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SUM '20 Final Exams Prep > Advanced Principles Exams > Flashcards

Advanced Principles Exams Flashcards

1
Q

Maternal CO increases by?

A

50% (most correct answer 40%)

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2
Q

All of the following increased during pregnancy EXCEPT?

A

SVR

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3
Q

Mother becomes hypotension in supine position, what do you do?

A

Turn patient to right side with towel roll

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4
Q

What increases risk of hypoxia during pregnancy? Pick 2

A

Decreased FRC INCREASED A-a gradient

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5
Q

Which is true during pregnancy? Pick 3

A

Decreased FRC Decreased MAC for GA Decreased PCO2

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6
Q

Which structure identifies the cytotrophoblast? Which structure identifies the syncytiotrophoblast?

A

look at image [ctotrophoblast]

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7
Q

Which structure identifies the umbilical arteries? Which structure identifies the umbilical veins? What structure identities the ductus arteriosus?

A

insert image [fetal circulation]

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8
Q

Which affects drug passage through the placental barrier?

A

Molecular weight, lipid solubility, ionization of drug

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9
Q

Normal FHR is 130-80. True or False

A

False (normal is 110/120-160)

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10
Q

Oxygenated blood is brought through?

A

Umbilical vein

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11
Q

Deoxygenated blood is brought to the placental through?

A

Umbilical arteries

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12
Q

What is best used to prevent DVT during pregnancy?

A

Compression stockings

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13
Q

Which lab is suggested of NTD (ex: Spina Bifida)?

A

INCREASED alpha fetoprotein

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14
Q

Which lab is suggested for Downs Syndrome Trisomy 21?

A

DECREASED alpha fetoprotein

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15
Q

Which is true of first stage labor? Pick 2

A

Level of spinal needed is T10-L1 Visceral pain is caused by uterine contraction

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16
Q

Which is true of second stage labor? Pick 3

A

Pain is through pudendal nerves

Somatic pain is due to stretching of vagina

Level of spinal needed for anesthesia is S2-S4

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17
Q

What describes the birth defect causing the backbone and spinal canal not to properly fuse?

A

myelomeningocele

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18
Q

What is true about diaphragmatic hernia (choose 2)

A

-occurs when the diaphragm, the muscle that separates the chest from the abdomen, fails to close during prenatal development -Is a life threatening illness that prevents lung development

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19
Q

What is true about anesthetic management for fetal surgery?

A

2 patients and Maternal safety is paramount

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20
Q

Absent or minimal variability indicates that there is a compromise to fetal health. True or false?

A

TRUE

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21
Q

Which correlates with fetal head compression?

A

Early Decelerations

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22
Q

41 weeks describes what term?

A

LATE Term

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23
Q

Ultrasonography is recommended for all pregnancies because it? Pick 3

A

Determines gestational age Determines placental position Determines structural abnormalities

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24
Q

Lepold’s Manuever used to elevate a 12 week fetus, the fundal height should be measuring at?

A

Pelvic brim

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25
Q

what is true of Aspirin use during the 3rd trimester? Pick 3

A

Oligohydraminios

Renal injury

Intrauterine constriction of the ductus arteriosus

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26
Q

Which of the following is true regarding pregnancy and anticoagulants?

A

-Pregnant women have 5x the normal risk for venous thromboembolism -LMWH is less likely to cause HIT -Unfractionated heparin is easier to reverse

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27
Q

Which weight significantly increased newborn and maternal morbidity?

A

4500 - 4999

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28
Q

Major physiologic changes during pregnancy alter drug disposition by:

A

-Decrease in intestinal motility -Reduced FRC -Increased minute ventilation increases pulmonary uptake of inhalation anesthetics

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29
Q

Nonstress test is less useful in the very preterm fetus. True or false?

A

True

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30
Q

The most common indication for 2nd trimester amniocentesis is for?

