Oral Exam Guide Flashcards
(173 cards)
1
Q
How should a pilot call a mechanic outside the aircraft?
A
Press and hold the MECH button. It illuminates a blue light on the EXT PWR PANEL and sounds an external horn.
2
Q
How should a pilot call the forward flight attendant?
A
Press the FWD button
3
Q
What happens when a pilot presses the EMER pushbutton?
A
Pink light flashes at all area Call Panels
EMERGENCY CALL appears on all attendant indication panels
High-low chime (repeated 3 times) sounds throughout the cabin loud speakers
4
Q
What happens when the Flight Attendants initiate an emergency call?
A
The white EMER ON light and amber CALL lights flash
The amber ATT lights flash on the ACPs
3 long buzzers sound in the cockpit
System resets when the attendant hangs up the relevant systems
5
Q
What does the illumination of the SYS ON light mean? Does this mean that all the masks have deployed?
A
The signal has been sent to release the oxygen mask doors, but some masks may have to be deployed manually
6
Q
What causes automatic deployment of the masks?
A
Cabin altitude reaching approximately 14,000 feet
7
Q
How does the passenger oxygen system work?
A
Chemical oxygen generators for approximately 13 to15 minutes
8
Q
What happens when a pilot pushes the CREW SUPPLY pushbutton?
A
Valve opens to supply low pressure oxygen to the crew
9
Q
Why is the GND CTL pushbutton selected to ON during preflight?
A
To record preflight activities in the cockpit
10
Q
If the pushbutton was not selected ON, how would the system work in automatic mode?
A
ON for 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied to the aircraft
At least one engine is operating, stops 5 min after last engine shut down
11
Q
What allows the cabin PA’s to be recorded?
A
ACP 3 PA volume knob out and in the 3 o’clock position
12
Q
What does pressing the SYS pushbutton do?
A
All basic GPWS alerts (mode1 to 5) are inhibited
13
Q
What does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pushbutton indicate on the GPWS panel?
A
Any failure of GPWS mode 1 through 5
14
Q
What effect, if any, does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pushbutton have on the TERRAIN mode?
A
No effect at all
15
Q
Describe a situation when a pilot might press LDG FLAP 3
A
To avoid nuisance warning in case of landing in CONF 3
In this case, LDG MEMO displays FLAPS…CONF 3 instead of CONF FULL
16
Q
Describe a situation when a pilot might press the FLAP MODE pushbutton.
A
To avoid nuisance warning in case of landing with flaps setting reduced
FLAP SYS 1 (2) FAULT would require selection of FLAP MODE off
17
Q
What effect, if any, does the failure of TERR mode have on basic GPWS?
A
No effect whatsoever
18
Q
What is the significance of the red FAULT illuminating on the RAT & EMER GEN light?
A
AC BUS1 and AC BUS 2 are lost and the RAT is not supplying electrical power
19
Q
When would the red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN light normally illuminate?
A
The fault light will illuminate once the RAT is deployed and electrical power is not being supplied (approximately eight seconds)
20
Q
How can the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) be deployed?
A
Manually by pushing MAN ON (EMER ELEC PWR panel) or RAT MAN ON (HYDRAULIC panel).
Automatically by the loss of both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2
21
Q
What is the difference between automatic RAT deployment and manual RAT deployment when the RAT MAN ON pushbutton is pressed on the HYD panel?
A
RAT MAN ON supplies Blue Hydraulic PSI only, no electrical generation
22
Q
After deploying the RAT by pressing the RAT MAN ON pushbutton on the HYD panel it becomes necessary to also extract electrical power. How can this be accomplished?
A
By pressing the MAN ON pushbutton on the EMER ELEC PWR
23
Q
What does the RAT supply?
A
Blue Hydraulic system and the emergency electrical generator
24
Q
What buses are powered by the emergency electrical generator?
A
AC ESS and AC ESS Shed
DC ESS and DC ESS shed
25
What would cause the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light to illuminate?
Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation ducting
26
Aside from the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light, what would be other indications of avionics smoke?
ECAM warning
Amber FAULT lights in the EXTRACT and BLOWER pushbuttons on the
VENTILATION panel
27
If the Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring (ECAM) system directs a pilot to select GEN 1 LINE pushbutton to OFF, what will occur?
Gen 1 line contactor opens (white OFF light illuminates)
AC BUS 1 powered by GEN 2 through the Bus Tie Contactor
Gen 1 powers one fuel pump directly in each wing tank
28
What is checked on the EVAC panel during the preliminary cockpit preparation?
