AANP EXAM NOTES 2 Flashcards

(103 cards)

1
Q

What is movement going toward the body?

A

Adduction

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2
Q

Valguim is aka?

A

Adduction

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3
Q

Tx for Acute Coronary Syndrome should include what 4 medications
(unless contraindicated)

A

ACE, ASA, BETA Blocker, Statin

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4
Q

What DX test is gold standard for anemia?

A

Hemoglobin electrophoresis

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5
Q

What condx presents with chest pain precipitated by exertion and is relieved by rest?

A

Angina

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6
Q

What condx should be considered if chest pain is precipitated by exertion but NOT relieved by rest?

A

Unstable angina

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7
Q

Does physical activity aggravate or relieve angina?

A

Aggravate

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8
Q

What condition renders pt unable to experience pleasure from enjoyable activities (e.g., sex)?

A

Anhedonia

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9
Q

What condx describes a pt unable to name a familiar object?

A

Anomia

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10
Q

What medical term is used for painful shallow ulcers on soft tissue of the mouth?

A

Aphthous stomatitis (Canker Sores)

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11
Q

What is common TX for canker sores

A

Magic mouthwash

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12
Q

A PT with difficulty performing purposeful movements suffers from?

A

Apraxia

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13
Q

What is the measure of the bioavailability of a drug after it is administered?

A

Area under the curve

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14
Q

What is the CAGE mnemonic?

A

C: do you feel the need to cut down?
A: Are you annoyed when comments are made about your drinking
G: do you feel guilty about drinking?
E: Do you need a drink early in the AM

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15
Q

What condx describes muscle wasting or loss without fat loss?

A

Cachexia

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16
Q

Cachexia is associated with what condx?

A

Anorexia

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17
Q

What are 2 common side effect of Calcium channel Blockers?

A

Swollen ankles and HA

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18
Q

Nondihydropyridine CCB (e.g., verapamil, diltiazem) can worsen what 2 conditions?

A

Constipation, Cardiac output

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19
Q

Vaginal Candida is what consistency?

A

Curd-like

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20
Q

Candida White typically causes what 2 symptoms?

A

Redness and Itching

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21
Q

Will PTs with Candida White have a large or small number of WBC?

A

Large

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22
Q

Candida White PTs will often have “spaghetti and meatballs.” What does this mean?

A

Pseudohyphae & Spores

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23
Q

What is the test for Candida White?

A

PCR Vaginal swab

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24
Q

Mature squamous epithelial cells with numerous bacterial on the cell surface & borders associated with BV are called?

