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ABH RATE > ABH MANUAL CHAPTERS 1-9 > Flashcards

ABH MANUAL CHAPTERS 1-9 Flashcards

1
Q

How many main parts make up the construction of the standard screwdriver?

A

3

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2
Q

What makes a standard screwdriver different from a Phillips head screw driver?

A

The end

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3
Q

The Stillson adjustable wrench is equipped with how many jaws?

A

2

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4
Q

What provides gripping ability on the Stillson adjustable wrench?

A

Serrated teeth

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5
Q

When a definite force must be applied to a nut or bolt head, what tool must be used?

A

Torque wrench

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6
Q

The hinges on bolt cutters should be kept?

A

Well oiled

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7
Q

What tool can be used as a lever for moving objects short distances ?

A

Wrecking bars

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8
Q

The term pneumatic describes what type of power source?

A

Air

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9
Q

Excessive air pressure when utilizing pneumatic tools will result in?

A

Damage to the tool

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10
Q

The average size electric drill is equipped with what capacity, three fingered chuck?

A

1/4

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11
Q

The pneumatic chipping hammer is another tool useful to the ABH when scaling?

A

Large areas

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12
Q

Which power tool a be manufactured to be powered by air or electricity?

A

Rotary impact scaler and chipping hammer.

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13
Q

Where exact measurements are required, what measuring tool is used?

A

Caliper

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14
Q

On a steel or tape rule, the long line represents?

A

Inch mark

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15
Q

What should be done to prevent tape or fiber glass rules from kinking?

A

Kept in a wooden box

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16
Q

A dynamometer is an apparatus used to determine?

A

Breaking strength

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17
Q

Uses for the dynamometer may include determining the breaking strength of the tensioning system of what equipment ashore?

A

E-28

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18
Q

Before portable electric tools are used for the first time after procurement, they should be inspected by?

A

Electrical safety officer

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19
Q

Personnel operating tools that produce excessive noise level were required to wear hearing protection issued by?

A

Divisional supply representative

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20
Q

What class explosion proof electric tools should be utilized where exposed explosives are present?

A

Class 1

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21
Q

Handheld portable electric tools authorized for use onboard ship shall be equipped with

A

On/off switch

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22
Q

Extension cords should be no longer than 25 feet in length except when used on what class ship?

A

CVNs

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23
Q

Which of the following are allowed to be worn around rotating machinery?

A

Earrings

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24
Q

It is required to wear leather gloves when handling ______?

A

Sharp material

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25
Q

Tending lines are used for _____?

A

Personnel safety

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26
Q

Generally, small stuff is line that is less than?

A

1 3/4 inches

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27
Q

What knot is used to secure components on the MK-1 life preserver?

A

Bowline

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28
Q

When would an ABH possibly require the use of a block and tackle?

A

Overturn a crashed aircraft.

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29
Q

What is the mechanical advantage of the gun tackle?

A

2.1

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30
Q

It is imperative that equipment be stowed in its assigned area for what reason?

A

Ready for use

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31
Q

The A/S32A-30A is primarily designed for towing _______?

A

Ground support equipment

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32
Q

What is the secondary mission of the A/S32A-30A?

A

Tow small aircraft

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33
Q

The A/S32A-32 towing tractor (SD-2 spotting dolly) is controlled by the use of a _________?

A

Joystick

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34
Q

What is the maximum towing capacity of the A/S32A-30A (support equipment & aircraft wing tractor)?

A

40,000 lbs

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35
Q

The overall height of the A/S32A-32 towing tractor (SD-2 spotting dolly) is ______?

A

30 inches

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36
Q

What is the drawbar pull of the A/S32A-32 towing tractor?

A

14,000 lbs

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37
Q

How many phases are there in the ground support licensing program?

A

2

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38
Q

Who will handle the phase two portion of the ground support licensing program?

A

Division

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39
Q

Phase two of the ground support licensing program covers _______?

A

On-the-job training

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40
Q

What type of material is the NWC-4 universal wheel chock made from?

