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SUM '20 Final Exams Prep > Regional Exams > Flashcards

Regional Exams Flashcards

1
Q

When using a nerve stimulator, the ____ electrode is placed on the patient and then _____ electrode is placed on the needle.

A

positive, negative

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2
Q

All of the following is true regarding a Pediatric Caudal blocks EXCEPT:

A

1.0ml/kg of 2% lidocaine

(correct dosing: Lidocaine 1.5-2% 15-20ml for LL or perineum block; max dosing 5mg/kg or with epi 7mg/kg; bupivacaine 3mg/kg)

Peds: 0.5-1.0ml/kg of .0125-0.25% bupivacaine (or ropivacaine) with or w/o epi — not lidocaine

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3
Q

WHich of the following blocks has the largest depth in regards to ultrasound

A

Anterior approach to the sciatic nerve (>10.0cm)

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4
Q

Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to neuraxial anesthesia (choose 2)

A

Bleeding diathesis

Increased intracranial pressure

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5
Q

How much LA to give with epidurals per segment

A

1-2 ml

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6
Q

Which of the following would be seen with Lidocaine toxicity level of 20mcg/ml

A

apnea

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7
Q

Which of the following are esters(i):

A

Procaine

Chloroprocaine

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8
Q

Which of the following is a normal Dibucaine number

A

80

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9
Q

Specific Receptor theory: (3)

A
  • LA act by binding to specific receptors on Na channel
  • Activation is direct, no change in cell membrane permeability
  • Specific receptor site for LA in the Na channel which eliminates permeability of Na ions
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10
Q

Which of the following is NOT recommended in the treatment of PDPH:

A

Early ambulation

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11
Q

Which of the following is a safe dose in Spinals

A

20 mcg Fentanyl

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12
Q

What membrane is punctured during caudal blocks

A

sacrococcygeal membrane

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13
Q

Which local anesthetic has the fastest onset and pka around 9.1

A

Chloroprocaine

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14
Q

Which of the following are least sensitive to action of LA?

A

C Fibers

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15
Q

2-3 nodes of Ranvier must be blocked to stop nerve conduction is true for what?

A

Myelinated axons

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16
Q

Relative Refractory period is..

A

Period where a larger than normal stimulus can elicit an action potential

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17
Q

Lateral Rectus is controlled by what cranial nerve?

A

Abducens (IV)

LR6 SO4 R3

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18
Q

Nonionized form of a weak base is the ____ and the ionized form is the _____

A

Base, conjugate acid

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19
Q

When using peripheral nerve stimulation, which is correct?

A

As needle approaches the sheath, continue to decrease the mA to maintain desired muscle response

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20
Q

Which of the following is a landmark in the use of caudal blocks represented by a depression

A

Sacral hiatus

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21
Q

Which of the following will be lost LAST in spinals:

A

Motor

*“ATM”:
ATP - autonomic, temp, pain
TP - touch, pressure
MVP - motor, vibratory, proprioception

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22
Q

Represents highest to lowest blood flows affecting duration of action (not sure if that was the question)

A

Intraarterial/intravenous > tracheal> intercostal> caudal> paracervical > epidural > brachial plexus> sciatic/subarachnoid/femoral> subq

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23
Q

Which of the following is true regarding metabolism

A

Mepivacaine > bupivacaine

[P > L> M > R > B]

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24
Q

Which is true regarding fetal ion trapping
A. The lower the fetal pka the greater the amount of LA
B. The higher the fetal pka the greater the amount of LA form in the fetus
C. The lower the fetal ph the greater the amount of LA form in the fetus
D. The lower the fetal pka the greater the amount of LA form in. the fetus

A

C. The lower the fetal ph the greater the amount of LA form in the fetus

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25
Q

Sodium Ceto has a pKa of _8.5__ and is injected into a patient with a pH of 7.4. Which of the following is true:

more/less than 50% is ionized/unionized..

A

More than 50% unionized (weak acids bind to positive ions, making Sodium Ceto a weak acid)

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26
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the inactivation of the sodium channel with LA:

A

The ionized form is responsible for binding to the receptor in the sodium channel

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27
Q

All of the following are true regarding neuraxial blockade in the setting of anticoagulant therapy EXCEPT?