A

Cytogenetic analysis of fetal cells

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31
Q

Most Common Medications Taken During Pregnancy? Choose 3

A

Antiemetics Antibiotics Analgesics

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32
Q

Drugs taken with long term CNS effects? Choose 3

A

Antidepressants Anticonvulsants Antipsychotics

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33
Q

Parasympathetic outflow by means of the vagus nerve increases the FHR, true or false?

A

False - (Parasympathetic outflow decreases FHR)

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34
Q

An example of physiological changes of pregnancy that may alter drug disposition is?

A

Placental transfer

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35
Q

Caffeine is not shown to produce teratogenic effects. True or false?

A

true

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36
Q

Most anesthetic drugs have been shown to be teratogenic? True or false?

A

False

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37
Q

The Contraction Stress Test assesses fetal heart rate response to uterine activity by? (2)

Maternal exercise monitoring

Nipple stimulation

Oxytocin Administration

Using vibratory stimulation

A

Nipple stimulation Oxytocin Administration

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38
Q

Which is true of the second stage of labor? (choose 3)

A

Somatic pain caused by stretching of vagina, perineum, & vulva by descent of fetus • Pain is through the Pudendal nerve • Level of spinal anesthesia is needed for S2-S4

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39
Q

Obesity is defined as a BMI of ____ •

A

>30 kg/m2

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40
Q

Which of the following is true regarding anticoagulants in pregnancy? (Choose 3)

A

• LMWH is preferred • LMWH is less likely to cause HIT • Shorter half-life of UFH means it’s easier to reverse

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41
Q

Which of the following is true regarding anticoagulants in pregnancy? (choose 2)

A

• Warfarin is a vit K antagonist and can cause embryopathy, esp. in 1st trimester • Rivaroxaban and thrombin inhibitor Dabigatran (Pradaxa) cross the placenta and are NOT recommended

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42
Q

Which of the following is true regarding transfer of drugs in breast milk? (choose 4)

A

• Benzos are considered safe • NSAIDs are safe when breastfeeding • Acetaminophen is the standard analgesic • Anesthetic drugs are considered SAFE

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43
Q

Fetal growth restriction is associated with which adverse perinatal outcomes? (choose 3)

A

• Intrauterine demise • Neonatal morbidity and mortality • Cognitive delay in childhood

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44
Q

Fetal risk Factors for high risk pregancy:

A

a. Fetal growth restriction b. Multiparity c. Previous unexplained still birth d. Singledom pregnancy

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45
Q

Example of direct pharmacologic effects would be:

A

Placental transfer

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46
Q

Most common medications taken during pregnancy (choose 3)

A

Antiemetics Analgesics Antibiotics

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47
Q

At least 10% of pregnant women are taking these medications that can cause long term CNS effects (choose 3)

A

Antipsychotics Anticonvulsants Antidepressants

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48
Q

Things that affect absorption and uptake of drugs during pregnancy include all of the following EXCEPT:

A

Oral aborption and bioavailability is majorly affected by pregnancy o Oral absorption and bioavailability is NOT usually affected by pregnancy

  • Intestinal motility decreases
  • Reduced FRC
  • Increased minute ventilation increases pulmonary uptake of inhalational anesthetic agenst
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49
Q

True or false? No anesthetic agents have been found to be teratogenic.

A

True

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50
Q

Which of the following is TRUE? (choose 2)

A

• Acetaminophen is the preferred mild analgesic and antipyretic during pregnancy • NSAIDs have been associated with increased risk for some birth defects

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51
Q

True of False? Heparins do NOT cross the placenta

A

TRUE

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52
Q

Is caffeine teratogenic in fetus?

A

No

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53
Q

Myleomeningocele is

A

A birth defect in which the backbone and spinal canal do not close before birth

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54
Q

Parasympathetic outflow by means of the vagus nerve will cause ____

A

Decreased FHR

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55
Q

True or false? You have two patients when dealing with OB and Mom is first priority.

A

True

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56
Q

Giving birth at 41 weeks is considered ____

A

Late term

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57
Q

Ultrasound is recommended for all pregnancies for its ability to: (choose 3)

A

• Accurately determine gestational age • Determine placental location • Screen for fetal structural abnormalities in the second trimester

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58
Q

At approximately 12 weeks where can the uterus be palpated?

