Adult/Gero Flashcards
(240 cards)
1
Q
Treatment for Acne Roscea
A
Metronidazole gel
2
Q
Pernicious Anemia, Vitamin B-12 deficiency, Folic Acid deficiency, Liver disease, Hypothyroidsim, & Reticulocytosis are all considered as
A
Macrocytic Anemia (MCV > 100fL)
3
Q
What is the cornerstone pharmacological therapy for COPD?
A
Anticholinergics (Ipratropium/Atrovent, Tiotropium/Spiriva) & L.A.B.A (Salmeterol, Formoterol, & Bambuterol)
4
Q
Iron deficiency anemia, Lead Poisoning/Toxicity, Sideroblastic Anemia, & Thalassemia (Alpha & Beta) all are considered as
A
Microcytic Anemia (MCV
5
Q
Treatment recommendation for Mild COPD include
A
- Reduction of risk factors (i.e smoking cessation),
- Get flu and PNA vaccines
- Add S.A bronchodilators/(Levabulterol[Xopenex], Proventil [ProAir], Ipratropium [Atrovent])
6
Q
Treatment recommendation for Moderate COPD include
A
- Short acting bronchodilators, plus…
- Add one or more long acting bronchodilators (long acting beta agonists/salmeterol, formoterol or long acting anticholinergic/tiotropium [Spiriva])
7
Q
What are the most common forms of COPD?
A
Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis
8
Q
Hemolytic Anemia, Bone Marrow disorders, Hyperspleenism, Acute Blood loss, & Anemia of Chronic disease, are all considered as
A
Normocytic Anemia (MCV 80 - 100)
9
Q
Treatment for Very Severe COPD
A
Along with short acting, long acting bronchodilators, and inhaled corticosteroids…
- Add long term oxygen
- Possible surgical treatments
10
Q
A systolic B/P of 140-159, and diastolic BP of 90-99 is consider as:
A
Stage I Hypertension
11
Q
Treatment recommendation for Severe COPD include
A
Along with short acting & long acting bronchodilators, add Inhaled steroids/glucocorticoids
12
Q
- A hemoglobin A1C > 6.5%
- A random glucose or 2 hour plasma glucose > 200mg/dL
- A fasting glucose > 126 mg/dL
- The above mentioned are all criteria to diagnose…
A
Diabetes
13
Q
Heberden’s nodes and Bouchard nodes are found in this disease
A
Osteoarthritis/Degenerative Joint Disease
14
Q
A progressive “ASYMETRIC” degeneration of the articular/hyaline cartilage layer on the ends of bones at the joints. Can be monoarticular or polyarticular
A
Osteoarthritis
15
Q
Symptoms of osteoarthritis include:
A
- Pain or stiffness of one or more joints
* Pain is most prevalent upon arising and after prolonged activity and RELIEVED BY REST
16
Q
Stage II Hypertension is diagnosed when:
A
- A systolic BP is > 160 or, …
* A diastolic BP > 100
17
Q
Treatment for Stage II Hypertension
A
“Dual Therapy”, usually with a thiazide diuretic, and a CCB, ACE-I, or ARB. (ACE-I & ARB cannot be a combo therapy)
18
Q
A normal TSH level is _______
A
1 to 4
19
Q
A normal Free T4 is ______
A
10 to 27
20
Q
s1/Systole, which is the “lub” sound, is considered the closure of what valves
A
Mitral and triscupid valves (Atrioventricular valves = 3 leaflets)
21
Q
s2/Diastole, which is the “dub” sound, is considered the closure of what valves
A
Aortic and Pulmonic valves (Semilunar valves = 2 leaflets)
22
Q
An audible s3 sound is suggestive of ________
A
Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)
23
Q
This heart sound is made due to a stiffness of the left ventricle, usually indicating Left Ventricular Hypertrophy (LVH)
A
s4
24
Q
A holosystolic or pansystolic murmur, best heard at the apex, and can possibly radiate to the axillae, is suggestive of _______
A
Mitral Regurgitation
25
A midsystolic murmur heard at the 2nd intercostal space, on the right side of the sternum, that can radiate to the neck is suggestive of _____
Aortic Stenosis
26
The "GOLD STANDARD" for diagnosing Hashimoto's thyroiditis is _______
ELEVATED antimicrosomal antibodies
27
An elevated TSH, with a low free T4 is the classic lab finding for ______
Hypothyroidsim
28
The "GOLD STANDARD" radiography for injuries of the menisci, cartilage, tendons, ligaments, and joints is _____
MRI
29
* Fracture of the distal radius (with or without ulnar fracture) of the forearm, along with displacement of the wrist is what type of fracture?