A

Polyurethane

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41
Q

What is the difference between the regular TD-1B and the type used on amphibious assault ships?

A

Length

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42
Q

For specific information concerning the high power tie down assembly for each type of aircraft, you would refer to the_________?

A

NAVAIR 17-1-537

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43
Q

When utilizing the NWC-4 universal wheel chock, where should the adjustable end of the chock be placed on the aircraft wheel?

A

Aft

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44
Q

The TB-1B can be tightened by use of the ________?

A

Tensioner assembly

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45
Q

The 24 ALBAR is designed specifically for what aircraft?

A

SH-60

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46
Q

When the aircraft elevator is loaded to capacity, with all pumps in use, what is the total duty cycle time?

A

60 seconds

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47
Q

The horizontal locking bars of the aircraft elevator are powered ________?

A

Pneumatically

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48
Q

Aircraft elevator safety stanchions should not be operated in___________?

A

Automatic mode

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49
Q

V-1 division is responsible for what part of the aircraft elevator operation?

A

Flight deck

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50
Q

V-3 division is responsible for what part of the aircraft elevator operation?

A

Hangar deck

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51
Q

A division is responsible for what part of the aircraft elevator operation?

A

Machinery room

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52
Q

There are how many different compositions of nonskid?

A

2

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53
Q

Nonskid coatings kits are supplied in how many components?

A

2

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54
Q

The shelf life of nonskid is ______?

A

1 year

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55
Q

What is the most preferred method of nonskid removal?

A

Water-jetting

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56
Q

In order to ensure the correct primer coverage, the DFT reading must be taken when the primer has _______?

A

Cured

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57
Q

When completing the primer application process, what will allow corrosion to set in and degrade the process?

A

Holiday

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58
Q

VLA markings on the hangar deck are placed ______ from the deck?

A

14 feet

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59
Q

The ships frame number markings are placed on both the starboard and port bulkheads, at frame intervals of ______?

A

10

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60
Q

For what class ship does the Naval Air Warfare Center Visual Landing AIDS General Service Bulletin, No. 8 establish standard certification requirements and inspections?

A

CVN

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61
Q

What color wand is utilized by the catapult topside safety petty officer?

A

Green

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62
Q

What color wand is utilized by the weight board operator?

A

White

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63
Q

What flight deck personnel utilize one stubby and red banded wand?

A

Ordnance arming crew

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64
Q

On then flight deck of a CVN, what color wands are utilized by the LSE?

A

One red standard and one green standard

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65
Q

What symbol is worn on the life vest of a helicopter plane captain?

A

H

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66
Q

What symbol is worn on the life vest of helicopter LSE?

A

H

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67
Q

On the flight deck, all officers, chief petty officers, and leading petty officers are identified by ________?

A

Three orange stripes

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68
Q

During an aircraft movement, the brake rider is required to keep the canopy open in order for _______?

A

The brake rider to hear

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69
Q

Upon aircraft landing , who is responsible for the installation of the down locks?

A

Plane captain

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70
Q

Before commencing an aircraft move, who is responsible for verifying the qualification on the move crew members?

A

Director

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71
Q

What hand signal is given before chocks and chains are removed from an aircraft?

A

Apply brakes

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72
Q

During an aircraft elevator evolution, when the words “stand by for a turn” are passed, the elevator must be _______?

A

Raised to the flight deck

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73
Q

Before commencing elevator movement, the horn must be sounded _______ time(s).

A

Three

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74
Q

Any damage to an aircraft, no matter how slight, must be immediately reported to the ______?

A

ACHO

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75
Q

In operations requiring taxiing of aircraft, directors are stationed at intervals of _____feet along the flight deck?

A

50 to 100

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76
Q

The standard position for a director is ahead of the aircraft, in line with the _______?

A

Left wing tip

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77
Q

Squadron inspectors must NOT perform inspections while an aircraft is ______?

A

Taxiing

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78
Q

After the launch bar has been properly seated and verified by the hookup petty officer, he or she gives what signal to the director?