A

Above the pelvic brim

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59
Q

Fetal growth restriction is associated with which adverse perinatal outcomes? (choose 3)

A

• Intrauterine demise • Neonatal morbidity and mortality • Cognitive delay in childhood

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60
Q

Newborn and maternal morbidity increases with fetal birth weight between _____

A

4500-4999 g

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61
Q

True or false? Non-stress test is useful in the very pre-term fetus

A

FALSE

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62
Q

Contraction stress test is done by: (choose 2)

A

• Administration of IV Oxytocin • Nipple stimulation

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63
Q

The most common indication for 2nd trimester amniocentesis is _____

A

Cytogenetic analysis of fetal cells

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64
Q

Fetal conditions that may result in Fetal Growth Restriction? Don’t remember the answer to this one

A

• CP d/t hypoxia • Congenital heart disease • Teratogenic exposure • Structural malformation

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65
Q
  1. All of the following are true of multiple gestation(choose 3): It was choose 3 true statements; i didn’t have an idea where this information came from
A

a. Twin A is more depressed and asphyxiated?

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66
Q
  1. Which of the following is least indicated for treatment of BP 190/110?
A

a. Esmolol

hydralazine, labetalol, and nifedipine are all effective antihypertensive in these patients. refractory htn may necessitate continous infusion of ntg, SNP, and fenoldopam for short term therapy.

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67
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a S&S of magnesium toxicity?
A

a. Hypertension

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68
Q
  1. What conditions are associated with placenta PREVIA:
A

a. Prev C/S; Advanced maternal age; Smoking hx

conditions associated with placenta previa include multiparity, advanced maternal age, smoking hx, male fetus, previous c/s or other uterine surgery, and previous placenta previa.

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69
Q
  1. Complications of PIH/Preclampsia:
A

a. Pulm. edema; CVA; Placenta Abruption

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70
Q
  1. What ECG changes are seen with administration of Ondasetron, Droperidol, and Oxytocin?
A

a. Prolonged QT Interval (Two answer choices, this answer appeared twice)

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71
Q
  1. Afr. Am. patient came in with elevated BP (161/110 and 170s), visual disturbances, RUQ pain, headache (Missing some S&S): What is the likely diagnosis?
A

a. Pre-eclampsia (Question appeared twice; no Seizure )

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72
Q
  1. Most common nerve injured during abdominal hysterectomy?
A

a. Femoral

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73
Q
  1. Two most common postpartum HA?
A

a. Migraine and Tension

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74
Q
  1. Headache that radiates to neck and shoulder without a previous dural puncture
A

a. Musculoskeletal

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75
Q
  1. Patient 23 weeks pregnant comes in with preterm labor. What medication should be given?
A

a. Beta stimulant

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76
Q
  1. S&S of Amniotic Fluid Embolism: (Choose 4)
A

a. Dyspnea, Anxiety, Hypotension, Coagulopathy

77
Q
  1. The most common cause of polyhydramnios is?
A

Esophageal Atresia

78
Q
  1. Health care professionals who prescribe PCA should (choose 3 true statements)
A

a. be able to respond to side effects and adverse events. b. know drug selection criteria, dosing schedules, lockout periods, and infusion devices c. understand when to alter PCA settings and when to give or withhold additional (rescue) doses of medications d. Have pharmacy set up dose (False)

79
Q

Magnesium works by

A

a. Preventing calcium entry into cells (smooth muscle relaxation)

80
Q

Aspiration of large solid particles may cause atelectasis by obstructing large airways. TRUE/FALSE?

A

True

81
Q

Sodium bicarbonate cannot be added to bupivacaine as it results in precipitation when the pH is raised (Think this question asked: What cannot be added to bupivacaine because precipitation may occur?