* Dinner Fork Fracture
Colles Fracture
30
Colles fractures are associated with a history of what?
Forward falling with outstretched hands
31
The most common area of Colles fracture is ________
Wrist
32
An acute or sudden onset of "TEARING" severe low back/abdominal pain. Presents with abdominal bruit with abdominal pulsation. What is this indicative of?
Dissecting Aortic Anyeurysm
33
A diagnostic sign for a "torn or ruptured" ligament (AL or PCL). It is a test for "knee instability". What is this test?
Drawer Test
34
Which orthopedic maneuver produces a "click" sound and knee pain, when performed?
McMurray's test (suggest a medial meniscus injury)
35
The "Lachman's" test screens for _______
Knee instability (more sensitive than Drawer test) suggests ACL damage.
36
Inflammation of the digital nerve of the foot, between the 3rd & 4th metatarsal (toe) is known as?
Morton Neuroma
37
Morton's neuroma risk is increased by what?
Wearing high-heeled shoes, tight shoes, being obese, being a runner or dancer
38
This test is done by grasping the 1st and 5th toe, then squeezing the forefoot. It screens for Morton's Neuroma
Mulder's test
39
De'Quervain's screen is considered "positive" when what happens?
Their is pain and tenderness at the wrist (on the thumb side)
40
The "Finklestein" test is a screening for what?
De'Quervain's tenosynovitis (an inflammation of the tendon and its sheath, located at the base of the thumb).
41
Which is known to have longer joint stiffness, degenerative joint disease (osteoarthritis) or rheumatoid arthritis?
Rheumatoid Arthritis
42
A type of bursitis located behind the knee is called
Baker's Cyst
43
Prolonged and painful erection of the penis (greater than 2 to 4 hours)
Priapism
44
* Risk factors for priapism include?
* Sickle cell
* Cocaine users
* High dose erectile dysfunction medication
* Quadriplegics
45
What effect does mitral regurgitation have on cardiac output
It can "DECREASE" cardiac output
46
Symptoms of "decreased" cardiac output includes?
Dypsnea on exertion, chest pain, orthopnea, syncope, and near syncope
47
This goal is to: Achieve normal or near normal lung function, and prevent symptoms. Controlling inflammatory process reduces airway remodeling
Asthma goal
48
One of the main causes of Mitral Stenosis is ______
Rheumatic infection (a "streptococcal infection")
49
Which nerve is affected by the "fibular" bone
Peroneal nerve
50
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) range
80-100 fL
51
Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC) range is
33-36 g/dL
52
Population who are at increased risk for Tuberculosis include (8 populations)
1. Foreign born people
2. Minorities
3. Prisoners
4. Nursing Home residents
5. Indigents
6. Healthcare Providers
7. Migrant workders
8. People with blood disorders or prolong steroid therapy use.
* **Any population that is OVERCROWDED***
53
The nurse practitioner role was initially established to (3 things)
1. Improve access to care and partially solve physician shortage.
2. Provide accessible primary care services
3. Illness prevention and health promotion
54
Standards of practice are
Authoritative statements used to measure quality
55
The knowledge base of the APRN is based on
Scientific content and theory
56
Indications for starting a person with diabetes on oral hypoglycemics include
Failure to control hyperglycemia with diet in a client with diabetes type 2
57
The goal of COPD is to:
Reduce the disease progression, reduce the symptoms and exacerbation, and improve exercise tolerance and quality of life
58
This insulin's onset is 15-20 minutes, and peaks at 30 minutes to 2 hours.
Immediate (Lispro or Aspart)
59
This insulin's onset is 30 minutes to 1 hour, and peaks at 2 to 3 hours.