A

Go

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79
Q

According to the NAVAIR 00-80T-120, aircraft recovery stations are manned __________ minutes prior?

A

30

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80
Q

What is the purpose of having a tow tractor in a ready condition during recovery?

A

To tow aircraft with blown tires

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81
Q

What is the initial tie down requirement for the F/A-18?

A

Six

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82
Q

For information concerning the attachment points on certain aircraft, you should refer to the _______?

A

NAVAIR 80T-120

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83
Q

As a minimum, what tie down category is required for refueling operations?

A

Initial

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84
Q

At what pounds per square inch (psi) is fire main pressure used for undercutting ice during severe cold weather?

A

100

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85
Q

The mobile crash crane is secured with a minimum of ______ tiedowns?

A

13

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86
Q

When aircraft embark, when is the aircraft integrity watch NOT set?

A

During general quarters

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87
Q

Who is the aircraft integrity watch responsible to when in port?

A

ACHO

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88
Q

The integrity watch messenger of the watch composition is provided by_______?

A

The air wing

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89
Q

What integrity watch team member is responsible for the scheduling of required training and lectures?

A

Air wing watch coordinator

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90
Q

Transient aircraft requiring assistance while taxiing on the runway will be met by a vehicle displaying the words _________?

A

FOLLOW ME

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91
Q

During high winds on shore, multi engine aircraft are tied down and secured at _______ points?

A

Six

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92
Q

On shore stations, what types of stakes provide the greatest aircraft security?

A

Corkscrew

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93
Q

Vehicles operating in the vicinity of aircraft must limit their speed to 5 mph within ________ feet?

A

50

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94
Q

What is the maximum speed limit, in miles per hour (mph), on a runway where no aircraft are present?

A

10

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95
Q

A transient vehicle on an air station displaying a red flag is carrying _____?

A

Explosives

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96
Q

At an air terminal, a vehicle visual signal of a white light is a signal telling you to _______?

A

Return

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97
Q

Who may authorize the movement of aircraft while port?

A

Air department duty officer?

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98
Q

How many helicopters cans be launched simultaneously from an LPD?

A

2

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99
Q

On the AV-8B aircraft, the steering accumulator must be __________ before attaching the tow bar?

A

Depressurized

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100
Q

To move the MV-22 aircraft, use of what device is the preferred method to power the brake system?

A

Auxiliary brake pump

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101
Q

How many tie down requirements are on amphibious assault ships?

A

3

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102
Q

When parking aircraft in the hangar bay, you should allow clearance for?

A

Fire plugs

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103
Q

During the spotting of aircraft in anticipation of heavy weather, as many aircraft as possible should be moved _________?

A

To the hangar bay

104
Q

How many pounds per square inch (psi) should the braking system of the AV-8B be pressurized before towing?

A

2,000

105
Q

When personnel are used as counterweights to tow an AH-1 aircraft, personnel should position themselves on the ________?

A

Ammo bay doors

106
Q

For detailed information for the proper utilization of aircraft handling signals, you make reference to what manual?

A

NAVAIR 00-80T-113

107
Q

Making a sharp turn while taxing an AV-8B under heavy gross weight will cause the aircraft outrigger to _________?

A

Deflate

108
Q

The jet efflux produced by an AV-8B during vertical operations will exceed what temperature in degrees Fahrenheit?

A

200 degrees

109
Q

During wing stow/unstow operations, the tiedown chains on the MV-22 must be ________?

A

Slacked

110
Q

The maximum safe relative wind conditions for folding or unfolding the MV-22 prop rotor blades and wing stow/unstow operations is _________ knots?

A

45 knots

111
Q

During flight operations, who is responsible for ensuring type mobile firefighting equipment is manned and ready?

A

Flight Deck Officer

112
Q

Arming of helicopters shall be conducted after the pilot has signified that he or she is ready for ________?

A

Takeoff

113
Q

Arming shall be conducted only while Aircraft is at a complete stop and control of that aircraft has been turned over to _______?

