A320 Master Question Bank Study Guide Flashcards
(191 cards)
1
Q
The engine generators and APU generator are rated at ____ KVA maximum continuous load
A
90
2
Q
The normal priority for supplying electrical power to the AC buses is
A
engine generators, external power, APU
3
Q
The BATTERY BUS is normally powered by
A
DC bus 1 through a DC tie contactor
4
Q
With total AC power loss, and airspeed above 50 KTS, an inverter is connected to the hOT BATTERY BUS and supplies AC power to the:
A
AC ESS bus
5
Q
An AC ESS Feed switch located on the overhead panel shifts the power source for the AC ESS bus from:
A
AC Bus 1 to AC bus 2
6
Q
When the aircraft airspeed is above 100 KTS, which AC bus can be powered by the emergency generator?
A
AC ESS bus
7
Q
The FASTEN SEAT BELT, NO SMOKING, and EXIT signs come on automatically when the cabin
altitude exceeds_______ feet, regardless of the respective switch position.
A
11,300’
8
Q
Do not press the IDG DISCONNECT switch for longer than approximately______ seconds to prevent
damage to the disconnect mechanism.
A
3s
9
Q
The BAT pushbutton FAULT indication will illuminate when:
A
the charging current is outside its limits.
10
Q
The IDG pushbutton FAULT indication will illuminate to indicate:
A
a. an IDG oil overheat.
b. IDG low oil pressure.
c. IDG low oil level.
d. either A or B (CORRECT!)
e. either A or C
11
Q
If one generator exceeds 100% of its rated output:
A
the galley pushbutton FAULT light will illuminate.
12
Q
On the A320, when operating with a single engine-driven generator on the ground or a single
generator in flight:
A
the main galley buses and in-seat power supplies are shed automatically.
13
Q
The RAT & EMER GEN indicator on the EMER ELEC PWR panel illuminates a red FAULT
indication when:
A
AC BUSES 1 & 2 are not powered and the emergency generator is not supplying electrical power.
14
Q
If avionics smoke is detected when the GEN 1 LINE pushbutton on the EMER ELEC PWR panel is
selected OFF:
A
GEN 1 is completely isolated from the aircraft except for supplying one fuel pump in each wing tank.
15
Q
Engine fire detection sensors are installed in all of the following areas EXCEPT:
A
a. the fuel/oil heat exchanger (CORRECT!)
b. the pylon nacelle.
c. the engine core.
d. the fan section.
16
Q
Each engine fire detection system consists of:
A
two loops with three heat sensing elements each.
17
Q
If both engine fire loops fail within ______ seconds of each other, a _____ will occur.
A
5 / FIRE warning
18
Q
If any component of the fire detection system fails:
A
the ECAM will issue appropriate messages(s).
19
Q
If there is an APU fire in flight, the APU:
A
must be shut down manually and the fire bottle will discharged manually.
20
Q
Fire protection for the forward and aft cargo compartments includes:
A
one extinguisher bottle which can be discharged to either compartment.
21
Q
The engine fire extinguisher squib is armed when:
A
the ENG FIRE pushbutton is pushed and released.
22
Q
CARGO SMOKE indicator will illuminate SMOKE in red when:
A
both of the two channels of the detection system detect smoke.
23
Q
When the APU FIRE pushbutton is pushed and released, the:
A
APU bleed and crossbleed valves are closed.
24
Q
A DISCH light on either the ENGINE or APU AGENT pushbutton indicates:
A
the extinguisher bottle has lost pressure.
25
The GEN 1 LINE smoke light on the EMER ELEC PWR panel indicates:
smoke in the avionics ventilation duct.
26
The Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) controls all of the following functions EXCEPT:
warning for exceeding an EGT limit warning after engine start.
27
FADEC computes the thrust rating limit based on:
the measured thrust lever angle.
28
Normally, FADEC is powered by:
a dedicated alternator independent of the aircraft electrical system.
29
During an automatic start, FADEC will automatically abort the start in case of:
hot start, no ignition, stalled start.
30
FADEC has three idle modes including:
modulated idle, approach idle & reverse idle.
31
Automatic and manual starts are identical in all respects except pilot action is required to manually open
the start valve by selecting the ENG MAN START pushbutton ON.
FALSE
32
The ignition system:
consists of two independent circuits designated A & B which are alternated by FADEC at each
engine autostart.
33
Thrust reverse deployment requires all the following EXCEPT:
at least one SEC detects deployment of the ground spoilers after touchdown.
34
The thrust levers have:
5 detents – TOGA, FLX/MCT, CLimb, IDLE, MAX REVerse
35
Continuous ignition is provided automatically when the Engine Mode selector is in the NORM
position in all of the following EXCEPT:
Leading edge slats are retracted.