Regular (Humulin R or Novolin R)
60
* HBsAg (negative)
* Anti-HBc (negative)
* Anti-HBs (negative)
What do these lab results mean?
Susceptible to Hepatitis B
61
This insulin's onset is "UNKNOWN" (maybe 1 to 2 hours), and HAS NO PEAK
Long Acting (Lantus or Levemir)
62
They increase the release of insulin, increase the levels of incretin
Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DDP-4) Januvia
63
Metformin is contraindicated for which patient population
Reduced Kidney Function/Kidney Failure
64
They delay intestinal carbohydrate absorption by reducing post prandial digestion of starches
Alpha-Glucosidase inhibitors (Precose)
65
They increase peripheral insulin sensitivity and reduces insulin resistance, stimulates insulin production, slows gastric emptying. Used as an appetite suppressant for weight loss.
Incretin Mimetic (Byetta)
66
Hemoglobin A1c gives an indication of glucose control over the past?
60 to 90 days (Usually 3 months, but never less than 2 months)
67
Rheumatoid arthritis is often associated with
Systemic symptoms
68
Principle of therapy in rheumatoid arthritis include
Early treatment with disease-modifying therapy to minimize joint damage
69
The most common "METABOLIC" bone disease in the U.S. is
Osteoporosis
70
They decrease glucose production in the liver, decrease intestinal glucose absorption & they are insulin sensitizers (increase insulin action)
Biguanides [METFORMIN]....1st Line Recommended therapy for diagnosis of Type II Diabetes
71
Post-traumatic Stress Disorder is marked by which triad of findings?
Intrusive thoughts, nightmares, flashbacks
72
The diagnostic Xray for Osteoarthritis will show what?
Joint space narrowings
73
In diabetics, at what BP should pharmacological treatment begin
140/80
74
What is the preferred pharmacological therapy for patients with confirmed hypertension and DIABETES?
* Ace-Inhibitors (Kidney protection)
* Angiotensin Receptors Blockers (ARBs)
* Beta-Blocker (Kidney protection)
75
For diabetics, what are the targets goal levels of a lipid profile
* LDL 40-45 (Men) > 50-55 (Women)
| * Triglyceride
76
How often should a fasting lipid profile be done in person with diabetes
* Annually
| * For patients with levels at or under goal, every 2 years if fine
77
This insulin's onset is 1 to 2 hours, and peaks at 6 to 14 hours
NPH (Humulin N or Novolin N)
78
Diabetics with increased risk for CVD, should be placed on what, as a primary prevention
* Aspirin (ASA) 75mg – 162mg per day
| * For ASA allergy: clopidegrel (Plavix) 75mg
79
When should a Type I diabetic have an eye exam by the ophthalmologist or optometrist
Within 5 years of onset
80
When should a Type II diabetic have an eye exam by the ophthalmologist or optometrist
Shortly after the diagnosis of Type II diabetes
81
In diabetics, when should a foot examination be done
Annually
82
Signs and Symptoms of “Hypothyroidism” include
```
Dry skin
Flat Mood or Affect
Slowed/Retard mentation
Cold Sensitivity
Fatigue
Voice Hoarseness/Changes
Muscle cramps
Constipation
```
83
When should hypothyroidism be treated
TSH above 10mIU/L
When a goiter is present
TSH above 5mIU/L in the present of antibodies
84
Medications that can cause Hypothyroidism
Post-radioactive iodine
Lithium
Amiodarone
85
The overproduction or excess release of thyroid hormone is known as
Hyperthyroidism
86
The most common cause of hyperthyroidism is
Grave’s Disease
87
Medications that can cause Hyperthyroidism include
Amiodarone
| Interferon
88
Hyperthyroidsim signs and symptoms include
```
Tachycardia
Heat sensitivity
Racing thoughts
Loose stools
Insomnia
Smooth Skin
Hyperreflexia
```
89
Treatment of hyperthyroidism includes
Beta-Blockers (propranolol)
Anti-thyroid meds (propylthiouracil/PTU, methimazole/Tapazole)
Radioiodine therapy
Possible Ablation
90
An autoimmune disease that over stimulates the thyroid.