A

Prophylactic minidose of subcutaneous heparin is a contraindication

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28
Q

Where do local anesthetics work after injection to the intrathecal space?

A

Spinal nerve roots

Spinal cord

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29
Q

What area is the largest space for spinal anesthesia?

A

L5-S1

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30
Q

What is the most influential factor for spinal anesthesia?

A

Dosage of LA

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31
Q

Epidural hydrostatic pressure is…?

A

negative?

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32
Q

Weak bases become more ____ as pH increases

A

Nonionized

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33
Q

Sodium permeability decreases in the downstroke of the AP due to:

A

Inactivation of the Na channel

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34
Q

Most important factor regarding duration of action with LA:

A

Degree of Protein binding

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35
Q

Locate the adductor magnus muscle

A

See Pic

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36
Q

Locate the peroneal nerve

A

See Pic

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37
Q

All of the following are complications of the Supraclavicular approach to the brachial plexus
EXCEPT:

A

Superior laryngeal n. Block

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38
Q

Which of the following does not correspond to it’s surgical indication?

A

Axillary approach - procedures of the upper arm and below the elbow

(Just blocks
procedures up to the elbow)

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39
Q

The interscalene approach requires supplementation of:

A

Ulnar nerve block

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40
Q

All of the following are true regarding the brachial plexus except:

A

8 Trunks

there are 3 trunks

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41
Q

Which of the following nerves provides innervation to cricothyroid?

A

External Laryngeal Nerve (Picture ID)

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42
Q

C5 is the first nerve, on the arm which is the last root of the brachial plexus?

A

T1 (Picture ID)

does anyone remember which picture this was?? let Amanda know. ty!

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43
Q

Major contributor to the phrenic nerve from cervical plexus?

A

C4 70%

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44
Q

Nerves blocked with popliteal?

A

a. Common peroneal

b. Tibial

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45
Q

All true about nerve plexus Except?

A

1 sacral

8 cervical nerves, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, 1 coccygeal = 31 pairs of spinal nerves

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46
Q

Interscalene muscle

A

Needle is inserted transverse towards C6- medially- motor response elicited deltoid-
after aspiration 20-30ml of local anesthetic was injected.

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47
Q

Least likely to be blocked with axillary approach?

A

Musculocutaneous

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48
Q

Bier block local?

A

0.5 % lido

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49
Q

All true of Bier block Except?

A

Wrap in Esmarch after tourniquet application

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50
Q

Most serious complication of retrobulbar

A

Apnea and obtunded

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51
Q

Not true about Lateral Femoral Cutaneous?

A

Sensory and motor innervation

only sensory

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52
Q

All of the following regarding superior laryngeal nerve block are true EXCEPT:

A

If you aspirate air it means you are too shallow and you should advance the needle

(correct- it means you are too DEEP if you aspirate air, not too shallow)

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53
Q

Which of the following is not true:

A

Brachial plexus is formed from posterior divisions of ____

**Cervial, brachial, and lumbar plexus are all formed by the ANTERIOR divisions of corresponding spinal nerves.

Sacral plexus - formed by the roots (posterior roots form ganglia)

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54
Q

Highest incidence of causing a pneumothorax out of all the brachial plexus blocks:

A

Supraclavicular

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55
Q

Nerve missed during supraclavicular/ interscalene?

A

Ulnar

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56
Q

Which of the following nerves is anterior to the axillary artery

A

Median

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57
Q

All of the following are true regarding digital nerve blocks except:

A

LA containing epinephrine

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58
Q

Which of the following is true regarding their relation to the axillary artery

A

Ulnar nerve - posterior to the axillary artery

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59
Q

Time limit for tourniquet use with digital nerve blocks if indicated

A

15 min

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60
Q

Time limit for tourniquet use with digital nerve blocks if indicated

A

15 min

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61
Q

Indicates intraneural injection

A

< 0.2 mA

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62
Q

TAP block landmarks consist of all these EXCEPT:

A

Transverse oblique

“TIE”
Transversus abdominis
Internal oblique
External oblique

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63
Q

most commonly used in conjunction with sciatic (popliteal) block to provide anesthesia/analgesia below the knee?

or
Not part of the sciatic system/plexus OR most medial portion of the femoral n.

