involuntary muscle

178
Q

The epithelial cells lining the proximal tubule of the kidney have the function of reabsorbing glucose, amino acids and electrolytes so these essential substances are not excreted in the urine. Which of these characteristics is useful for cells which act to absorb substances?

A

microvilli

179
Q

The most abundant tissue type by weight in the body is

A

connective tissue.

180
Q

An example of a wandering cell type in connective tissue is

A

white blood cells.

181
Q

A high fever can lead to _______ mucous membranes

A

red

182
Q

The most rigid type of cartilage is ____________ cartilage.

A

hyaline

183
Q

If a tissue has more than one layer of epithelial cells, the epithelial cells are classified as

A

stratified.

184
Q

The major muscles in all four legs of a horse are

A

striated voluntary muscle.

184
Q

The major muscles in all four legs of a horse are

A

striated voluntary muscle.

185
Q

If a gland has a branched duct that carries secretions to the deposition site, it is a

A

compound gland

186
Q

Which type of muscle makes up the majority of the heart?

A

striated involuntary muscle

187
Q

Which is a characteristic of second-intention wound healing?

A

A scar develops

188
Q

The longest cells in the body are

A

nerve cells

189
Q

The longest cells in the body are

A

nerve cells.

190
Q

Which of these is NOT a typical characteristic of connective tissue?

A

closely packed cells

191
Q

Goblet cells are

A

secretory cells

192
Q

The type of membrane that has no epithelium is

A

synovial membrane.

193
Q

Exocrine glands

A

are lined with epithelial tissue

194
Q

Scar tissue is made from

A

granulation tissue.

195
Q

The type of membrane that lines the cavities of joints is

A

synovial membrane.

196
Q

A scab is a/an

A

external clot

197
Q

Glands produce their secretions in their

A

endoplasmic reticulum.

198
Q

These fibers in the tissue of arterials walls allows these vessels to stretch when blood is pumped from the heart into the arteries, then return to normal size.

A

elastic

199
Q

The type of connective tissue associated with haversian canals is

A

bone.

200
Q

The matrix of blood in the body is

A

plasma.

201
Q

Which of these tissues has the MOST intercellular material?

A

cancellous bone

202
Q

Ciliated pseudostratified epithelium is found lining the

A

respiratory tract

203
Q

What part of the pelvis can be seen as the point of the hip in cattle?

A

ilium

204
Q

The coffin bone in horses is the

A

distal phalanx.

205
Q

The coffin bone in horses is the

A

distal phalanx

206
Q

Which face bone forms the caudal portion of the hard palate?

A

palatine

207
Q

Which type of joint allows for only rotation movement?

A

trochoid

208
Q

A large, round, articular surface found at the distal end of the humerus is called a

A

condyle.

209
Q

Which bone in the appendicular skeleton has an olecranon process?

A

ulna

210
Q

Which bone forms the brachium?

A

humerus

211
Q

Which group of bones forms the joint that is comparable to the wrist in humans?

A

carpal

212
Q

Which bone of the cranium houses the pituitary gland?

A

sphenoid

213
Q

Large blood vessels, lymph vessels, and nerves enter large long bones through channels called

A

nutrient foramina.

214
Q

The cribriform plate is contained in the __ bone.

A

ethmoid

215
Q

What bony structure on the face of cats and dogs forms the easily palpable widest part of the skull?

A

zygomatic arches

216
Q

Decreasing the angle between two bones results in

A

flexion.

217
Q

Dewclaws in dogs are found on the __ surface of the leg.

A

medial

218
Q

Which face bone forms the lower jaw?

A

mandible

219
Q

A depressed or sunken area on the surface of a bone is called a/an

A

fossa.

220
Q

In long bones of a mature animal cartilage is found

A

covering the articular surfaces of the bone

221
Q

The pelvic symphysis is a

A

cartilaginous joint

222
Q

Fractures of the __ of long bones are especially common in young animals.

A

epiphyseal plate

223
Q

Cancellous bone is sometimes called

A

spongy bone.

224
Q

How many dewclaws does a cow have on its thoracic limb?

A

2

225
Q

An ununited anconeal process is seen in what bone?

A

ulna

226
Q

The largest sesamoid bone in the body is the

A

patella.

227
Q

Red bone marrow consists primarily of

A

blood-forming tissue.

228
Q

The obturator foramina is found in the

A

pelvis.

229
Q

Which two species of animal are most commonly affected with Wobbler syndrome?

A

equine and canine

230
Q

The cells that secrete the matrix of a bone are the

A

osteoblasts.

231
Q

Where would you find immovable fibrous joints called sutures?

A

skull

232
Q

Firm connective tissue bands that help stabilize the bones that make up a joint and help hold the joint together are called

A

ligaments.

233
Q

The point of the hock is actually the

A

calcaneal tuberosity of the fibular tarsal bone.

234
Q

The coffin bone in horses is the

A

distal phalanx.

235
Q

Which one of the following bones is classified as an irregular bone?

A

patella

236
Q

Cancellous bone is sometimes called

A

spongy bone.

237
Q

In long bones of a mature animal cartilage is found

A

covering the articular surfaces of the bone

238
Q

Red bone marrow consists primarily of

A

blood-forming tissue.

239
Q

Where would you find immovable fibrous joints called sutures?

A

skull

240
Q

The costochondral junction is found

A

at the ventral end of the bony part of a rib.

241
Q

Splint bones in horses are

A

vestigial metacarpal bones

242
Q

An ununited anconeal process is seen in what bone?

A

ulna

243
Q

Hinge joints are capable of only two movements. They are

A

extension and flexion

244
Q

Besides in the neck region, intervertebral disk disease is usually seen in the __ region.

A

thoracolumbar

245
Q

Besides in the neck region, intervertebral disk disease is usually seen in the __ region.

A

thoracolumbar

246
Q

Which bones fuse to make up the acetabulum?

A

ilium, ischium, pubis

247
Q

Which bone forms part of the nasal septum?

A

vomer

248
Q

From cranial to caudal what is the correct sequence of letter designations for the five regions of the spinal column?

A

C, T, L, S, CY

249
Q

Which group of bones forms the joint that is comparable to the wrist in humans?

A

carpal

250
Q

Which face bones are elongated in dolichocephalic dogs?

A

nasal

251
Q

The bone that forms the forehead region of the skull is the

A

frontal bone.

252
Q

Which of these is an example of a ball and socket joint?

A

hip joint

253
Q

The movement of an extremity away from median plane of the body is

A

abduction.

254
Q

Besides alignment and immobilization of a fracture, what else is needed for optimal healing to occur?

A

time

255
Q

What is the correct order of bones on the thoracic limb starting distally and working proximally?

A

phalanges, metacarpal bones, carpal bones, radius, ulna, humerus, scapula

256
Q

How many dewclaws does a cow have on its thoracic limb?

A

2

257
Q

Increasing the angle between two bones results in

A

extension.

258
Q

The point of the hock is actually the

A

calcaneal tuberosity of the fibular tarsal bone.

259
Q

The point of the hock is actually the.

A

calcaneal tuberosity of the fibular tarsal bone.

260
Q

Which face bone forms the rostral part of the hard palate?

A

maxillary

261
Q

The navicular bone is another name for the __ bone in horses.

A

distal sesamoid

262
Q

As a young animal grows so must its bones grow. Where does creation of new bone that allows long bones to lengthen as the animal grows take place?

A

epiphyseal plates

263
Q

Which face bone forms the lower jaw?

A

mandible