CAPT & PURS switch in CAPT position
29
What type of flight control system does the A320 family aircraft utilize?
Fly-By-Wire system
30
Describe how the flight controls are controlled and activated.
Electrically controlled and hydraulically activated
31
How is NORMAL LAW indicated on the Primary Flight Display (PFD)?
Green “=” for pitch, bank, and over speed limits Amber/Black (ALPHA PROT) airspeed tape
32
How is ALTERNATE LAW indicated on the Primary Flight Display (PFD)?
Amber X’s (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)
33
How is DIRECT LAW indicated on the Primary Flight Display (PFD)?
Amber “USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM”
Amber X’s (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)
34
How is MECHANICAL BACKUP indicated on the Primary Flight Display (PFD)?
Red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”
Amber X’s (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)
35
When operating in NORMAL LAW in “flight” mode, what does the side stick command for pitch and roll?
Pitch – G load
Bank – Roll rate
36
What is the significance of the Side Stick Priority (Red Arrow) Light?
The other pilot has gained side stick authority
37
Name the Flight Control Computers and the number of each.
ELAC – Elevator Aileron Computer (2)
SEC – Spoiler Elevator Computer (3)
FAC – Flight Augmentation Computer (2)
38
What are the some of the Elevator Aileron Computer (ELAC) functions?
Normal elevator
Normal aileron
Normal pitch and roll
Alternate pitch
Direct pitch and roll
Abnormal attitude
Aileron droop
Autopilot orders
39
What are some of the Spoiler Elevator Computer (SEC) functions?
Normal roll
Direct roll
Direct pitch
Alternate pitch
Abnormal attitude
Speed brakes
40
What does SEC 3 control?
Spoiler Control – one flight spoiler and one ground spoiler on each wing
41
What are some of the Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC) functions?
Rudder Trim
Rudder travel limit
Yaw control
Protection for Vertical Flight Envelope Protection for Windshear
Protection for Low Energy Warning Protection for Alpha Floor
PFD speed scale
42
What should happen to the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) after landing?
Reset to zero
43
Describe some of protections a pilot will have in NORMAL LAW.
High Speed
High Angle-of-Attack (AOA Alpha Protection)
Load Factor Limitation (+2.5G / -1.0G)
Pitch Attitude (30° UP/15° DN)
Bank Angle (67°)
44
Describe high-speed protection.
If VMO/MMO plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system induces a pitch-up input to limit aircraft speed
45
What, if anything, can a pilot do to override high-speed protection pitch up?
It is not possible to override a protection while still in NORMAL LAW
The aircraft would need to be forced into ALTERNATE LAW (by turning 2 Air Data
Reference’s (ADR’s) off, for example)
46
What is ALPHA MAX?
The maximum angle-of-attack allowed in NORMAL LAW, indicated by the top of the red strip on the airspeed scale.
47
How does high angle-of-attack Protection operate?
When the angle-of-attack exceeds ALPHA PROT, pitch trim ceases and angle- of-attack is now proportional to side stick deflection, not to exceed ALPHA MAX even with full aft side stick deflection
48
What protections, if any, does a pilot have in ALTERNATE LAW?
Load Factor
High-speed stability
Low speed stability
49
What protections, if any, does a pilot have in DIRECT LAW?
None
50
When, if at all, does flare mode activate in ALTERNATE LAW? Describe the whole process.
There is no flare mode if operating in ALTERNATE LAW. The aircraft proceeds directly from ALTERNATE LAW to DIRECT LAW when the gear is selected down, and flare mode will not be available.
51
If in ALTERNATE LAW, when will the aircraft revert to DIRECT LAW?
If the controls degrade to ALTERNATE LAW for any reason other than recovery from abnormal attitude, DIRECT LAW automatically becomes active with gear extension and autopilots not engaged. In this case, full use of autopilot is recommended until they must be disconnected.
52
When is there a direct relationship between side stick and flight control surface deflection?
When in DIRECT LAW
When below 100 feet
53
It's common Airbus philosophy that the Airbus cannot stall in NORMAL LAW. However, there are conditions in which it can. Describe how this can happen.