A

Saphenous

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64
Q

TAP block least common complication

A

Intra arterial injection

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65
Q

All are correct of musculocutaneous Except?

A

Inject 20 -25 around the nerve

should be 5-10 mL for musculocutaneous block

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66
Q

Which is the cranial nerve supplying the blue portion?

See Pic

A

trigeminal

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67
Q

Cranial n. Supplying yellow portion

A

glossopharyngeal

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68
Q

Cranial n. Supplying pink portion

A

vagus

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69
Q

Specific glossopharyngeal nerves that are of interest. Provides sensation to the mucosa.
(Identify on diagram)

A

pharyngeal nerve

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70
Q

Nerve blocked when aiming posteriorly to the lateral malleolus

A

Sural

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71
Q

Cervical sympathetic ganglion

A

See Pic

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72
Q

SLN

A

See Pic

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73
Q

External Larygeal branch

A

See Pic

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74
Q

*Innominate Artery - different image tho

A

See Pic

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75
Q

Which area is innervated by the last nerve in the brachial plexus?

A

T1 (E) - light pink area

medial cutaneous nerve

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76
Q

C8 innervates which section?

A

B - orange area /Ulnar Nerve

thumb to pinky: 6, 7, 8

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77
Q

Least risk of a pneumothorax?

A

Axillary

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78
Q

Not true with superior laryngeal nerve block?

A

It is a single sided injection → this is a DOUBLE sided injection!

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79
Q

What are 3 complications of an interscalene block?

A

RLN block,

phrenic nerve block, and horners syndrome

80
Q

All of the following should not use lidocaine with epi EXCEPT?

A

femoral

81
Q

Sciatic nerve block can be used in what patients?

A

Outpatient

82
Q

Definition of Radiculopathy

A

Functional abnormality of one or more nerve roots

83
Q

Definition of Hyperpathia

A

Presence of hyperesthesia, allodynia, and hyperalgesia usually associated
with overreaction, and persistence of the sensation after the stimulus

84
Q

Definition of Anesthesia

A

Absence of all sensation

85
Q

Definition of Neuralgia

A

Pain in the distribution of a nerve or a group of nerves

86
Q

Definition of Allodynia

A

Perception of an ordinarily non-noxious stimulus as pain

87
Q

Main complications of mandible nerve block (choose 2)

A

Horner’s syndrome

Subarachnoid injection

88
Q

Alternative Pain pathway (choose 2)

A

-Spino-Mesencephalic Tract: May be important in activating anti-nociceptive,
descending pathways because it has some projections to the peri-aqueductal gray

-The spinothalamic tract, which is classically considered the major pain pathway, lies anterolaterally in the white matter of the spinal cord

89
Q

Central mechanisms of phantom pain include

A

abnormal firing of spinal internuncial neurons and supraspinal involvement secondary to the development of new synaptic connections in the cerebral cortex.

90
Q

Intervertebral disks:

A

bear ⅓ of the weight of spinal column

91
Q

Pain evaluation for 4 yo.:

A

The Wong-Baker FACES pain scale,

designed for children 3 years of age
and older, is useful in patients with whom communication may be difficult.
The patient is asked to point to various facial expressions ranging from a
smiling face (no pain) to an extremely unhappy one that expresses the
worst possible pain.

92
Q

Pain (choose 2)

A

a. First and second pain
b. A fibers are fast onset, well localized
c. Noxious sensations can often be broken down into two components: a fast,
sharp, and well-localized sensation (“first pain”), which is conducted with a
short latency (0.1 s) by Aδ fibers (tested by pinprick); and a slower onset,
duller, and often poorly localized sensation (“second pain”), which is
conducted by C fibers.

93
Q

Alternative pain pathway: (was this a pick two)??