A

Sodium bicarbonate

82
Q

Preeclampsia BP goal of therapy :

A

a. The goal of therapy is to maintain blood pressure below 140/90 mm Hg

83
Q

. In preeclampsia the sensitivity of ______ increases, which contributes to vasoconstriction and placental insufficiency.

A

a. Angiotensin II (PP slide 142)

84
Q

This headache has accompanying neck and shoulder pain without a history of dural puncture.

A

a. Musculoskeletal headache

85
Q

All of the following are tx of preeclampsia Except?

A

a. Treatment plan includes labetalol and calcium gluconate

86
Q

While MgSO4 is running pt goes into respiratory arrest? What is the next step

A

a. Call for help and secure airway

87
Q

Hallmark for preeclampsia

A

a. Abnormal placental implantation

88
Q

All of the following are true of abrupto placenta except?

A

a. Long umbilical cord

89
Q

All of the following are true of placenta accreta except?

A

a. Painless vaginal bleeding

90
Q

All of the following are complications of PIH except? (I thought this was a choose 3 and macrosomia was the only one not picked - yeah, me too)

A

a. Macrosomia

91
Q

Parturient that is 41 weeks, spontaneous labor wants VBAC all is true except?

A

a. > 40 weeks increases the incidence of uterine rupture (This was a choose three that are correct question. This answer is the one that was not true. Confirmed today at review)

92
Q

All of the following C/I of VBAC Except?

A

a. Low transverse incision post cesarean (C/I are previous classic/T-shaped incision; uterine rupture, medical or OB complication that precludes vaginal delivery, insufficient staff or c/s delivery, two prior uterine scars and no vaginal deliveries. )

93
Q

Question about patient having low BP and also being in respiratory distress? BP is 80/40, placenta previa actively bleeding, prepping patient for c/s. You have an option for spinal, ETT, LMA… what would you choose?

A

a. ETT, and give Etomidate

94
Q

The common peroneal nerve may be injured during vaginal hysterectomy and would present as?

A

a. Foot drop

95
Q

What is the best treatment for prevention of thromboembolism for patients undergoing cesarean section?

A

a. Compression Stockings

96
Q

Fetal ion trapping is caused by ______?

A

a. Fetal acidosis

97
Q

What level of neuraxial blockade is needed for C section?

A

a. T4

98
Q

With chorioamnionitis, a combination of ______ and _____should cover most relevant pathogens and is the recommended primary antibiotic regimen.

A

a. Ampicillin, Gentamycin

99
Q

External cephalic version is likely to be successful if: (choose 3)

A

a. The presenting part has not entered the pelvis b. Fetal back is not positioned posteriorly c. Presentation is either frank breech or transverse

100
Q

Which factors are associated with lower success rate for VBAC? (choose 3)

A

a. Socioeconomic b. Ethnic c. Medical factors

101
Q

The most common source of postpartum infection is the

A

a. Genital tract

102
Q

Which of the following is NOT a fetal complication of gestational diabetes?

A

a. Hyperglycemia

103
Q

Hypoplasia is a very rare congenital anomaly: T/F

A

a. False; it is common

104
Q

When is surfactant administered to preterm infants? (Choose 2)

A

a. Immediately in delivery room or Later as rescue

105
Q

Benzodiazepines: Preservative free is only for IV administration: T/F

A

a. False: for Nasal Adm

106
Q

What is disorder of CSF accumulation that results in ventricular dilation resulting from increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

A

a. Hydrocephalus

107
Q

NPO time for clear infant formula?

A

a. 2 and 6 hours were accepted

108
Q

Vaccination: (Choose 2)

A

a. Inflammatory response & Efficacy of vaccine

109
Q

Extension of the head at the atlantooccipital joint with anterior displacement of the cervical spine (sniffing position) does not improve hypopharyngeal airway patency but does change the position of the tongue.

A

a. False

110
Q

What is not true of MH:

A

a. Dexmetotamadine/Precedex is contraindicated

111
Q

Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia: Choose 2

A

a. Assess resp decompensation and need for intervention b. Subglottic stenosis is a cause for concern (?)