Faulty Radio Altimeter
A good pilot will operate under the philosophy that anything can happen. Preventative systems such as (ALPHA PROT, ALPHA MAX, etc.) could interpret bad data as valid data and subsequently fail to recognize the actual angle-of-attack or flight path of the airplane. Therefore, it is hard to point to exact scenarios when the Airbus can stall in NORMAL LAW. We need to understand anything is possible and we should recognize stall indications and recover regardless of the active control law.
54
After recovery from an unusual attitude, what control law would the aircraft likely be in?
ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW
55
How would the aircraft enter ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW?
By exceeding approximately double the NORMAL LAW limits.
56
What is the purpose of ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW?
Allows the aircraft to be recovered from an unusual attitude
57
If the flight crew is flying at 300 knots and they happen to pull full back on the side stick, how high can they pitch up?
30°up
58
If the flight crew selected 100 knots on the speed knob, how slow would the aircraft fly?
VLS
59
Describe what would happen if the flight crew slowly pulled the thrust levers to idle.
As airspeed decays, the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) adjusts the pitch attitude to maintain altitude.
If the angle-of-attack increases to a threshold value, known as ALPHA PROT, the pitch function of the side stick changes. Stick movement commands a specific angle-of-attack instead of a G load change.
Since auto trimming is inoperative, the pilot must hold continuous back pressure in order to fly slower than the speed for ALPHA PROT.
The side stick no longer provides a “G demand.” Instead, the pilot is requesting a specific angle-of-attack with the side stick.
60
Continuing the preceding scenario, describe what would happen if the flight crew continued to pull back on the side stick. How slow would the aircraft go?
The speed corresponding to ALPHA MAX
With the stick full aft the elevators will adjust the pitch attitude to maintain a maximum
safe angle-of-attack (ALPHA MAX).
This maximum angle-of-attack, induced by the pilot, is slightly lower than the stall angle-
of-attack; therefore, the aircraft theoretically cannot be stalled in NORMAL LAW.
61
At some point during this demonstration the AUTOTHRUST automatically applies TOGA power. What is this protection, and how does it work?
ALPHA FLOOR is a function of AUTOTHRUST. It will activate at any airspeed based on angle-of-attack and automatically apply TOGA thrust regardless of thrust lever position.
ALPHA FLOOR is available if the AUTOTHRUST is functional (it does not need to be active), an engine is running (not both), and the aircraft is in NORMAL LAW.
Angle-of-attack protection does not depend on ALPHA FLOOR to function.
62
Describe what would happen if a flight crew attempted to overstress the aircraft while in NORMAL LAW.
Maneuver protection prevents a pilot from over stressing the aircraft by limiting flight control inputs.
If G loads become greater than normal, they are displayed in amber on the lower ECAM above the digital clock.
When the side stick is pushed forward, less than 1G is commanded. A given pitch input always results in the same pitch response regardless of airspeed.
When the stick is returned to neutral, the new pitch is held constant regardless of airspeed changes.
63
What will happen if the pilot over speeds the aircraft? Are there any protections that are available to the flight crew?
An over speed causes the flight control computers to provide a nose up input to reduce aircraft damage due to excess speed.
This protection limits the maximum airspeed by increasing the pitch attitude even if full forward stick is held.
The speed at which this protection activates is shown on the airspeed indicator as a green "=" sign.
An over speed warning is generated as VMO is exceeded (specifically at VMO+4). This warning can only be silenced by the EMER CANCEL pushbutton.
If the stick is released, the speed will return to VMO/MMO. The protection will allow a momentary increase in airspeed to permit any necessary maneuvering but then the speed will again slow to the limit.
If high-speed protection is active, bank angle is limited to 45°. Bank angle is also limited to 45° if angle-of-attack protection is active, in either case the limit marks do not move.
If high-speed protection is active, positive spiral stability occurs at all bank angles, and control pressure is required to hold any bank angle greater than zero.
It is possible to over speed the aircraft. The computers merely limit the maximum attainable speed.
64
When a pilot rolls into a bank what is provided by the Flight Control Laws?
In “flight” mode of NORMAL LAW roll control is a roll rate demand. Side stick inputs commands the ailerons, spoilers 2-5, and the rudder to achieve the commanded roll rate with bank angle protection, turn coordination, and Dutch roll damping.
The roll rate demanded by the pilot is proportional to side stick deflection. When the side stick is neutral, the ailerons and spoilers are positioned to maintain the roll rate at 0° per second. This results in a constant bank angle.
