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FNP: Systems Review > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Potent CYP450 enzyme inhibitor drugs includes (Remember MACCC)

A
  • Macrolides (erythromycin, clarithromycin)
  • Antifungals (ketoconazole, fluconazole)
  • Cisapride (propulsid - pull off the U.S market)
  • Cimetidine (Tagamet)
  • Citaprolam (Celexa)
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2
Q

Patients with both hypertension and osteoporosis have an extra benefit from ________ because they decrease calcium excretion by the kidney and stimulate osteoclast formation.

A
  • Thiazides
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3
Q

What is an alternative to patients who have a serious sulfa allergy and CANNOT take hydrochlorothiazides?

A
  • Potassium-Sparing diurectics
    • Triamterene/Dyrenium
    • Amiloride/Midamor
    • Spironolactone/Aldactone
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4
Q

What adverse effects do ACE-I and ARBs have

A
  • Angioedema
  • ACE-I associated cough
  • Hyerkalemia
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5
Q

1st line treatment for hypertension in non-black diabetics

A
  • ACE-I or ARBs (renal protectors)
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6
Q

Hypertensive drugs that is also 1st line for Raynaud’s Phenomenon

A
  • Calcium Channel Blockers (Amlodipine, Diltiazem/Cardizem, Nifedipine/Procardia)
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7
Q

Alpha Blockers, Beta Blockers, and Calcium Channel Blockers are contraindicated in:

A
  • AV Block (2nd and 3rd degree block)
  • Bradycardia
  • CHF
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8
Q

Respiratory contraindications of Beta Blockers include:

A
  • Asthma

* COPD

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9
Q

Beta Blockers blunts this response, therefore diabetics need to be warned.

A
  • Hypoglycemic response (May not show signs until at dangerous level)
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10
Q

A good alternative antibiotic for PCN allergy, for gram positive bacteria is:

A
  • Macrolides (Clarithromycin, Azithromycin)
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11
Q

In patient with Mononucleosis and Strep, which medications should they avoid

A
  • Amoxicillin
  • Ampicillin
  • They can take Penicillin, if not allergic, or Macrolides if PCN allergy*
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12
Q

Maximum dose of Clarithromycin is:

A
  • 250mg
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13
Q

If a patient complains of G.I upset with erythromycin (Macrolides), which antibiotic is a good alternative

A
  • Azythromycin (Macrolide) if their is no Macrolide allergy

* G.I upset is not an allergy to Marcolides, it is an adverse effect usually associated with Erythromycin.

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14
Q
  • May cause permanent discoloration of teeth and skeletal defects if taken during the last half of pregnancy
  • Generally used to treat acne starting at age 13
A
  • Tetracyclines
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15
Q

1st line treatment for chlamydia and “Atypical” bacterial infections

A
  • Doxycycline PO B.I.D (Tetracycline)
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16
Q

1st line treatment for Gonococchal infections

A
  • Rocephin (Ceftriaxone) IM
17
Q

If a patient has a true allergy to penicillin (anaphylaxis or angioedema), they are more likely to have a reaction to which drug class

A
  • Cephalosporins
18
Q

Which antibiotic medications are not to be used on children (anyone less than 18 years of age)

A
  • Fluroquinolones
19
Q

Fluoroquinolones have an increased risk of what complication

A
  • Tendon rupture (particularly Achilles Tendon Rupture)
20
Q

Respiratory quinolones include:

A
  • Levofloxacin (Levaquin)

* Moxifloxacin

21
Q

Patient with a UTI and already taking Coumadin, should not be treated with which antibiotic

A
  • Bactrim (TMP-SMX)
22
Q

Drugs that require Eye examinations

A
  • Plaquenil (permanent loss of vision)
  • Digoxin (yellow to green vision, blurred vision)
  • Fluoroquinolones (Retinal detachment)
  • Ethambutal and Linezolid (optic neuropathy)
  • Accutane/Isotrenitoin (cataracts, ↓ night vision)
  • Topamax (acute angle-closure glaucoma)
23
Q

Propulsid (Cisapride) is known to cause which “serious” adverse reactions:

A
  • Cardiac Arrythmias (V-fib, V-tach, Torsades, Prolong QT interval)
  • Check EKG at baseline, and check electrolytes
24
Q

Treatment for Polymyalgia Rheumatica is

A
  • Steroids (dramatic relief in symptoms)
25
Q

Steroids are good in treating which type of disorders

A
  • Autoimmune Disorders
26
Q

ACE-I are known to cause angioedema in which particular race

A

African Americans

27
Q

Foods that have a high level of vitamin K

A
  • Green Vegetables
  • Mayonnaise
  • Canola Oil
  • Soybean Oil
28
Q

Cardio-Selective Beta-Blockers are:

A
  • Beta 1 only blockers (only for heart)
  • Metoprolol/Lopressor
  • Atenolol/Tenormin
29
Q

Non-Cardio Selective Beta-Blockers are:

A
  • Beta 1 and Beta 2 blockers (Lungs and Heart)
  • Propanolol
  • Hismolol
  • Timolol
30
Q

These medications are associated with a high risk of weight gain, metabolic syndrome, and type II diabetes.

A
  • Atypical Antipsychotics, including…
  • Resperidone/Respiral
  • Olanzapine/Zyprexa
  • Quietipine/Seroquel
31
Q

Vancomycin and Clindamycin (Cleocin) are associated with high risk

A
  • Clostridium Difficile (C-Diff)
32
Q

Drug Class used to treat N. Gonorrhea

A
  • 3rd Generation Cephalosporins (Rocephin I.M)
33
Q

1st line treatment for MRSA skin infections (i.e MRSA boils and abscess)

A
  • Bactrim DS B.I.D (5-10 days)

* Clindamycin T.I.D (5-10 days)

34
Q

This class of medication should be avoided in patients with heart failure, severe heart disease, GI bleeding, and severe renal disease

A
  • NSAIDs
35
Q

Avoid mixing ________ and sulfa drugs, because they can increase INR and bleeding rsik

A
  • Warfarin
36
Q

The FDA category of Proscar (Finasteride) is:

A

Category X

37
Q

Medication class that is used for Obsessive Compulsive Disorder:

A

Anti-depressants: (Clomipramine/Anafranil, Fluboxamine/Luvox, Fluoxetine/Prozac, Paroxetine/Paxil and Pexeva, and Sertraline/Zoloft)

FNP: Systems Review (10 decks)

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