A

Arming crew supervisor

114
Q

Who is responsible for indicating to the LSE/director what aircraft requires dearming upon landing?

A

Aircraft dearming supervisor

115
Q

Who is responsible for providing the personnel for the aircraft integrity watch?

A

Embarked units

116
Q

Who ensures that a complete FOD walkdown has been conducted prior to flight operations?

A

Aircraft handling officer

117
Q

In preparation for flight operations, who is responsible for ensuring that all antennas, flagstaffs, and lifelines are lowered?

A

Air officer

118
Q

What color beacon of the deck status light is displayed when clearance has been granted to taxi aircraft?

A

Any color

119
Q

What color beacon of the deck status light is displayed when clearance has been granted to start engines?

A

Red

120
Q

What color beacon of the deck status light is displayed when clearance has been granted to engage rotors?

A

Amber

121
Q

During recovery, the words “ Stand by to recover aircraft” are passed or the 5MC. What color beacon is displayed on the deck status light?

A

Red

122
Q

Who is responsible for setting flight quarters?

A

Officer of the deck

123
Q

What color flight deck jerseys are worn by combat cargo personnel?

A

White

124
Q

From whom does the LSE request permission to engage or disengage rotors?

A

Flight deck supervisor

125
Q

Who can authorize an aircraft to engage rotors while the ship is in a turn?

A

Commanding Officer

126
Q

What steady velocity of winds, in knots, is considered optimum for pickup and delivery during vertical replenishment?

A

15 to 30 knots

127
Q

In order to smother a fire, what element of the fire triangle need to be removed?

A

Oxygen

128
Q

In order to starved a fire, what element of the fire triangle needs to be removed?

A

Fuel

129
Q

In order to cool a fire, what element of the fire triangle needs to be removed from the fire triangle?

A

Heat

130
Q

What class of fire is the burning of energized electrical equipment?

A

Class C

131
Q

What class of fire is the burning of petroleum based products?

A

Class Bravo

132
Q

What class of fire is the burning of magnesium and aluminum?

A

Class Delta

133
Q

Which of the following extinguishing agents is used initially on class “C” fires?

A

CO2

134
Q

Which of the following agents extinguishing is used as a last resort on class “C” fires?

A

PKP

135
Q

On CVN class ships, what is the capacity of the hangar deck salvage forklift?

A

20,000 pounds

136
Q

What is the minimum number of personnel it takes to deploy a 1 1/2 inch AFFF hose?

A

3 people

137
Q

What is the maximum number of personnel it takes to deploy a 2 1/2 inch hose?

A

7 people

138
Q

During a flight deck fire evolution, what person is responsible for the organization of personnel to the scene leader?

A

Background assistance leader

139
Q

Who is responsible for providing assistance to the air department for casualty evacuation ?

A

Air wing commander

140
Q

During a multiaircraft fire in the hangar bay of an LHA, who will supervise the activation of the hangar bay sprinkler system?

A

Hangar deck officer

141
Q

What type of fire extinguisher should be kept available for a ruptured liquid oxygen converter?

A

Water

142
Q

How many personnel are required for immediate response manning using the P-25 firefighting vehicle?

A

3

143
Q

Controls for operating the emergency lighting on the AFFF hose outlets are located in________?

A

Primary flight control

144
Q

On a LPD class ship, which person is responsible for the training, supervision, and organization of flight deck/landing platform firefighting and rescue teams?

A

Air officer

145
Q

Ona LPD class ship, who has the overall responsibility for aircraft firefighting, salvage, jettison and personnel rescue operations?

A

Helicopter control officer

146
Q

On ACS ships, other than LPD class ships, the helicopter control officer is under the direction of what person?

A

Damage control assistant

147
Q

For determining messengers/phone talkers requirements, which person will make the determination on what mode of communication will be utilized to meet minimum requirements?

A

Commanding officer

148
Q

How many AFFF hose teases shall be manned for maintenance turnips without rotor engagement on LPD class ships?