When the side stick is displaced laterally, increasing roll rates are commanded. At full deflection, a roll rate of 15° per second is commanded in NORMAL LAW. The ailerons and spoilers are positioned as necessary to achieve the commanded roll rate.
The side stick position cannot be used as a reference to determine the actual positions of flight control surfaces.
In normal turns (up to 33°) pitch trim is automatic and assists the pilot in maintaining altitude (pitch inputs may still be needed to maintain altitude).
If the bank is increased beyond 33° and the side stick is released, the aircraft would return to 33° of bank. This is known as positive spiral stability.
Positive spiral stability is a characteristic programmed into the flight control computers, which returns the aircraft to a more stable condition (0° if high speed or angle-of-attack protection is active).
Beyond 33°of bank, positive spiral stability is active and automatic pitch trim is inhibited. To maintain a bank angle greater than 33°, continuous side stick pressure must be used. Also, continuous back pressure will be needed to maintain altitude since automatic pitch trim is inhibited.
65
What is the ADIRS?
Air Data and Inertial Reference System
66
What are some of the parameters that the Air Data Reference System provides?
Barometric altitude, airspeed, over speed warnings, temperature, angle-of-attack, Mach
67
What are some of the parameters the IR provides?
Attitude, Flight Path Vector (FPV), track, heading, acceleration, angular rates, groundspeed and aircraft position
68
If there was an IR1/ADR1 FAULT, what should be done with the switching panel to display backup data appropriately?
ATT/HDG to CAPT 3
69
If the AIR DATA portion of the #1 ADIRU failed, what should be done with the switching panel to display backup data appropriately?
Air Data to CAPT 3
70
Explain the ADIRS Power-up and Initialization.
Switch from OFF to NAV
ON BAT light illuminates and then extinguishes
White ALIGN light illuminates for the duration of alignment
71
What is the importance of observing the ON BAT light?
It confirms the ADIRS ability to revert to aircraft battery power
72
What are some indications of an ADIR having reverted to battery power on the ground?
An external horn sounds
An ADIRU & AVNCS light illuminates in blue on the external power panel
73
What is the significance of a steady FAULT light on the IR?
Inertial Reference (IR) has failed and cannot be recovered
74
What is the significance of a flashing FAULT light on the IR?
Navigation function is lost. Attitude and heading may be recovered in ATT mode
75
What could cause the flashing white ALIGN light to illuminate on the ground?
PPOS not entered within 10 minutes of alignment or within 3 minutes of fast-alignment
Large difference in LAT/LONG between shutdown position and entered position
Aircraft movement during alignment
76
Describe what would happen if an Air Data Reference (ADR) was selected OFF?
The pilots would lose barometric altitude, airspeed, Mach, angle of attack, temperature and over speed warnings from that one ADR
The ECAM would instruct the pilot to select the AIR DATA SWTG to CAPT 3 or F/O 3 as appropriate
At that point the affected pilot’s side would return to normal
77
What functions are lost when an IR is turned OFF?
There are two types of ADIRS control panels. On the panel with a keypad and digital display, the pilot would lose the IR part (Inertial Reference) which supplies attitude, flight path vector, track, heading, accelerations, angular rates, ground speed, and aircraft position, along with all the ADR information. The ECAM instructs the pilot to select the ATT HDG SWTG to CAPT 3 or F/O 3 as appropriate. At that point the affected pilot's side returns to normal.
The other panel with no keypad and digital display allows the pilot to turn off only the IR, and in this case, only the IR information would be lost and the ADR information would still be available.
78
If the RWY TURN OFF, LAND, and NOSE switches are all in the ON position, which lights automatically extinguish after takeoff?
The NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights extinguish when the landing gear is retracted
79
What position should the STROBE switch be in during preflight?
auto
80
What does the illumination APU MASTER SW FAULT indicate?
Automatic APU shutdown has occurred.
81
What is the significance of the APU AVAIL light illuminating?
APU is running above 99.5 % or 2 seconds after N speed reaching 95%. In practical terms it is ready to accept and support ELEC and/or AIR load.
82
What condition in the APU system would cause an external horn to sound?
APU Fire
83
When will the EXIT signs automatically illuminate?
With the EMER EXIT LT switch in ARM, and normal AC power is lost.
DC SHED ESS BUS not powered
Cabin altitude is excessive (above 11,300 feet), NO SMOKING, FASTEN SEAT
BELT and EXIT signs illuminated
84
Why do we place the NO SMOKING SIGN to AUTO instead of ON?