36
During automatic engine start, selecting an Engine Master switch ON causes:
the LP fuel valve to open and the HP valve opens at a preset N2.
37
Which statement about the APU is true?
The APU has a dedicated fuel pump that supplies fuel from the left fuel manifold in the event that
tank boost pumps are not operating.
38
The Electronic Instrument System presents data on _____ identical display units.
6
39
The three Display Management Computers (DMCs):
acquire and process inputs from sensors and computers to generate the display images.
40
The A320 has _____ Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs).
3
41
EGPWS aural and visual warnings are never inhibited.
FALSE
42
Flight Management Guidance Computers (FMGCs) have which two functions?
Flight guidance and flight management.
43
Three possible modes of FMGC operation are:
independent, single, and dual.
44
Each FMGC uses which inputs for position determination?
A hybrid IRS/GPS solution
45
The two basic modes of flight guidance are:
Managed and selected
46
The MANAGED mode of flight guidance is used for:
long-term lateral, vertical, and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS.
47
Both autopilots may be engaged and active in any phase of flight.
FALSE
48
All navaids are normally autotuned by a(n):
FMGC
49
VOR data can be displayed on:
a. both NDs.
b. the DDRMI.
c. Both A & B (CORRECT!)
d. Neither A nor B
50
All of the following are used for FMGS radio position computation EXCEPT:
VOR/VOR
51
Altitude alerting is automatically inhibited in flight when:
a. slats are extended with the landing gear selected down.
b. slats are retracted with the landing gear down.
c. on approach after glide slope captured.
d. Either A or C (CORRECT!()
52
Radio Height is displayed on the PFD when:
Below 2,500' AGL
53
Armed guidance modes are displayed on line 2 of the Flight Mode Annunciator in which color(s)?
Blue or Magenta
54
Engaged guidance modes are displayed on line 1 of the Flight Mode Annunciator in which color(s)?
Green
55
Information from ILS receiver number 1 is displayed on __________
Captain’s PFD & First Officer’s ND
56
Information from ILS receiver number 1 is displayed on __________
Captain’s PFD & First Officer’s ND
57
The ON BAT light on the ADIRS CDU illuminates
when one or more ADIRUs are supplied by airplane battery only
58
The ON BAT light on the ADIRS CDU illuminates
when one or more ADIRUs are supplied by airplane battery only
59
In the event of failure of the AIR DATA function of ADIRU 1 or 2, the affected displays can be
manually replaced by ADR 3 with the EIS
AIR DATA selector
60
If the FLEX TEMP is not entered on the TAKEOFF page of the MCDU
a FLX takeoff is not available
61
Pressing the ECAM EMER CANC pushbutton will
cancel existing aural warnings for as long as they exist and cancel existing cautions (aural & visual)
for the rest of the flight.
62
The flight control surfaces are _____ controlled and _____ actuated
electrically, hydraulically
63
Which computer normally controls operation of the elevators and horizontal stabilizer?
ELAC 2
64
Sidesticks provide electronic commands to the flight control computers. If both sidesticks are operated
simultaneously:
both sidestick inputs are algebraically summed
65
Roll control is achieved by
one aileron assisted by the four outboard spoilers on each wing
66
Whenever flaps are extended, the ailerons:
droop 5 degrees
67
If electrical power to a SEC fails:
the affected spoiler(s) automatically retract.
68
If angle of attack protection is active or if flaps are in CONFIG FULL:
speed brake extension is inhibited.
69
Should the active elevator actuator fail, elevator control is:
maintained by the other actuator which becomes active.
70
Two control surfaces that have mechanical back-up are:
horizontal stabilizer and rudder
71
Horizontal stabilizer trim automatically resets to zero degrees after landing.
TRUE
72
Should both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after the _____ are extended
Slats
73
Moving the RUD TRIM rotary switch with the autopilot engaged
has no effect on the rudder.
74
All of the following will activate the wing tip brakes EXCEPT:
thermal runaway
75
While on the ground in Normal Law, a sidestick roll deflection
has a direct proportional relationship between sidestick deflection and deflection of the flight controls
76
In flight, in Normal Law and with bank angle less than 33º, pitch trim is
automatic with or without the autopilot engaged
77
With autopilot engaged, manual movement of the pitch trim wheel
will disconnect the autopilot but not the ELACs
78
In Normal Law, elevator control changes from normal mode to alpha protection mode when the
angle of attack is greater than
Alpha Protection
79
When ___________is reached, as shown by indicated airspeed, TOGA thrust is provided
regardless of thrust lever position
alpha floor
80
In Direct Law, you would know to use manual pitch trim by
the message “USE MAN PITCH TRIM” on the PFD.