A hyperthyroid state
Hyperfunction of the thyroid
Grave’s Disease
91
Patient with high risk of Grave’s Disease includes
Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)
Pernicious Anemia
Osteoarthritis
92
It is the movement of gastric contents from the stomach to the esophagus or beyond, into the oral cavity or lungs.
The most common disease of Gastroenterology
G.E.R.D
93
Treatment of Giant Cell Arteritis includes
Corticosteroids
| Get to E/R immediately
94
Common Signs and Symptoms of G.E.R.D include
```
Heartburn
Chest Pain
Wheezing
Post-prandial fullness
Hoarseness
Regurgitation
Chronic Cough (especially at night)
Post nasal drip
Bloating & Belching
Dyspepsia
Epigastric Pain
```
95
1st line treatment for G.E.R.D includes
```
Lifestyle modifications which include:
Weight loss
Smoking cessation
↓ caffeine, spicy foods, ETOH, chocolate
Limit NSAID use
H.O.B on 4-6 inch blocks
Do not lie down for 2-4 hours after a meal
```
96
2nd line treatment for G.E.R.D include
Antacids ( for immediate symptoms relief)
H2 receptor blockers (Zantac, Tagamet)
PPI (Prilosec, Protonix = superior at suppressing post prandial acid surges)
97
Considered as an emergency of the abdomen
Appendicitis
98
Signs and Symptoms of Appendicitis
Abrupt onset
RLQ pain that moves toward umbilicus
Fever /Chills
99
* NON-Infectious epididymitis is common in which group of men?
* **Men Who Sit for Long Periods of Time***
* Truck Drivers
* Also men who do "Heavy" lifting and vigorous abdominal workouts.
100
Usually systemic
Joint inflammation, redness, & warmth
Swan deformity of the hand
Rheumatoid Arthritis
101
Treatment for Rheumatoid
Early intervention/prevention is necessary
Corticosteroids
Disease Modifying agents (Humera)
102
A temporal pain
It is unilateral
It is considered an EMERGENCY OF THE EYE
GIANT CELL ARTERITIS
103
1st line treatment for Uncomplicated Chlamydia includes
Azythromycin 1gm p.o or,
| Doxycycline 100mg p.o B.I.D x 7 days
104
1st line treatment for Uncomplicated Genital/Rectal Gonorrhea includes
Dual Therapy: Ceftriaxone 200mg I.M + Azithromycin 1gm p.o or Doxycycline 100mg p.o B.I.D x 7 days
105
1st line treatment for Acute Migraine
N.S.A.I.Ds
106
Prophylactic Migraine medications includes
Beta-Blockers (propranolol, metoprolol, nadolol) & triptylines (Amitriptyline & Nortriptyline
107
The goal of this level of prevention is "Preventing the health problem, and the most cost effective form of healthcare
Primary Prevention
108
The goal of this level of prevention is "Minimizing negative disease induced outcomes
Tertiary Prevention
109
The goal of this level of prevention is "Detecting disease in early, asymptomatic, or preclinical state to minimize its impact
Secondary Prevention
110
This type of immunity is: Resistance developed in response to an antigen (infecting agent or vaccine) and usually characterized by the presence of an antibody produced by the host.
Active Immunity
111
This type of immunity is conferred by an antibody produced in another host, acquired naturally by an infant from mother, or artificially by administration an antibody-containing preparation (antiserum or immune globulin [IgG])
Passive Immunity
112
Major Coronary Heart Disease risk factors include
```
Elevated LDL
Cigarette Smoking
Hypertension
Low HDL
Family History of premature CHD (1st degree relative)
Age (Men > 45 years; Women > 55 years)
```
113
Coronary Heart Disease risk equivalents include
```
Clinical CHD
Diabetes
Symptomatic Carotid Artery Disease
Peripheral Artery Disease
Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm
```
114
Primary cause of hyper/dyslipidemia is
Familial genetic defect
115
Secondary causes of hyper/dyslipidemia include
Excessive intake of saturated fats, trans fat, & cholesterol (Check Lipid Panel)
Diabetes (Check glucose)
Hypothyroidism (Check TSH, T3 & T4)
Chronic Kidney Disease (Check CMP)
Alcohol overuse (Check CMP)
Primary biliary cirrhosis (Check CMP, liver profile)
Meds (Thiazides, Beta-Blockers, HAARTs)
116
Which class of medications is frequently used to improve long-term outcomes in patients with systolic dysfunction?