It allows the EMER EXT LT to charge their batteries
85
What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is lost?
Captain’s instrument panel
Right dome light (provided DOME switch set in DIM or BRT)
Standby compass
86
How is the landing field elevation entered into the pressurization system in automatic, semi-automatic, and manual modes?
Automatic = FMGC (LDG ELEV must be in AUTO)
Semi-automatic = by LDG ELEV selector button
Manual = by selecting the MODE SEL to MAN and then using the MAN V/S CTL switch
87
What does selecting the DITCHING pushbutton ON accomplish?
Closes the outflow valve
Closes the emergency RAM AIR inlet
Closes the Avionics Ventilation Inlet and Extract valves
Closes pack flow control valves
Forward cargo isolation outlet valve (if installed)
Cargo recirculation fans stop automatically (if installed)
Closes all valves below the waterline
88
How many controllers are in the pressurization system? Do they share the load?
Two, only one is used at a time and they swap roles after each landing
89
What is accomplished if the WING anti ice pushbutton is selected ON while the aircraft is on the ground?
The system will self-test for 30 seconds and then the valves will close until the aircraft is airborne.
90
What does the WING FAULT light illumination on the ANTI ICE panel indicate?
Valve disagreement. (comes on momentarily when valve in transit)
Low pressure
91
What does the ENG 1(2) FAULT light illumination on the ANTI ICE panel indicate?
Valve disagreement (comes on momentarily when valve in transit)
92
Describe the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT logic.
Probes and window heat come on automatically (probes LOW on ground/HIGH airborne) with at least one engine running or aircraft airborne.
TAT not heated on ground.
93
What part of the wing is heated?
Outboard 3 slats.
94
In what position do the WING and ENGINE anti ice valves fail if electrical power is lost?
Wing – valves CLOSE
Engine – valves OPEN
95
If PACK FLOW is selected to LO, NORM or HIGH and only the APU is providing BLEED AIR or one pack is selected OFF, what will the packs provide?
HIGH flow rate, since the flow rate function is automatic
96
If the HOT AIR valve faults, what will happen to the temperature control system?
All trim air valves close and PACK 1 controls the cockpit temperature to the last selected value. PACK 2 controls the cabin to the averages selected by the FWD and AFT CABIN temperature selector knobs.
97
How are the PACKS controlled and operated?
Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated
98
What are some potential causes for a PACK FAULT light?
Low air pressure
Compressor outlet overheat
Pack outlet overheat
99
What are some potential causes for ENG BLEED FAULT light?
Bleed overpressure
Bleed overheat
Wing or engine leak on the related side
Bleed valve NOT closed during engine start
Bleed valve NOT closed with the APU BLEED ON
100
What is the logic for the X-BLEED rotary selector?
SHUT = the valve is closed
AUTO = open if the APU bleed valve is open; closed if APU bleed valve is closed or
there is a wing, pylon or APU leak (except during an engine start)
OPEN = the valve is open
101
What does APU BLEED FAULT illumination indicate?
APU bleed leak.
102
What does selecting the RAM AIR pushbutton accomplish?
Ram air inlet opens if the differential pressure is less than 1 PSI
103
What is the RAM AIR pushbutton used for?
Smoke removal in cabin
Ventilation of cabin with a dual pack failure
104
What is the minimum battery voltage?
25.6V
105
What would a pilot do if BAT voltage is 25.5 or below on originating preflight?
Charge the batteries with external power by selecting BAT pushbuttons to AUTO
106
Explain how to conduct the BAT check. What if it fails the test?
Select ELEC on ECAM
Turn BAT1&2 OFF then ON
Check BAT charge current is < 60 amps and decreasing within 10 seconds
If it fails the test, call maintenance
107
Describe the electrical power system.
The electrical power system consists of a three-phase 115/200-volt 400-hertz constant frequency AC system and a 28-volt DC
Normally, the system produces alternating current, some of which is then transformed into direct current for certain applications
Each of the aircraft's three generators can supply the whole network
If all normal AC generation is lost, an emergency generator can supply AC power
If all AC generation is lost, the system can transform DC power from the
batteries into AC power
108
If all AC power is lost, what happens?
DC power from the batteries is converted into AC
109
What would be an expected indication in the GEN pushbuttons prior to engine start?
FAULT indication
110
Define and describe an IDG.
Integrated Drive Generator
Takes variable engine RPM and gives a constant generator speed
111
How would a pilot disconnect an IDG?