112
Q
  1. Acute epiglottitis (choose 2 or 3?)
A

a. Insp. Stridor is a late sign b. Inhalation induction with sitting position

113
Q

Acute epiglottitis (choose 2 or 3?)

A

a. Insp. Stridor is a late sign b. Inhalation induction with sitting position

114
Q

A pediatric patient seen squatting during exercise is more likely to have

A

a. Tetralogy of Fallot

115
Q

Correct dosage for oral Midazolam/Versed is

A

a. 0.25-0.75mg/kg

116
Q

Correct dosage for IM Ketamine in a pediatric patient

A

a. 2-10 mg/kg

117
Q

Which of the following are false regarding anticholinergics

A

a. Atropine is a better sedative than scopolamine b. Scopolamine blocks the vagus nerve

118
Q

The most common cause of airway obstruction in infants is

A

a. Collapse of the pharyngeal structures

119
Q

Which of the following could be given in the event of laryngospasm (choose 3)

A

a. Succ IM 3-4 mg/kg 4-5mg/kg - that is conflicting but propofol 0.1 (i think that was the dose) was the other option so it had to be succ IM 3-4 the propofol dose is 1mg/kg b. Succ IV 1-2 mg/kg c. Atropine 0.02 mg/kg IV or IM

120
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Fluid Management in a pediatric patient

A

a. IV fluid administration should be prepared before the child arrives in the OR b. All sets should have a manual controller c. > 8 years old may use a set with a macro drip

121
Q

Which of the following is true regarding blood transfusions (choose 2?)

A

a. Blood loss may be replaced with balanced salt solution of 3 ml per 1 ml of blood loss b. Replacement of third spacing is based on severity of the loss

122
Q

Which of the following is true regarding emergence delirium

A

a. Peak incidence is the same in both sexes and common in 1-5 years of age b. Use of Desflurane and Sevoflurane have an increased incidence

123
Q

Factors that have a greater likelihood for perianesthetic anxiety (Choose 3)

A

a. Anxious parents b. Age 1-5 c. Unsatisfactory prior medical experiences

124
Q

Which of the following are true (choose 3):

A

a. Newborns have a proportionally larger head and tongue b. Cricoid cartilage is the narrowest portion in pediatric patients d. Mac is higher in infants age 1-6 months than the new born c. Larynx has a lower position in the neck (this was the incorrect option - it is HIGHER in the neck)

125
Q

Pregnancy tests are NOT required in pediatric/adolescent preop (T/F)

A

a. false

126
Q

Which of the following is true

A

a. MAC steadily increases until 2-3 months of age b. MAC steadily declines with age c. MAC in preterm neonates decreases with decreasing gestational age

127
Q

Protein binding of many drugs is ___ in infants, which results in ____ circulating concentrations of unbound and pharmacologically active drugs

A

a. Decreased; high

128
Q

Extremely low gestational age newborns represent the most vulnerable of patients (T/F)

A

a. True

129
Q

Along with administration of surfactant to the newborn with RDS what is combined with treatment?

A

a. CPAP- surfact is combined with intubation? Once CPAP fails? Both per PPT; With CPAP; and also with Intubation

130
Q

An astute SRNA/CRNA knows that you follow certain guidelines for administration of oxygen during a case for patient with ROP (T/F)

A

a. False

131
Q

The parents are concerned LESS about the surgical procedure than anesthesia (T/F)

A

a. True

132
Q

BPD is likely to develop in preterm infants born during

A

24-26 weeks (the canalicular phase of lung development)

133
Q

A congenital or acquired condition of excessive flaccidity of the laryngeal structures especially the epiglottis and arytenoids

A

a. Laryngomalacia

134
Q

Primary treatments in the patient with ROP: choose 2

A

a. Cryotherapy b. Laser photocoagulation

135
Q

Hypoglycemia is the most common metabolic problem occurring in newborn infants (T/F)

A

a. True

136
Q

Congenital defects of the anterior abdominal wall that permit external herniation of abdominal viscera (choose 2)

A

a. Omphalocele b. Gastroschisis

137
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Hirschsprung’s disease

A

a. Anesthesia maintained with air oxygen, volatile agent and muscle relaxant b. Must be considered full stomach c. Extra care should be taken in positioning

138
Q

Bronchomalacia is seen in infants

A

who have had a prolonged stay in the NICU

139
Q

What is the propofol intubating dose

A

a. 2.5-3.5mg/kg

140
Q

Anxiety in toddlers is related to what factor

A

a. Loss of control

141
Q

Which of the following is the most common esophageal abnormality in newborns?