ACE-Inhibitors
117
When starting a patient on an ACE-I, what is most important to monitor
Potassium Level = ACE-I can impair renal excretion of potassium with normal kidney function, and can increase the risk of hyperkalemia in patients with impaired renal function.
118
The most common form of skin cancer
Basal Cell Carcinoma
119
What treatment is effective in inflammatory and non-inflammatory acne
Topical Retinoids
120
What treatment is effective in moderate to severe acne
Oral Antibiotics
121
Skin lesion which has a solid "elevated" mass up to 1.0cm
Papule
122
What pharmacological treatment is effective in nodulocystic acne
Isotretinoin (Accutane)
123
1st line pharmacological treatment for Group "A" Strept Pharyngitis
PCN 500mg B.I.D or T.I.D x 10 days
124
Pharmacological treatment for Group "A" Strep, with a penicillin allergy
Clarithromycin 250mg B.I.D x 10 days or Erythromycin
125
Pharmacological treatment for uncomplicated UTIs caused by "Gram Positive" bacteria (E.Coli or Staph Saprophyticus)
Nitrofurantoin 50mg to 100mg Q.I.D
126
Pharmacological treatment for uncomplicated community-acquired cystitis is
Bactrim (Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole) 160/800mg B.I.D x 3 days
127
An alternative pharmacological for TMP/SMZ for UTIs is
Fluroquinolones ('floxacin' drugs) ciprofloxacin, ofloxacin, levofloxacin)
128
Most common bacteria in Otitis Externa
Pseudomonas
129
1st line pharmacological treatment for Otitis Externa
Topical "flouroqulinolones". ciprofloxacin with dexamethasone (Ciprodex)
130
1st line pharmacological treatment for Otitis Media
Amoxicillin 80-90mg/kg per day
131
Pharmacological treatment for Otitis Media, with penicillin allergy
Cephalosporin drugs (Cefdinir, Cefuroxime, Cefpodoxime)
132
* They are intended to provide accountability to professional and help protect the public from unethical behavior.
* They are established to regulated and control practice.
Standards of Practice
133
Who certifies nurse practitioner?
Nurse Practitioner certifying body
134
The authority to practice as a nurse practitioner is determined by
State Legislatures
135
The legal right to select (as from a stock) and/or label a medication to be self-administered by a patient/client. Can be done by a Registered Nurse, Nurse Practitioner, Physician Assistant, or M.D
Dispensing
136
A 'cohort study' normally ask the question of____
"What WILL happen?". Cohort studies describes a study that is prospective in nature
137
A 'case control study' normally ask the question of ___
"What happened?". Case Control studies describe a study that is retrospective in nature.
138
Members of a study who have a "specific disease (i.e HTN. D.M, H.I.V)" or "specific condition of interest (i.e disease free, ", or who are receiving a "specific treatment"
Studied Subjects
139
A duty, a breach of duty, and subsequent "injury" due to the breach of duty, is known as
Malpractice
140
* Failing to exercise the care that reasonable person would exercise.
* Injury DOES NOT have to occur
Negligence
141
This occurs when medication intended for a person, ends up in the hands of another person.