A

2

149
Q

On a LPD class ship, who is responsible for the direction of all aircraft movement on the flight deck/landing platform during aircraft crash evolutions?

A

Air Officer

150
Q

What is the minimum working load of the ladder required by the crash and salvage tool inventory?

A

300 pounds

151
Q

How many crash axes are required by crash and salvage tool inventory?

A

2 Axes

152
Q

How many spinner wrenches are required for each AFFF and saltwater hose station?

A

2 wrenches

153
Q

What is the required weight of the ball peen hammer utilized in the crash and salvage inventory?

A

1 1/2 pounds

154
Q

Tools in the crash and salvage inventory shall be engraved, displaying the_________?

A

Hull Number

155
Q

What is the minimum length requirement of the ladder in the crash and salvage inventory?

A

12 feet

156
Q

How many additional CO2 extinguishers shall be provided for the flight deck on all ACS helicopter operations?

A

2 bottles

157
Q

What fire fighting equipment is stowed in repair lockers and is used for mixing saltwater and AFFF concentrate?

A

Educators

158
Q

During the overhaul stage of a fire on an LPD, the senior firefighter will have a___________?

A

Halligan tool

159
Q

Aircraft engine wet start fires are cause by ?

A

Residual fuel

160
Q

Who will provide immediate first aid and commence the evacuation of casualties?

A

Background personnel

161
Q

How many personnel are utilized for the overhaul team?

A

2 personnel

162
Q

Onboard LPD/ACS ships, what is the minimum amount of flight deck drills that shall be conducted monthly?

A

2 drills monthly

163
Q

Personnel assigned as crash, rescue and salvage crew members assigned to LPDs and ACS’s shall attend the helicopter firefighting team training course once during a ________?

A

24 month cycle

164
Q

Which of the following information shall not be provided to the scene leader by the exercise observer when conducting drills?

A

Type of aircraft

165
Q

In which of the following manuals would you find the crash crew information diagram?

A

NAVAIR 00-80R-14-1

166
Q

In what aircraft would you find the ESCAPAC(series) ejection seat?

A

S-3

167
Q

How many personnel are normally part of a rescue team?

A

2 personnel

168
Q

What color is the pull handle on most aircraft doors?

A

Red

169
Q

On which of the following locations on an aircraft fuselage would you not find a hatch?

A

REAR of A/C

170
Q

What person is responsible for the coordination of aircraft jettison operations?

A

Crash Chief

171
Q

Who is responsible for conducting drills and training of the crash and salvage crew?

A

Air Bos’n

172
Q

Who is responsible for the supervision of the installation of aircraft hoisting equipment for each model aircraft onboard?

A

Crash leading petty officer

173
Q

How many pounds is the salvage platform capable of supporting?

A

1,000 pounds

174
Q

When load testing the crash and salvage platform, the load is held off the ground for ________?

A

2 minutes

175
Q

How much weight , in pounds, is applied to the tail hook dolly, when performing a weight test inspection?

A

600 pounds

176
Q

How often is the load test performed on the crash and salvage platform?

A

Annually

177
Q

The 6,000 pound crash and salvage forklift is normally used for performing _________?

A

Rescue operations

178
Q

What is the maximum lifting capacity of the auxiliary hoist on the CVCC?

A

10,000 pounds

179
Q

What is the engine operating rpm range of the CVCC?

A

1800-2100

180
Q

How many batteries are in the AACC?

A

2 batteries

181
Q

What type of material is the tail hook strap made from?

A

Nylon

182
Q

What type of material are belly bands made from?

A

Nylon

183
Q

The 15 foot ALBAR has a maximum gross handling weight of _______?

A

90,000 pounds

184
Q

What type of material I’d the universal salvage harness made of ?

A

Polyester

185
Q

How many TD-1A/B tiedoewn chains are there in the crash and salvage inventory ?

A

12 chains

186
Q

The K-12 forcible entry saw is cooled by?