A

a. Esophageal atresia

142
Q

Which of the following are true regarding cleft lip and palate repair

A

a. Heterogenous group of tissue approximation defects manifesting as cleft lip, cleft lip and palate, and cleft palate b. Cleft lip results from failure of the fusion between the medial nasal and maxillary processes in early gestation c. Cleft palates are associated with a higher incidence of otitis media

143
Q

Which of the following are decreased in pregnancy? (choose 3)

A

• PCO2 • FRC • MAC

144
Q

The most serious consequence of fetal macrosomia (this isn’t the exact question, but the concept..)

A

Shoulder dystocia

145
Q

BPD is likely to develop in preterm infants born during

A

24-26 weeks (the canalicular phase of lung development)

146
Q

What plane of anesthesia must be established before airway instrumentation (for BPD?)?

A

Deep plane

147
Q

Fluids should be administered judiciously to avoid

A

Pulmonary edema

148
Q

ROP is classified into 5 stages of severity. The most severe form?

A

Stage 5; total detachment of the retina

149
Q

Mainstay drug therapy for AOP (apnea of prematurity):

A

Methylxanthines (caffeine, aminophylline)

150
Q

Treatment of neonate with hypoglycemia with symptoms (i think this was a question and infant was not having seizures??)

A

**No seizures: IV bolus of 2ml/kg (200mg/kg) of 10% dextrose Seizures: IV bolus of 4ml/kg of 10% dextrose

151
Q

Or was it maintenance fluid requirements of hypoglycemic neonate intraop?

A

Glucose containing solution of 5% dextrose in 0.2 NS 4ml/Kg/hr or 10% dextrose in water 2-3ml/kg/hr to prevent intraop hypoglycemia?

152
Q

Hypotension without an obvious cause can lead to bradycardia/asytole and should be treated with

A

IV calcium over 5-10mins

153
Q

In newborns with congenital diaphragmatic hernia, venous access should be avoided In the

A

lower extremities (b/c venous return may be impaired as a result of compression of IVC following reduction of hernia)

154
Q

TEF anesthesia management – ETT placement Should be above carina but

A

below the TEF

155
Q

Wasn’t there a question about HCT?

A

TEF/EA blood loss replaced to maintain HCT of 35% or higher

RDS HCT near 40% to optimize systemic O2 delivery

AOP - one of the most significant risk factors is a HCT < 30%

156
Q

Intraoperative oxygenation levels should be comparable to

A

Preop levels?

157
Q

Congenital lobar emphysema – smooth inhalation induction with sevoflurane and oxygen without, if possible any

A

Positive pressure ventilation

158
Q

Congenital Lobar emphysema and congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation - A surgeon should be present at induction in the event that

A

sudden cardiopulmonary decompensation necessitates urgent thoracotomy

159
Q

Cerebral Palsy… I don’t remember question, but seems like these were questions or options in a multi-select??