Lift the red guard and push the IDG pushbutton, being careful not to hold the pushbutton for longer than three seconds
112
How would an IDG be reconnected?
This cannot be done by the flight crew -- it is a maintenance function.
113
Describe the function of the BUS TIE in AUTO.
Allows a single source of power to run entire electrical system
Allows connection of the APU GEN or EXT power to system
Inhibits multiple sources connected simultaneously
114
If GEN 1 fails to supply AC Bus 1, what happens?
AC bus 2 powers the system through the bus tie
115
How is the AC ESS bus normally powered?
From AC bus 1
116
If AC BUS 1 fails, how is the AC ESS bus powered?
AC bus 2 automatically feed the AC ESS bus.
117
What indication will be present on the ELEC panel that AC BUS 2 is feeding the AC ESS bus?
AC ESS FEED ALTN light illuminated
118
What does a GALLEY fault light indicate?
At least one generator load is above 100% rated output
119
Explain the AUTO function of the GALLEY pushbutton.
Sheds main galley if only 1 GEN is available
120
How is the BATTERY BUS normally powered?
DC BUS 1 through the DC tie contactor
121
What buses are powered by the EMER GEN?
AC essential bus
DC essential bus by the essential TR
122
What does a BAT FAULT light indicate?
Battery charging current outside limits
BAT contactor opens
123
When are the batteries connected to the battery bus?
APU start
Battery charging
AC BUS 1 & 2 not powered and airspeed below 100 knots
124
Describe the layout of the fuel tanks
Fuel is stored in a center tank and wing tanks:
o The wing tanks are divided into inner tanks, outer tanks, and vent tanks
125
What is the total fuel capacity?
42,000 lbs. (41,893)
126
Why is it possible for there to be a value higher than 42,000 lbs. indicated on the ECAM FOB?
The fuel can expand by 2% without venting overboard
127
How many fuel pumps are on the aircraft and where are they located?
There are seven total fuel pumps: two center tank pumps, four wing tank pumps, (two in each wing) and one APU fuel pump
The APU pump is used when fuel feed pressure is low (due to loss of tank pumps or loss of normal AC electrical supply)
128
What does a fault light in one of the L(R) TK PUMPS pushbuttons indicate?
Low delivery pressure
129
What does a fault light in the MODE selector indicate?
Failure of the AUTO mode
Center tank has more than 550 lbs. and either wing tank has less than 11,000 lbs.
130
How would a pilot know that fueling is in progress?
REFUELG message appears on the ECAM. This does not mean the fuel is entering the tanks, merely that the refueling door is open.
131
Describe Integrated Drive Generator (IDG) cooling and how it relates to the FADEC.
Some of the fuel supplied to each engine goes from the high-pressure fuel line in that engine through the Integrated Drive Generator (IDG) heat exchanger (where it absorbs heat), to the fuel return valve, and back to the outer tank, depending on the aircraft.
This operation ensures IDG cooling when the oil temperature is high or when at low engine power
132
What happens if returned IDG cooling fuel fills the wing tanks while the center tanks are feeding?
The center tank pumps will cut off until the wing tank quantity is reduced by 1,100 lbs.
133
When do the wing outer tanks drain into the inner tanks?
When either inner tank quantity reaches approximately 1,650 lbs.
134
Once opened to transfer fuel, how are the fuel transfer valves closed?
Automatically at the next refueling operation
135
What are the three HYD systems called?
GREEN, BLUE and YELLOW Systems
136
How is each system powered?
GREEN – engine driven
BLUE – electrically driven
YELLOW – engine or electrically driven
137
When does the BLUE pump normally operate?
After the first engine is started
138
If the BLUE system lost pressure how would pressure be restored?
The RAT must be deployed. It does not deploy automatically upon BLUE system loss of pressure, so it must be manually deployed with the RAT MAN ON pushbutton
139
What can be done to correct low ACUM PRESS indication?
On the ground, coordinate with personnel and turn on the beacon and YELLOW ELEC pump
140
With no HYD system power, how can the FWD CARGO door be opened?
By using a hand pump
141
What causes the Power Transfer Unit (PTU) to operate in if selected in AUTO?
Differential pressure of 500 psi between GREEN and YELLOW systems
After first engine start and until second engine starts, unless inhibited
142
When is the PTU inhibited?