A

Clue cells

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25
What is sticky, thick, yellowish fluid that comes before breast milk?
Colostrum
26
When is colostrum secreted?
First few days after birth
27
What does colostrum contain?
Large amount of maternal antibodies and nutrients
28
During GYN exam, a PAP test sample may also require co-testing of what virus?
HPV
29
CREEPING ERUPTION that consists of snake like wavy lines that are red in cololr is AKA?
Cutaneous larva migrans
30
What effect does bactericidal antibiotics have on bacteria?
Kills bacteria
31
Bacteriostatic antibiotics have what effect on bacteria?
Limit growth and replication
32
What condx presents with pearly, waxlike (shiny) telangiectasia, central ulceration?
Basal Cell Carcinoma
33
What age group does Beers criteria provide & what is the purpose?
Guidance for medications to avoid in elderly PT
34
What are 2 side effects of a Beta blocker?
Fatigue & depression
35
Pts with history of MI, HF should not be prescribed what?
Beta Blocker
36
The ability to read and understand but difficulty articulating words is aka? What type is this termed?
Broca's aphasia (expressive aphasia)
37
The process of adjusting the dose of a medication down to minimum effective dosage or discontinueing the medication if it is no longer needed is aka?
Deprescribing
38
What term describes the misalignment of 1 or both eyes?
Esotropia
39
When a drug reaches the stomach, it goes to the small intestine, then to the portal circulation where it is metabolized by the Liver. This process is called?
First pass metabolism
40
Inside the liver, the cytochrome P450 (CYP450) system is responsible for what process?
Biotransformation
41
Biotransformation causes a drug to be?
metabolized
42
What are 3 common drugs that bypass the First pass metabolism?
Insulin, IV meds, vaginal gels/creams, transdermal patches
43
Drug excretion occurs in what organ?
Kidneys
44
Elderly PTS have an increase or decrease of drug excretion because of physiologic decline in glomerular filtration?
Decrease
45
What type of Damage causes dementia, memory loss/difficulties, inability to learn ?
Frontal Lobe damage
46
What area of the brain is where intelligence, executive skills, logic, & personality reside?
Frontal Lobes
47
What condx is characterized by multiple fissures, irregular smooth areas on surface of tongue, appears as topographic map?
Geographic Tongue
48
What term describes the ability to identify figures "written" on skin with eyes closed?
Graphesthesia
49
What mineral is most often associated with healthy bones and teeth
Calcium
50
Name 2 foods that are high in calcium
Low fat yogurt, cheese, milk, dairy | ](http://)
51
What mineral helps with osteopenia, osteoporosis, and helps decrease BP?
Calcium
52
Folic Acid is AKA
Folate
53
What foods contain Folate?
Green leafy vegetables, breakfast cereals, liver
54
What food helps decrease homocysteine (Vit B6 & Vit B12) levels and helps decease fetal neural tube defects?
Folate
55
What mineral does the body needs for growth and development. It is also used to treat IDA.
Iron
56
Name 2 foods that contain Iron
Red Meat (Beef), liver, black beans, black eyed peas
57
What mineral helps to maintain normal nerve and muscle function, supports a healthy immune system, keeps the heartbeat steady by decreasing Bp & dialates blood vessels while also helping bones remain strong?
Magnesium
58
Name 2 foods that contain Magnesium
Whole wheat, some nuts (peanuts, cashews, almonds), some beans
59
Some laxatives, antacids, and milk of magnesia contain high levels of what mineral?
Magnesium
60
Mono UNSATURATED fats/fatty acids can decrease the risk for what disease?
Heart disease
61
Name 2 foods high in Mono UNSATURATED fats/fatty acids
Olive oil, some nuts, Sunflower seeds
62
What type of diet is high in monounsaturated fats?
Mediteranean
63
Potassium helps decrease ...
BP
64
What 2 types of fat increases the risk for heart disease?
SATURATED Fats and Trans Fats
65
What high amounts of mineral increases water retention in the body & increase in Bp?
Sodium
66
Name 3 foods high in sodium
Cold cuts, pickles, preserved food, canned food, hot dogs, chips
67
Name 2 foods that are high in Vitamin K
green leafy vegetables, broccoli, cabbage
68
A PT taking anticoagulants should control intake of what vitamin?
Vitamin K
69
What term describes the amount of time it takes for a drug concentration to reduce to half of its original dose?
Half life
70
What contains a list of approved ultradiluted substances used in the US that is used as a refrence guide for products that are prescription vs OTC?
Homeopathic pharmacopoeia
71
What condition does a PT have if he/she is farsighted and is the distant vision impaired or intact?
Hyperopia (distant vision is intact)
72
What is the DX test for Hypertrophy of the atrium or ventricle?
Echocardiograph
73
An allergy to eggs is/is not IgE mediated?
An allergy to eggs is NOT IgE mediated
74
A PT with an IgA deficiency anemia is at high/low risk of reaction when receiving blood?
HIGH RISK OF REACTION
75
What is Kyphosis?
A "C" shaped curvature of the spine
76
A PT with an infection of unknown origin has what condx?
Leukocytosis
77
A PT presents with slow growing white to grey plaque that has a firm to hard surface that is slightly raised on the tongue/inside the mouth (cheek). What is your diagnosis?
Leukoplakia
78
Leukoplakia is considered what type of lesion?
Precancerous
79
Leukoplakia can be caused by poor fitting dentures. T/F?
TRUE
80
Name 3 risk factors for oral cancer
Tobacco, alcohol, & HPV
81
You diagnose a PT with Leukoplakia. What is your next step?
Refer for biopsy. The lesion may become malignant
82
Statements in the pt. or family members own words is an example of what aspect of SOAP documentation?
Subjective
83
Information obtained through physical exam, radiographic studies, lab results, or professional consults is an example of which aspect of SOAP documentation?
Objective
84
Likely diagnosis, other testing that is needed, or determining whether a condition is emergent or not is an example of which aspect of SOAP documentation?
Assessment/diagnosis
85
Initiating medication, education, & follow up is an example of which aspect of SOAP documentation?
Treatment Plan
86
This condition presents with gait difficulty, cognitive disturbance & urinary incontinence. The CT will show enlarged ventricles.
Normal pressure hydrocephalus
87
Are routine antibiotics recommended for dental procedures?
No
88
AST/ ALT scores > 2 are strongly suggestive of what dz?
Alcoholic liver diz
88
What are 2 effects of aspirin on platelets?
It is irreversible & lasts more than 10 days
89
A decrease in the blood flow of the kidneys will cause the BUN to creatinine ratio to increase or decrease?
Increase
90
If BUN levels are abnormal what lab should you check next ?
GFR
91
What should the NP do if GFR is < 30 ml (stage 3 kidney failure)?
Refer to Nephrologist for possible dialysis.
92
What is the best measure of renal function in primary care?
eGFR (normal > 90)
93
eGFR defines chronic kidney dz as what?
< 60 ml x 3 months or longer
94
This urine test evaluates proteinuria, albuminuria, & microalbuminuria. It is not affected by fluid status, diet or exercise.
Creatinine clearance (24 hr urine)
95
This blood test is a better measure of renal function than a BUN or BUN/ Creatinine ratio & it is affected by age, gender, ethnicity (higher in African Americans).
Serum Creatinine
96
As renal function decreases, what happens to the serum creatinine levels?
It increases
97
If serum magnesium level falls < 1.5 what happens to the calcium levels?
It falls
98
The BNP is elevated in what cardiac conditon?
Heart failure
99
Inflammation, autoimmune dz., & heart failure will cause which lab to be elevated?
CRP
100
The ESR is elevated in what 4 conditions?
Giant cell arteritis, RA, lupus, renal dz, & inflammation
101
If PSA is > 10 what should the NP do?
Refer to urology for biopsy d/t increased risk of prostate cancer
102
Increased in band forms (immature WBCs) cause what to occur d/t increased bacterial infection?
"Shift to the left"