A

-Spastic CP is the MC -Seizure disorder is common; antieplileptic medications are given even in absence of seizure for off label tx of spasticity and behavioral issues -Administration of NMB should be done in caution, pts generally have prolonged recovery from NMB. Volaties agents do not have to be avoided b/c CP is not associated with MH

160
Q

An important adjunct in managing pain r/t muscle spasm

A

Diazepam

161
Q

Although controversial in children, medical tx for hydrocephalus mainly consists of

A

diuretic tx -Furosemide and acetazolamide decrease CSF production -Ketamine is contraindicated b/c it can precipitate sudden increase in ICP -Succinylcholine can increase CBF and ICP but it is more transient and can be attenuated by premedication w/ defasciculating dose of NMB

162
Q

Spina bifida anesthesia management

A

-Positioning is most critical in the preop care of child with open lesions (meningocele and myelomeningocele); prone or lateral decubitus to avoid sac and nerve injury -Comprehensive preop assessment is needed b/c myelomeningoceles are often associated with other congenital anomalies -Tracheal extubation must take place only after the pt has regained “ spontaneous ventilation

163
Q

Treacher Collins not only difficult to intubate but nearly impossible to

A

mask ventilate

164
Q

One of the most common causes of hoarseness and airway obstruction in children

A

Laryngeal papillomatosis Dysphonia or change in voice quality

165
Q

Safety of the patient dictates

A

Anesthetic technique

166
Q

Dexamethasone may be given to reduce

A

Postintubation croup

167
Q

Most common type of renal cancer in children

A

Wilms’s Tumor or nephroblastoma

168
Q

Most common chromosomal abnormality?

A

Down’s Syndrome/ Trisomy 21

169
Q

CCB are contraindicated in Malignant hyperthermia b/c they can

A

Worsen hyperkalemia

170
Q

Smallest gauge catheter blood can be rapidly infused through?

A

22g

171
Q

Deep tracheal extubation requires

A

an organized plan 1.5 to 2 x MAC?

172
Q

worded as a True or False What is good for one child and family is good for the next

A

False: What is good for one child and family may not be good for the next

173
Q

Select objectives of pre-anesthetic medication??? Or is not?

A

Allay anxiety

Block autonomic (vagal) reflexes

Reduces airway secretions

Produce amnesia

Provide prophylaxis against pulm aspiration

Facilitate induction of anesthesia

Provide analgesia if necessary

174
Q

Factors to consider when selecting premedication plan :

A

Child’s age Parent /child expectations Emotional maturity, anxiety level, History,etc

175
Q

Complete laryngospasm is defined as

A

closure of the false vocal cords and apposition of the laryngeal surface of teh epiglottis and interarytenoids.

176
Q

For young children 1 or older

A
  • 500ml bag of LR w/graduated buretrol is appropriate (infant <1 yr) 250ml bag with buretrol
177
Q

What is the only factor that influences blood flow through the placenta?

A

Maternal BP

178
Q

Hypotension treatment?

A

Left uterine displacement

IV hydration

Ephedrine

179
Q

Regulation of FHR via autonomic nervous system?

A

Baroreceptors respond to increase BP

Chemoreceptors respond to decrease PaO2

180
Q

Risk factors for antepartum stillbirths? CHOOSE 3

A

Congenital malformations

Multiple pregnancies

Prior unexplained IUFD

181
Q

Hallmark PDPH?

A

Postural component

182
Q

“Worst headache of my life”?

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

183
Q

Difficult airway after giving succ. What do you do?

A

Awake pt and ask about fiberoptic (since it is non emergent)

184
Q

Hard to see anatomy when intubating, what is the best thing to do?

A

Optimize pt position

185
Q

Leading cause of maternal death?

A

PERIPARTUM hemorrhage

186
Q

Droperidol, reglan, and oxytocin all cause what?

A

QT prolongation

187
Q

Risk factors in placenta accreta

A

· previous cesarean delivery (short interval from c/s to conception less than 18mos)

· advanced maternal age

· female gender of the fetus

188
Q

What is true about amniotic fluid embolism? CHOOSE 2

A
  1. Rare catastrophic life-threatening event
  2. Complication of pregnancy when there is a disruption of barrier b/w amniotic fluid and maternal circulation

(I think this one was asking when it can occur and options were something like during C/S, anytime after birth, anytime during pregnancy, etc.)

This is what I have in my notes: Amniotic fluid embolism is rare and may occur during labor, vaginal, or operative delivery and it is occasionally associated with placental abruption.

189
Q
A

SUM '20 Final Exams Prep (7 decks)

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