81
With the A320 in Pitch Alternative Law, roll is in _______ Law
Direct
82
When the landing gear is extended, pitch alternate law
degrades to pitch direct law
83
When in Alternate Law, the low speed stability (nose down command) cannot be overridden by the
sidestick
FALSE
84
In the event of a complete loss of electrical flight control signals, the airplane reverts to
Mechanical Backup
85
In Mechanical Backup, hydraulic power is not required since the rudder pedals and pitch trim wheels
are mechanically linked
FALSE
86
Even in Alternate Law, a pilot cannot stall the airplane
FALSE
87
Not counting the APU fuel pump, the A320 has a total of _______ main pumps
6
88
If the wing tank pumps fail, suction (gravity) feeding to the engines is possible from
the wing tanks only.
89
Refueling is still possible even if external power and APU generated power are unavailable
TRUE
90
On the A320, with the MODE SEL switch in AUTO, the center tank pumps will do all of the
following EXCEPT
a. run for two minutes after both engines are running.
b. will not run until slats are retracted in flight.
c. run for five minutes after the center tank is empty.
d. run for five minutes after the slats are extended. (CORRECT!)
91
On the A320 fuel transfers from the outer cells to the inner cells of the wing tanks when either
inner cell quantity decreases to:
1,650 lbs
92
On the A320 normal fuel management in flight is to use fuel from:
the center tank first, then the wing tanks.
93
What indication would you see if the center tank has more than 550 pounds of fuel and the left
or right wing tank has less than 11,000 pounds?
FAULT in the MODE SEL pushbutton.
94
The engine low pressure fuel valves are controlled by:
a. the engine MASTER switch.
b. the ENGINE FIRE pushbutton.
c. FADEC
d. either A or B (CORRECT!)
e. either B or C
95
Once opened, the fuel transfer valves on the A320 are closed automatically:
at the next refueling operation.
96
The fuel crossfeed valve is controlled by ________ motors
2
97
Pneumatic air is supplied by intermediate-pressure (IP) or high-pressure (HP) engine bleeds, or both
TRUE
98
In flight, if HP bleed air pressure is insufficient:
the engine speed will increase automatically
99
The HP bleed valve will close automatically in the event of low upstream pressure, excessive
upstream pressure, or when the bleed air valve is closed electrically.
TRUE
100
The crossbleed valve has two electric motors, one for the automatic mode and one for the manual mode.
TRUE
101
The APU bleed air valve is:
electrically controlled and pneumatically operated.
102
The leak-detection system senses an overheat using a single loop in:
the pylons and APU.
103
The amber APU BLEED FAULT light illuminates from an APU:
BLEED LEAK
104
External air may be used to supplement low APU bleed pressure.
FALSE
105
The AUTO position of the XBLEED selector opens the crossbleed if:
the APU bleed valve is open.
106
If a fault exists, the amber FAULT light in the ENG BLEED will extinguish when the ENG BLEED
pushbutton is selected off:
if the fault has disappeared.
107
Recirculation fans in the air conditioning system direct filtered cabin air to:
the mixing unit
108
Temperature regulation is controlled by
three zone controllers and two pack controllers.
109
If an air cycle machine fails, the affected pack:
Operates as a heat exchanger
110
If both channels of a pack controller fail, pack outlet temperature:
is lost and pack valve closes.
111
Should both channels fail in the zone controller:
Pack 2 temperature will be the average of the FWD CABIN and AFT CABIN zone selectors.
112
The lav/galley extract fan operates:
continuously when electrical power is available.
113
If bleed air is being supplied by the APU or if one pack fails, pack flow will be ______
regardless of the PACK FLOW selector position.
HI
114
An amber FAULT light in the HOT AIR pushbutton means:
a duct overheat has been detected.
115
What happens to the outflow valve when the RAM AIR switch is selected ON?
The outflow valve opens if Dp (differential pressure) is less than 1 psi.
116
When either the BLOWER or EXTRACT switches is in OVRD, air from the air conditioning
system is added to ventilation air.
TRUE
117
How many motors drive the outflow valve?
3
118
During normal operations, the two cabin automatic pressure controllers alternate:
automatically after landing or if the operating controller fails.
119
If the lav/galley fan system fails:
cabin temperature defaults to a predetermined value.
120
Manual pressurization control is selected:
after selecting the MODE SEL pushbutton to MAN.