Diversion
142
Loss of please or interest in things that have always brought pleasure or interest
Anhedonia
143
Which population has the highest risk for suicide
Elderly Men
144
What is the most common side effect of lithium therapy
Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus
145
What MCV would an alcohol abuser be
Macrocytic (MCV > 100) = Due to the high rate of Vitamin B12 and Folate deficiency
146
In an alcohol (ethanol) abuser, if the ALT and/or AST is not elevated, which lab value would be elevated
GGT (gamma-glutamyl transferase). In patients who abuse ETOH daily, ALT and AST may not be elevated, but the GGT will
147
Symptoms of SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors) include
* Headache
* Nausea
* Insomnia
* Restlessness
* Agitation
148
The usual age of onset of bipolar is ____
Age 15 to 30 years
149
Cephalosporins do NOT covers which organisms (remember LAME)
* Listeria monocytogens
* Atypicals (Mycoplasma, Chlamydia
* MRSA
* Enterococci
150
Erythromycin, Azithromycin, and Clarithromycin are known as ___
Macrolide Antibiotics
151
Macrolide antibiotics are used for _____
* H. Influenza
* Atypical Pneumonia (Mycoplasm)
* Streptococcus (S. Pneumoniae)
152
Levofloxacin, Ciprofloxacin, Ofloxacin, are known as
2nd generation Fluoroquinolones
153
2nd generation fluroroquinolones are used for
* Streptococcus (S. Pneumonaie)
* Atypical Pneumoniae (Mycoplasms)
* Aerobic Gram positive
* Pseudomonas
154
Gentamycin, Neomycin, Streptomycin, Tobramycin are known as ____
Aminoglycosides
155
Acne vulgaris with inflammatory lesions is treated with _____
Topical Antibiotics
156
Aminoglycoside antibiotics are used for _____
Aerobic Gram Negatives
157
Doxycycline, Tetracycline, Monocycline are known as ____
Tetracyclines
158
Tetracycline antibiotics are used for ____
* Rickettsiae
* Mycoplasm
* Spirochettes (Lyme Disease)
159
Cephalexin and Cefalozin are known as _____
1st generation Cephalosporins
160
1st generations Cephalosporins are used for
* Staph Aureus
* Staph Epidermis
* E. Coli
* Klebsiella
161
Streptococcus Pyogenes (Group A) and Streptococcus Agalactiae (Group B) are best treated with ____
Penicillin (PCN V or G)
162
Asthma patients should never run out of what type of inhaler?
Rescue/Short Acting Inhaler (Albuterol)
163
To be considered in "good control" of asthma, rescue inhalers should be used _____
No more than 2 times per week (2 x/weekly or less)
164
Rust colored sputum is mostly associated with what pathogen?
Streptococcus Pneumoniae/Pneumococcal Pneumonia
165
This tests for the presence of a virus in the blood
Surface Antigen (for example HBsAg)
166
This test for the presence of immunity to a virus
Surface Antibody (for example HBsAb)
167
This test for the "Past" or "Present" virus in the blood
Core Antibody (for example HBcAb)
168
The only medications that reduces elevated lipid levels and has proven efficacy in reducing risk of cardiac events, even for primary prevention is:
HMG Co-A reductase Inhibitors (Statins)
169
What should patients with dyslipidemia be screened for?
* Diabetes (check blood glucose)
* Renal Disease (check BUN and Creatinine)
* Hypothyroidism (check TSH)
170
If a patient who is taking statin medication complains of myalgias (muscle and joint pain), which labs should be checked
* CPK
* CK
* CK-Mb
These labs should breakdown of muscle tissue, which statins are known to due
171
The pharmacological mainstay of primary dysmenorrhea is:
* Combined contraceptives (hormone therapy and NSAIDS)
172
* Absence of menstruation for 12 month or more
| * An increase in Follicle Stimulation Hormone
Menopause
173
Medications that reduce bone density are
* Corticosteroids
| * Anticonvulsants
174
A fluctuation or decrease in what hormone causes hot flashes
Estrogen
175
When does low back pain need radiography
* Pain at or greater than 4 weeks, with no relief
| * Numbness or paresthesia is present
176
Hypertension medications for Post - MI patients
* Beta-blockers
* Calcium Channel Blockers
* Spironolactone
177
Where is pain located in medial knee pain, medial meniscus tear, medial collateral ligament tears
Along the joint
178
1st line treatment for Osteoarthritis
Exercise and Weight Loss
