AANP EXAM NOTES 3 Flashcards

(85 cards)

1
Q

A CXR shows white colored patchy area on one of the lobes in the lung. What is your dx?

A

Lobar Pneumonia

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2
Q

How does Lobar Pneumonia present on a CXR?

A

Infiltrates.

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3
Q

What condition is indicated when a PT has consistently elevated BP in the office but it does not meet the definition of HTN?

A

White Coat HTN

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4
Q

What type of aphasia is Wernicke’s Asphasia?

A

Receptive Aphasia
(when someone is able to speak well/use long sentences, but what their saying does not make sense). May not know what they are saying is wrong.

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5
Q

A PT presents with markedly impaired ability to read and write. Comprehension is difficult but there are no problems with speech. What is the likely dx?

A

Wernicke’s aphasia.
(Pronounced Ver na kah)

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6
Q

What medical condx presents superficial veins that become enlarged and twisted?

A

Varicose veins

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7
Q

On what part of the body do varicose veins commonly develop?

A

Legs, just under the skin

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8
Q

What dx causes the wall of the artery to develop plaque lesions?

A

Arteriosclerosis

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9
Q

What is a major difference between varicose veins and arteriosclerosis?

A

Varicose veins - veins affected
Arteriosclerosis - vessels affected

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10
Q

What is the most objective measure to test for the presence of fluid inside the middle ear?

A

Tympanogram

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11
Q

A tympanogram is an objective measure to test for the presence of fluid in what body part?

A

Middle ear

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12
Q

A PT with acute OM will show a straight line on what type of test?

A

TYMPANOGRAM

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13
Q

A PT with acute OM will show a straight line on what type of test?

A

TYMPANOGRAM

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14
Q

A PT with SEROUS OM will show a straight line on what type of test?

A

TYMPANOGRAM

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15
Q

A Tympanogram displays a peak-shaped line in a normal ear. T/F

A

TRUE

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16
Q

A Tympanogram test can help diagnose problems related to hearing loss. T/F

A

TRUE

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17
Q

A TYMPANOMETRY test shows how well your middle ear works by measuring how the eardrum moves. T/F

A

TRUE

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18
Q

What term describes a PT’s gradual and poor clinical response to drugs?

A

Tachyphylaxis

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19
Q

Name 3 conditions that are symptoms of Trichomonas

A

Copious, bubbly, green in color, lots of inflammation, itching, redness of the vulvovaginal

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20
Q

If a PT is dx with Trichomonas, the partner needs treatment. T/F

A

TRUE

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21
Q

What test is given to the partner of a PT diagnosed with Trichomonas?

A

PCR Urine

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21
Q

Name 3 conditions that are symptoms of Trichomonas

A

Copious, bubbly, green in color, lots of inflammation, itching, redness of the vulvovaginal

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21
Q

Tay Sachs is most common in what group?