121
On the cargo heat control panel, selecting the AFT ISOL VALVE to OFF:
Closes the inlet and outlet isolation valves and the trim air valve and stops
122
In the event of loss of pressure in the green hydraulic system, fluid can be transferred from
the yellow hydraulic systems.
FALSE
123
Which hydraulic systems have engine-driven pumps?
Green and yellow
124
Which hydraulic systems have electric pumps?
Blue and yellow
125
The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides hydraulic power to the ___________ system.
Blue
126
The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) will deploy automatically when:
AC buses 1 and 2 are not powered and airspeed is greater than 100 kts.
127
With no electrical power available, the hand pump supplies yellow system hydraulic pressure
to operate the:
Cargo doors
128
The PTU activates automatically when the pump pressure output differential between the
________ and _________ systems exceeds a predetermined value.
Green, yellow
129
It is possible to pressurize the green hydraulic system on the ground via the PTU when the
engines are not running.
TRUE
130
Pressing the RAT MAN ON pushbutton on the hydraulic panel will manually deploy the RAT
and provide:
blue hydraulic power only.
131
An ENG PUMP pushbutton FAULT light extinguishes when the ENG PUMP pushbutton is
selected OFF except for which condition:
OVERHEAT
132
With the airplane on the ground and the blue electric pump switch in AUTO, the blue system
pump will start operating automatically when
one engine is running.
133
The PTU FAULT light illuminates when the
green or yellow system reservoir has low air pressure
134
Normally, landing gear operation and monitoring is the primary responsibility of
the LGCIUs which alternate primary/backup roles after each gear cycle
135
The ________ hydraulic system provides power for gear extension/retraction
Green
136
A safety valve shuts off the hydraulic power to the landing gear when airspeed is:
greater than 260 KIAS.
137
Which of the following statements about the alternate brake accumulator is true?
When landing on alternate brakes powered by accumulator pressure only, anti-skid is
never available.
138
Above 72 knots, autobraking is initiated by
ground spoiler extension
139
The alternate brake system has the same capabilities as normal brakes EXCEPT
auto brake is inoperative
140
When using the alternate brake system on accumulator pressure only, the accumulator supplies
at least seven full brake applications as indicated by the top of the green band (1,000 psi)
on the BRAKES sector of the triple indicator
141
The steering tillers can steer the nose wheel up to ____ in each direction
+/- 75º
142
When using the rudder pedals for nose wheel steering, the steering angle starts to reduce
above ________ ground speed and progressively reduces to 0º at _______.
40 and 130kts
143
The green DECEL light in each AUTO / BRK switch illuminates when the actual airplane
deceleration is ________ of the selected rate.
80%
144
The RED ARROW on the Landing Gear Selector Lever illuminates when
the landing gear is not locked down when the aircraft is in the landing configuration
145
Extending the landing gear with the Emergency Gear Extension handcrank requires 3
clockwise turns of the handle which does all of the following EXCEPT
automatically cycles to the standby LGCIU
146
The lights on the Landing Gear Indicator Panel will continue to operate even if both LGCIUs
have failed as long as LGCIU 1 is supplied with electrical power
TRUE
147
In flight, the ______ on each wing are anti-iced with pneumatic bleed air.
three outboard slats
148
When a pneumatic leak is detected, the wing anti-ice valves:
close automatically
149
When either engine anti-ice valve is open
maximum N1 is reduced and idle N1 is increased
150
Window heat operates at what power level in flight?
High
151
Probe heat comes on automatically when
at least one engine is running
152
On the ground, wing anti-ice valves will:
open during a 30-second test sequence
153
The FAULT light on the wing anti-ice switch indicates
a. anti-ice valve position disagrees with the selected position.
b. low pressure is detected.
c. icing has been detected and the anti-ice valve is closed.
d. Either A or B (CORRECT!)
154
The ECAM will display a WING A ICE memo when wing anti-ice is selected “ON.”
true
155
A FAULT light on an engine anti-ice switch indicates the valve:
position disagrees with ENG 1 (2) pushbutton selection.
156
If electrical power is lost, engine anti-ice valves will ______ and wing anti-ice valves will _____.
open, close
157
Passenger oxygen mask doors open automatically if the cabin altitude exceeds
14,000 ft.
158
Passenger oxygen is supplied by:
chemical generators
159
Cockpit crew oxygen is supplied by:
a single high-pressure cylinder.
160
The passenger oxygen system will provide oxygen for approximately:
13 mins
161
Above _________, the cockpit crew oxygen masks will provide 100% oxygen, regardless of the
position of the N / 100% selector.
35,000 ft
162
A _____ disk on the lower left side of the forward fuselage provides a visual indication of a
thermal discharge.