A

AIR

187
Q

What is the power source of the K-12 forcible entry saw have?

A

Gasoline

188
Q

The welding of forged steel will reduce its breaking strength by ________?

A

30 %

189
Q

How many adapters are there for the aircraft crash dolly?

A

2 adapters

190
Q

Hydrazine can be found in the auxiliary power unit of what aircraft?

A

F-16

191
Q

What training device is used to creat an actual burn practice and simulated operations?

A

MOBILE AIRCRAFT FIREFIGHTING DEVICE

192
Q

Which shore based facility does not have a primary aircraft emergency alarm inter-communication system installed?

A

Security

193
Q

During pump and roll operations, the turret streams on the vehicle shall be set to prevent_________?

A

Impairing the driver’s vision

194
Q

How many categories are there for airfield minimum response requirements?

A

6 categories

195
Q

The standby alert status requires the firefighting personnel to be on the scene within_________?

A

5 minutes

196
Q

Who is authorized to increase manning as appropriate for each firefighting and rescue vehicle, if the primary mission of the aviation facility involves extra-hazardous flight operations?

A

Type commander

197
Q

With the exception of extra personnel required to operate firefighting vehicles, what is the minimum required staffing for all types of major aircraft firefighting vehicles performing immediate response alert?

A

2 personnel

198
Q

How many categories are there for for helistop and heliport requirements?

A

2 categories

199
Q

When positioning the mounted twin agent unit, it should be positioned to facilitate pulling the nozzle and hoses from the?

A

Rear of the vehicle

200
Q

In the absence of the station fire chief, who exercise overall control of the airfield other than at the immediate scene of an accident?

A

Air operations officer

201
Q

How many principle fire protection functions are at aviation shore facilities?

A

2

202
Q

At an aviation airfield facility, who is responsible for the operational readiness, performance, technical training, and management of their respective fire protection organizations?

A

Fire chief

203
Q

What is the minimum number of firefighters required to meet the minimum requirement for a category 3 Navy airfield?

A

3

204
Q

Ejection seat training for shore activity firefighters should be held at a minimum every_______?

A

180 days (Semi annually)

205
Q

In order for air facility firefighters to maintain proficiency in firefighting, how many live fire training evolutions are conducted semi-annually?

A

6 evolutions

206
Q

The daily aircraft firefighting and rescue journal should be maintained for minimum of ________?

A

3 years

207
Q

What manual requires all aviation firefighting shore facilities to maintain a crash grid map system?

A

NAVAIR 00-80T-114

208
Q

How many gallons of water can be discharged per minute with the P-19 bumper turret?

A

250 gallons

209
Q

What is the capacity of the AFFF tank on the P-19 firefighting vehicle?

A

130 gallons

210
Q

What is the diameter on the hand line of the P-19?

A

1 inch

211
Q

What type of roof turret is mounted on the Oshkosh T-series firefighting vehicles?

A

NON-ASPIRATING

212
Q

When water fog is used on a wheel assembly fire, an intermittent application of short bursts should be used in intervals of________?

A

5 to 10 seconds

213
Q

What will happen to the hydraulic fluid called “SKYDROL” when it comes in contact with high temperatures from a fire?

A

Decompose

214
Q

How many wheeled flight line extinguishers should be available for three CH-53 aircraft?

A

1

215
Q

Portable drills purchased for the use of manually opening the F-35 canopy must have a voltage of at least __________?

A

18 volts

216
Q

What percent of backup ready stock should be maintained by shore-based fire departments?

A

10 %

217
Q

TAU firefighting apparatus is primarily used for extinguishing what class of fires?

A

Bravo fires

218
Q

How many pounds of Halon are on the P-25 firefighting vehicle?

A

60 pounds

219
Q

How many universal salvage slings are required at a minimum for shore-based salvage?

A

6 slings

220
Q

What is utilized for expeditious rescue of pinned victims, lifting heavy debris, and other various needs if entry at the immediate mishap scene is inaccessible to heavy equipment?