179
1st line pharmacological treatment for Osteoarthritis is
Acetaminophen
180
These rules guide practitioners of when to order radiologic studies on ankle and foot injuries
Ottawa Ankle Rules
181
Hip pain from Osteoarthritis is normally located where
Anterior Hip
182
The most prevalent skeletal problem is the U.S is:
Osteoarthritis
183
* They are cyclical headaches that last between 2-2 weeks
| * These headaches last about 30-90 minutes
Cluster headaches
184
* The most widely used screen tool to assess/evaluate cognitive impairment
* It evaluates orientation, short term memory retention/recall, language, attention, calculation, and constructional praxis
Mini Mental Exam
185
How long does Acetylcholinesterase Inhibitors (ACH-I) take to work on dementia patients
6 to 12 months
186
Bell's Palsy affects which cranial nerve
Cranial Nerve VII (Facial)
187
An increase in cough, increase in purulent sputum, increase dyspnea, increase mucus production, Fever, FEV1
Very Severe COPD
188
What is the highest dose of Bactrm per dose
800/160 per dose
189
The most common type of headaches ares
Migraine and Tension-type
190
Carpel Tunnel affects which nerve
* Median nerve within the wrist
| * Affects the thumb, index, middle, and ring finger
191
* It is the loss of sense of smell
| * Cranial nerve I is affected
Anosmia
192
* Herniation of bowel/omentum into the scrotum
| * Can produce inguinal or abdominal tenderness/pain
Inguinal Hernia
193
The American Cancer Society recommends screening the average risk male for prostate cancer when:
* Caucasian men at age 50
| * African American men: start conversing at age 40-45
194
What is the most common cause of infectious epididimytis in men under 35?
Chlamydia Trachomatis
195
Which medication should be avoided in men with BPH
Pseudoephedrine (they increase the urge to urinate, which is a bothersome symptom in BPH)
196
Tumors of the prostate are usually
* Asymmetrical
* Indurated
* Nodular
197
Post-Menopausal bleeding is usually found to be of:
* Uterine Pathology
198
Beta-blockers, which are used for hypertension and migraines, are also known to mask the signs and symptoms of
HYPOGLYCEMIA
199
The pharmacological mainstay for dysmenorrhea is
* Combined contraceptives
| * Hormone therapy and NSAIDs
200
In CHF, cardiomyopathy, or left ventricular hypertrophy from long standing hypertension, the PMI is located where?
5th intercostal space, to the "Left" of the mid-clavicular line
201
Systolic Murmurs include
* Aortic Stenosis
* Mitral Regurgitation
* Pulmonic Stenosis
* Tricuspid Regurgitation
202
Diastolic Murmurs include
* Aortic Regurgitation
* Mitral Stenosis
* Pulmonic Regurgitation
* Tricuspid Stenosis
203
The most common arrhythmia from valvular heart disease
Atrial fibrillation
204
Low dose steroid creams are used for what skin issues:
Atopic Dermatitis
205
Oral or system antibiotics are used for what skin issues:
Cellulitis (subcutaneous infection)
206
High dose steroid preparation or systemic agents are used for what skin issues
Psoriasis
207
Topical antibiotics are used for what skin issues
Impetigo
208
It is a circular or oval shape spot normally found on the trunk (chest, back or abdomen) and is related to the skin condition of Pityriasis Rosea
Herald Patch
209
Rounding/Clubbing of the distal parts of the fingers are associated with "chronic hypoxia" as seen in which disorders
* Cigarette smokers and COPD
* Cirrhosis
* Cystic Fibrosis
* Pulmonary Fibrosis
* Cyanotic Heart Disease
210
Koilonychia is associated with which MCV issue
Microcytic Anemia (long standing iron deficiency anemia)
211
The most appropriate screen for diabetic nephropathy is
Microalbuminuria (tested 2 times 3 to 6 months apart)
212
The earliest glycemic abnormality in Type II diabetes
Post prandial glucose elevation
213
Therapeutic effect of Iprotropium (Atrovent)
Brochodilator (anticholinergic)
214
Hyperthyroidism can cause what cardiac issue
Systolic and/or diastolic hypertension
215
Hypothyroidism adversely affects
* Lipid metabolism
* Hyponatremia
* Hyperprolactemia
* Hyperhomocysteinemia
* Anemia
* Creatine Phosphokina (CPK)
216
Changing of substituting Levothyroxine medication will cause what?