A

Eastern European Jews

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21
Q

Name 2 adverse affects of Thiazide diuretics

A

Hyperuricemia, Hyperglycemia

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22
Name 3 conditions that are symptoms of Trichomonas
Copious, bubbly, green in color, lots of inflammation, itching, redness of the vulvovaginal
23
A PT with syncope may feel dizzy, pass out for < 1 min, then awaken spontaneously. What is the initial step to assess this condition?
Perform a complete neurological and cardiac exam
24
When performing a cardiac exam of a PT with Syncope, the carotid arteries should be auscultated. T/F
TRUE
25
What signs/symptoms related to asthma present in a PT with Iron deficiency anemia?
PICA, Spoon shaped nails
26
Koilonychia is a term that describes what?
spoon shaped nails
27
Leukocytosis causes an increase in the WBC, especially during an infection. The PT has a high number of white blood cells. T/F
TRUE
28
What is the origin of the infection in a PT dx with Leukocytosis?
UNKNOWN
29
What condx presents with excoriated pruritic rash located in the finger webs & penis?
Scabies
30
Where are PTs at high risk for contracting scabies?
Schools, nursing home, prisons, group locations
31
What term describes products that are used to treat scabies? Provide one example.
Scabicides - because they kill scabies mites. Permethrin ointment is a scabicide.
32
How long does it typically take for symptoms to develop in a PT with Scabies?
4-8 weeks
33
What skin condx presents with non pruritic, sandpaper texture followed by sore throat, strawberry tongue, & skin desquamation (peeling) of the palms & soles
Scarlatina rash
34
Scarlatina rash is commonly known as?
Scarlet fever
35
What medication is usually prescribed to treat scarlet fever - unless contraindicated?
ABX: PCN or amoxicillin x 10 days If PCN allergy: Erythromycin
36
What condition causes loss of muscle mass as one ages with no underlying dx?
Sarcopenia
37
What term describes the progressive loss of muscle mass and strength in elderly PTs?
Sarcopenia
38
Sarcopenia is associated with increased falls, disability, and impairment. T/F
TRUE
39
What is the main treatment path for sarcopenia (gradual loss of muscle mass, strength, & function r/t age)?
Exercise
40
What causes Sarcopenia in elderly males?
Decreased production of testosterone
41
What are the s/s of scotoma?
Visual field abnormality/blind spot
42
An area of diminished central vision acuity surrounded by a field of normal vision is aka?
scotoma
43
How is a PT tested for scotoma?
Eye exam
44
Optical coherence tomography can be used to diagnose scotoma. T/F
TRUE
45
A group of symptoms that may occur with use of serotonergic drugs is called Serotonin Syndrome. T/F
TRUE
46
Serotonin Syndrome is DX by clinical exam & index of suspicion. T/F
TRUE
47
In moderate cases of Serotonin Syndrome, s/s include: high temperature, sweating, dialated pupils, diarrhea. T/F
TRUE
48
Serotonin syndrome is a life-threatening condition that can lead to neurologic complications. T/F
TRUE
49
What medication classes are associated with Serotonin Syndrome?
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRIs)
50
No single test can confirm a serotonin syndrome diagnosis. The condition is dx by ruling out other possibilities. T/F
TRUE
51
What is the gold standard to test for skin cancer?
Biopsy
52
What term describes a PT's ability to recognize a familiar object through touch?
Stereognosis
53
Placing a familiar object (e.g., coin, key, pen) in a PT's palm is a test of there ability to recognize the object. This is aka
Stereognosis
54
What type of rashes appears pink to red with small raised bumps. It will blanch and is present with roseola or exanthem subitem.
Maculopapular rashes
55
What type of rash is characterized by a flat, red area on the skin that is covered with small confluent bumps.
Maculopapular rashes
56
Maculopapular rashes are common in several diseases and medical conditions, including scarlet fever, measles, Ebola virus disease, rubella, secondary syphilis. T/F
TRUE
57
Maculopapular rashes can be as a result of large doses of niacin. T/F
TRUE
58
Maculopapular rashes affect swimmers in some areas (e.g., Florida, Caribbean, Long Island). It is caused by hypersensitivity to stings from the larvae of the sea anemone. T/F
TRUE
59
Fifth disease is a manifestations of infection caused by parvovirus B19. T/F
TRUE
60
Is Fifths disease more common in children or adults?
Children
61
Erythema infectiosum is aka?
Fifth's dz
62
Fifths dz presents as what type of pattern?
Bright red rash appears "slapped cheeks" on the face
63
Fifth's dz infection is frequently self-limiting. No specific therapy is recommended. T/F
TRUE
64
How does Varicella zoster, herpes simplex typically present?
Presents with papules, vesicles, crusts along a single dermatome
65
What contagious dz is caused by varicella zoster virus?
Chickenpox
66
Varicella zoster is aka human herpesvirus 3. T/F
TRUE
67
Within the human body,VARICELLA ZOSTER can be treated by acyclovir for chickenpox.. T/F
TRUE
68
What rash is oval shaped with a hearald patch?
Pityriasis rosea
69
What type of rash is Pityriasis rosea?
Maculopapular
70
What shape is a Pityriasis rosea rash?
Oval shape with a herald patch
71
Pityriasis rosea typically begins with a single red scaly area known as what?
Herald patch
72
Malignant hypertension is very high blood pressure that comes on suddenly and quickly. T/F
TRUE SBP > 180,DBP > 120
73
Malignant HTN is more common in younger adults, especially African American men. T/F
TRUE
74
How are PTs with malignant HTN treated?
Patients are usually admitted to an intensive care unit for monitoring and IV therapy. Note: PTs are monitored for cardiac, neuro function, and IV therapy (antihypertensive medications).
75
What term describes the peak serum concentration of a drug after a dose?
Maximum concentration
76
What term describes the highest concentration of a drug after a dose?
Maximum concentration
77
What term describes the lowest concentration of an antibiotic that will inhibit the growth of organisms (after overnight incubation)?
Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
78
What condx is described by Excessive constriction of the pupil of the eye
Miosis
79
When the pupil shrinks (constricts), it's called what?
Miosis
80
If a PT's pupils stay small even in dim light, it can be a sign that things in the eye aren't working right. This is called abnormal miosis. T/F
TRUE
81
What is the medical term for Nearsightedness?
Myopia
82
With Myopia, near vision is intact. T/F?
TRUE