A

Airbags

221
Q

what type of starting system does the retrieve system assembly on the E-28 arresting gear use?

A

Electric

222
Q

What is the total number of cylinders in the engine of the retrieve assembly of the E-28 arresting gear?

A

4 cylinders

223
Q

During an aircraft arrestment with the E-28 arresting gear, what reaction actually applies a braking force on the aircraft, bringing it to a stop?

A

Fluid resistance

224
Q

What is the width of the E-28 purchase tape?

A

8 inches

225
Q

What is the thickness of the E-28 purchase tape?

A

0.0344 of an inch

226
Q

Which of the following indicates that the cross ECM pendant of the E-28 arresting great is no longer under the required tension?

A

Strobe lights

227
Q

The tape pressure roller of the E-28 arresting gear is under tension by the ________?

A

Springs

228
Q

What is the function of the retrieve engine assembly on the E-28 arresting gear?

A

Rewind and tension tape

229
Q

The purchase tape is made of what types of material?

A

Nylon

230
Q

How many feet are the donut wire supports positioned apart from each other?

A

14 feet

231
Q

How would you identify the original and exact location of the cross deck pendant wire support positions on the runway?

A

Paint markings

232
Q

Wire supports must be replace when they show excessive wear and have radical cracking of _________ or longer?

A

1 inch

233
Q

What is the minimum cable clearance of the cross deck pendant?

A

2 inches

234
Q

The cross deck pendant is made of what type of wire?

A

Rotating

235
Q

How often is a functional check performed on the E-28 Arresting gear?

A

Every 30 days

236
Q

Lithium batteries can be found where?

A

Sonobuoys, weapons, communication equipment, aircraft

237
Q

What is the drawbar pull of the A/S 32A-32A Tow tractor?

A

8,500 lbs

238
Q

Which Tow bar was designed for H-53 helicopters with inflight refueling probes?

A

20 ALBAR

239
Q

Which Tow Bar was designed for the SH-60 series with a max towing weight of 20,000 lbs?

A

24 ALBAR

240
Q

What I’d the permanent tie down requirement for an AV-8B?

A

10 chains

241
Q

On the E-28 Arresting gear system what is the Max Aircraft engaging speed on a shore based airfield?

A

160 knots

242
Q

What three personnel use Amber wands?

A

Flight deck officer
Aircraft directors
Gear pullers

243
Q

Plane Captains use what color of wands?

A

Blue

244
Q

On Amphibious ships, who is responsible to wave off aircraft not in acceptable approach?

A

LSO (Landing Signal Officer)

245
Q

On an amphibious ship who is responsible for Crash and Salvage equipment?

A

Air officer

246
Q

Who does the Flight Deck Supervisor report to on an amphibious ship?

A

Directly to the Air Officer.

247
Q

On a CVN who is responsible for the administrative training of V-1?

A

Flight Deck Officer

248
Q

On a CVN who is responsible for equipment repair, function within the air department?

A

Air Officer

249
Q

Who acts as the Air Department Training Coordinator onboard a CVN?

A

Assistant Air Officer ( MINI BOSS)

250
Q

What is the Max lifting capacity of the A/S 32A-32?

A

16,000 pounds

251
Q

What is the height of the spotting dolly?

A

30 inches

252
Q

What is the Drawbar pull of the A/S 32A-32?

A

14,000 pounds

253
Q

Loaded speed of the Spotting dolly?

A

2 MPH

254
Q

On a LHD ship the MV-22 Aircraft has a minimum of how many feet clearance?

A

15 feet

255
Q

In what condition do helicopters have tow bars attached, specific LSE, tractor driver, Handling crew, and start crew?

A

Condition III / ALERT 30

256
Q

What condition has Helicopters standing by with rotor blades spread, starting equipment plugged in, and the LSE/ starting crew ready for launch?

A

Condition I / ALERT 5

257
Q

Which Condition allows Aircrew to be on immediate call and helicopter rotors are folded?

A

Condition II / ALERT 15

ABH RATE (12 decks)

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