Fluctuation/elevation in TSH
217
Symptom triad for Mononucleosis is
* Fever
* Lymphadenopathy
* Pharyngitis
218
Most common complication of influenza is
Pneumonia (bacterial is the most common)
219
Conduction hearing loss is one in which sound cannot enter the external canal, or middle ear due to:
Blockage from something, either fluid, cerumen, or a foreign body
220
What is the highest dose of Clarythromycin per dose?
250mg/dose
221
* HBsAg (negative)
* Anti-HBc (positive)
* Anti-HBs (positive)
What do these lab results indicate?
Immune to Hepatitis B, due to natural infection
222
* HBsAg (negative)
* Anti-HBc (negative)
* Anti-HBs (positive)
What do these lab results mean?
Immune to Hepatitis B, due to vaccination
223
* HBsAg (positive)
* Anti-HBc (positive)
* IgM Anti-HBc (positive)
* Anti-HBs (negative)
What do these lab results indicate?
Acutely infected with Hepatitis B
224
* HBsAg (positive)
* Anti-HBc (positive)
* IgM Anti-HBc (negative)
* Anti-HBs (negative)
What do these lab results mean?
Chronically infected with Hepatitis B
225
1st line pharmacological treatment for uncomplicated UTI's are
Nitrofuritoin
226
2nd line pharmacological treatment for uncomplicated UTIs are
Fluoroquinolones (Quinolones)
227
Medication that has a sulfa ring and can increase lipoprotein
Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)
228
A spleenectomy increases the risk of _______
Infections (bacterial). Make sure that immunization/vaccines are up to date
229
Passive flexion of the neck, causes flexion of the hip and knee
Brudzinski (meningeal irritation - meningitis)
230
Acne vulgaris with cystic lesions are treated with _____
Isotrentinoin (Accutane)
231
Which medications are used for hypertensive patients with renal impairment
* ACE-Inhibitors
| * Angiotensin Receptor Blockers
232
Treatment for acne vulgaris with closed comedones
* Benzoyl peroxide
233
Flexing the knee and hip cause pain in the back
Kernig (meningeal irritation - meningitis)
234
* It starts "AUTOMATICALLY" at age 65, if the person has paid into it. (automatically deducted from employer)
* Also covers "End-Stage" renal disease at any age.
* Pays for "INPATIENT MEDICALLY NECESSARY" services.
* Medicare Part "A"
235
* Medicare Part "A" covers...
* Inpatient hospitalization (including psych hospitalization)
* Hospice Care
* Home Health Care
* Skilled Nursing Facility (NOT NURSING HOMES OR RETIREMENT HOMES).
236
* Also known as the Medicare prescription drug benefit.
* One type of coverage is called the "Medicare Advantage" (M.A)
* All prescription drug plans have a list of preferred drugs (the formulary).
* Non-formulary may not be covered by this, and patient may have to pay out of pocket
* Medicare Part "D"
237
* Medicare Part "B" covers...
* Outpatient visits (E.R, Urgent Care, and Clinics)
* Diagnostics Labs and Tests (Xray, Echo, EKG, CT, MRI)
* Durable Medical Equipment
* Kidney Dialysis, Organ Transplant
* Primary Care Preventative Services
238
* The Primary Prevention Services covered under Medicare Part "B" include...
* Flu vaccine (1 per year)
* PNA vaccine (1 per lifetime)
* Mammogram screening (1 per year for female > 40)
* Prostate screening (1 per year for male > 50)
* Colonoscopy and Sigmoidoscopy screening (1 per 10 year for adults 50 years and older)
* Routine Pap smear (1 per 2 years, or 1 per year for high risk)
* Physical Exams, HIV Screens, and Smoking Cessation
239
* Menarche starts in which Tanner Stage
* 1 to 2 years after Tanner Stage II (Breast Bud Stage)
| * Menses are very IRREGULAR for 6 months to up to 2 years, once started
240
* Acute viral illness that mainly affects children younger than 10 years of age.
Most common cause is coxsackievirus A16.
* Spread through direct contact with nasal discharge, saliva, blister fluid, or stool.
* Acute fever, severe sore throat, headache and anorexia.
* Multiple small blisters appear on the hands, feet, and diaper area.
* Ulcers appear in mouth, on tonsils, throat, and on tongue.
* Hand Foot Mouth Disease