On the ground with master switches split and either the nose wheel steering disconnected or the parking brake ON
For 40-seconds after cargo door is operated
143
What are some users of the GREEN system?
Landing gear
Normal brakes
Slats and flaps
ENG 1 thrust reverser
144
What are some users of the BLUE system?
Emergency generator & Slats
145
What are some users of the YELLOW system?
Flaps
Nose wheel steering
Alternate brakes
146
What do the priority valves do in the HYD systems?
Removes hydraulic power from the heavy users and protects the flight controls
147
What would cause a FAULT light in the ENG 1 pump?
Pump low pressure
Over temp in reservoir
Low air pressure in reservoir
Low quantity
148
If the FAULT light illuminated in the ENG 1 pump, what would identify the specific reason for the FAULT?
ECAM will display the reason
149
Where are the engine fire loops installed?
Pylon nacelle
Engine core
Fan section
150
What happens if both fire loops fail simultaneously?
FIRE warning will be issued (if the failure occurs within 5-seconds)
151
What does an amber DISCH light mean?
Bottle has lost its pressure either by a fault or pilot selection
152
How many fire bottles are provided for each engine?
Two
153
What happens when the ENG FIRE pushbutton is pushed?
(S/A/5C/2D)
Silences the aural fire warning
Arms the squibs
Closes the hydraulic fire valve
Closes the LP fuel valve
Closes the engine fuel return valve after the IDG
Closes the pack flow control
Closes the engine bleed valves
Deactivates the generator
Deactivates FADEC
154
What happens when the ENG FIRE TEST button is pressed?
Continuous Repetitive Chime (CRC) sounds
MASTER WARNING lights flash
ENG FIRE pushbutton illuminates red
SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate
ECAM fire warning
FIRE light on ENG panel
155
What would occur if the APU is running and an APU fire is detected on the ground? In flight?
On the ground, APU EMER shut down and bottle discharge
In the air there are no automatic functions
156
What must the flight crew be aware of when doing a Manual Start on the ground or an Auto Start in the Air?
The crew must abort the start if something goes wrong
157
What are the primary differences between a manual and a normal automatic start?
The FADEC provides full monitoring during a manual start and will provide appropriate ECAM cautions and procedures to follow in the event of a start fault
Automatic start interruption and auto-crank are not available
158
With the ENG MODE selector in IGN/START what occurs when the ENG MAN START pushbutton is pressed?
The start valve opens
Both pack flow control valves close
159
At what point, if any will the start valve automatically close?
At 43% N2 the start valve automatically closes
160
When would it be appropriate to do a manual start?
Degraded bleed performance (hot or high-altitude airfield)
Marginal performance of external air or APU air
Tailwind greater than 10 knots
After aborting a start because of:
o Engine stall
o Engine EGT over limit o N1 rotation
o Hungstart
161
What are some potential causes for the illumination of the BLOWER FAULT light?
Low blower pressure
Duct overheat
Computer power supply failure
Smoke warning activated
162
What condition in the avionics ventilation system would cause an external horn to sound?
BLOWER FAULT or EXTRACT FAULT illumination on the ground with both engines stopped
163
What are some potential causes for the illumination of the EXTRACT FAULT light?
Low extract pressure
Computer power supply failure
Smoke warning activated
164
Following a cargo smoke indication and subsequent discharge of the cargo smoke bottle, what would be the expected indication on the CARGO SMOKE panel?
The SMOKE light and associated ECAM warning may remain illuminated due to the halon concentration present in the cargo compartment
165
How many fire extinguishing bottles are there in the cargo extinguishing system?
Only one that has ducting to both FWD and AFT compartments, but the discharge can only be directed to one compartment.
166
What is the significance of the illumination of the HOT AIR FAULT light?
Duct overheat is detected
167
What is the significance of the illumination of the AFT ISOL VALVE FAULT light?
Either the inlet or the outlet valve is not in the selected position
168
When would the AUDIO SWITCHING be used?
Enables Captain or First Officer to utilize the overhead Audio Control Panel in case of individual ACP failure
169
Do the pilots use the maintenance panel?
Only if an MEL required pressurization of the BLUE system on the ground with the engines OFF
170
Which pushbutton would be used?
The BLUE PUMP OVRD pushbutton
171
What is the significance of black and green circuit breakers?
Green – monitored by ECAM
Black – not monitored by ECAM
172
What is the significance of a red collared circuit breaker?
The flight crew should not pull or manipulate these collared circuit breakers
173