Green
163
Cockpit crew oxygen distribution system can be shut off from the cockpit.
true
164
The Crew Oxygen Mask Microphone will be automatically deactivated when the mask is
restowed in its box.
FALSE
165
The passenger oxygen system can be automatically activated at a high cabin altitude, or
manually by:
pressing the MASK MAN ON pushbutton.
166
When does the flow of oxygen begin for the passengers?
When a mask is pulled towards the seat.
167
Communications radios are controlled:
from any one of the three radio management panels (RMPs).
168
Only ______ is functional in the EMER ELEC CONFIG.
RMP 1
169
The Flight Deck Voice Recorder will record on the ground:
a. automatically for five minutes after electrical power is supplied to the airplane.
b. when at least one engine is running.
c. when the DFDR pushbutton on the pedestal is pressed.
d. Both A & B are correct. (CORRECT!)
e. Both B & C are correct.
170
When using the boom microphone, oxygen mask microphone, or hand microphone, the PA
button must be pressed and held to use the PA system.
TRUE
171
The white SEL indicator on a Radio Management Panel illuminates when:
a transceiver associated with one RMP is tuned by another RMP.
172
With the INT/RAD switch on an Audio Control Panel in the INT position and the sidestick
Transmit Switch in the RADIO (keyed) position, you will transmit on the:
radio selected by its transmission key on the Audio Control Panel.
173
The loudspeaker volume knob will control the loudness of the aural alert and voice messages.
FALSE
174
The Flight Deck Handset is used for communication
from the flight deck to the cabin
175
The Digital Flight Data Recorder:
operates continuously in flight whether or not the engines are running
176
Pressing the CVR ERASE pushbutton for two seconds erases the Cockpit Voice Recorder
tape completely if
a. the aircraft is on the ground.
b. the parking brake is set.
c. Both A and B (CORRECT!)
d. either A or B
177
When the captain selects the EMER pushbutton ON on the CALLS panel, all of the following
occur EXCEPT:
three long buzzers sound on the flight deck.
178
Which statement concerning the NAV key on the RMP is NOT correct?
Normal auto tuning of nav aids is still available.
179
During the Preliminary Cockpit Preparation flow, before selecting batteries on, ensure a
minimum of ____ volts is displayed; if less, establish external power connection and charge for
a minimum of ____ minutes.
25.5 volts, 20 minutes
180
On the ECAM DOOR/OXY page, if oxygen pressure is half boxed on amber, the Minimum
Flight Crew Oxygen Pressure table must be consulted.
TRUE
181
During panel prep, select the BAT switches OFF then back to AUTO and check the ECAM
ELEC page for battery charging current of less than _____, decreasing within ______.
60 amps, 10 seconds
182
On a First Flight of the Day, a change of flight crew, or if the route includes “long segments in
poor NAVAIDS coverage” without GPS, position ALL ADIRS IR MODE selectors in the ____
position. For other flights if the residual ground speed is greater than ___, position ALL
ADIRS IR MODE selectors in ____ for no more than ____, then position them to
_____ to perform a fast alignment
NAV, 5 knots, OFF, 5 seconds, NAV
183
After engine start with the Parking Brake OFF, if the brake pedals are depressed fully, brake
pressure displayed on the BRAKES and ACCU PRESSURE indicator should be
0
184
T. O. INHIBIT, displayed in magenta on the upper ECAM, means that selected low priority
warnings/cautions are suppressed from
T.O. power application until 1500’ or 2 minutes after lift-off, whichever occurs first.
185
The ILS pushbutton on the glare shield panel must be pressed to
display ILS information on the PFD
185
The Landing Checklist cannot be completed until the ECAM LDG memo appears
TRUE
186
LDG INHIBIT appears below approximately _____ feet RA to show that selected low-priority
warnings/cautions are suppressed during landing
800' RA
187
On arrival at the gate, the ADIRS drift check must be accomplished within _____ following
aircraft stop. Regardless of navigation time, a ground speed of less than _____ is within
acceptable limits.
2 mins, 15 knots
188
If a Flex Temp was not entered in the MCDU and the thrust levers are positioned in the FLEX
detent:
a. a warning will be generated
b. continue to move the thrust levers to TOGA and execute a max thrust takeoff.
c. pressing the TO CONFIG pushbutton prior to takeoff will generate an alert.
d. A and B are both correct (CORRECT!)
e. A and C are both correct
189
A Flex thrust takeoff is allowed on a wet runway, but not allowed on a contaminated runway
which is defined as _____ of standing water.
1/8 inches
190
Prior to landing, the ENG MODE SEL should be set to the IGN mode:
for contaminated runways.