A

pain fibers ascend diffusely, ipsilaterally, and contralaterally

94
Q

Choose 3 about nociceptors: (?) The three types of nociceptors are

A
  1. Mechanonociceptors: pinch and pinprick
  2. Polymodal Mechanoheat: most prevalent
  3. Silent Nociceptor: Presence of inflammation

mechanonociceptors (respond to pinch and pinprick), silent nociceptors (respond
only in the presence of inflammation), and polymodal mechanoheat nociceptors
(respond to excessive pressure, extremes of temperature, and alogens, including
bradykinin, histamine, serotonin, hydrogen, potassium, and some prostaglandins).

95
Q

Thigh pain; 2cm increase in diameter in thigh; What type of pain is this?

A

superficial somatic pain

96
Q

Medial Spinothalamic Tract:

A

Responsible for mediation autonomic and unpleasant emotional

perceptions of pain

97
Q

Innervated by Alpha Delta and C fibers exclusively

A

Tooth pulp

Cornea

98
Q

Afferent fibers from the bladder, prostate, rectum, cervix, and urethra & genitalia are
transmitted into the spinal cord via _____ nerves at the ____ roots

A

Parasympathetic;
S2-S4

“2,3,4 keep the penis off the floor”

99
Q

Inhibitory mediators of pain in the spinal cord

A

GABA

Glycine

100
Q

Primary Hyperalgesia is mediated by

A

Histamine (mast/basal cells, PLTs), serotonin, bradykinin

?Antidromic release of substance P

101
Q

True regarding secondary Hyperalgesia

A

a. Redness around site of injury
b. Local tissue edema
c. Sensitization to noxious stimuli

102
Q

A patient that had an epidural 3 days ago has back pain that is increased with percussion of the spine. has s/s of numbness, etc… Which of the following is the most important next step:

A

plan for an emergent laminectomy/decompression

103
Q

A muscle contraction at which of the following frequencies would you NOT want to inject a LA: (choose 2)

A

0.1 mA

1 mA

104
Q

A patient is experiencing CV collapse after injection of LA. which of the following is appropriate.

A

Lipid emulsion 20% 1.5cc/kg bolus over 1 min

105
Q 
Identify: 
the Basilar Artery
* Posterior cerebral Artery
*posterior communicating artery
*Vetebral artery
*Anterior communicating Artery
A 
INSERT IMAGE
# 11 basilar
# 5 pos. cerebral
# 4 pos. communicating
# 13 vetebral
# 1 ant. communicating
106
Q 
Identify:
Arachnoid Membrane
Subarachnoid Space
Epidural Space
Subarachnoid Septum
A 
INSERT IMAGE
# 3 Arachnoid Membrane
# 10 Subarachnoid Space
#7 Epidural Space
# 6 Subarachnoid Septum
107
Q 
Identify:
Lamina
Spinous process
Transverse Process
Inferior articular process and facet
A 
INSERT IMAGE
#8 Lamina
#1 Spinous process
#7 Transverse Process
#6 Inferior articular process and facet
108
Q

Brachial Plexus Image

A

Know all branches, cords, divisions, trunks, rami

109
Q

Ultrasound image

A

review

110
Q

Identify Cricoid cartilage

A

image

111
Q

Recurrent laryngeal supplies all of the following EXCEPT for?

A

Cricothyroid (remember “SCAR”)

112
Q

Drug Sulfate (Base) has a pKa of 3.5 injected into physiologic ph of 7.4?

A

More than 50% unionized

113
Q

Epidural space is a: choose 2

A
  • Plexus of veins and fatty tissue

- Potential space between dura and ligamentum flavum

114
Q

What nerve fibers are located in the gray rami

A

Postganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers

115
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding proper insertion of spinals :

A

Aspiration of CSF is the safest most indicative sign of correct placement

116
Q

You are inserting an epidural and after inserting the needle 2 cm the patient complains of a sharp pain radiating down one leg. What do you do?

A

Take out and go up a space

117
Q

Which of the following symptoms related to cauda equina syndrome is incorrect:

A

Increased patellar reflex

LMN injury: everything is LOW

118
Q

All of the following increase the risk for a PDPH except:

A

Obese patients with BMI > 30

119
Q

Neurological symptoms associated with an epidural hematoma include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Motor weakness
B. Sphincter dysfunction
C. A severe headache only relieved by lying down
D. Sharp back and leg pain

A

C. A severe headache only relieved by lying down

120
Q

Which of the following local anesthetics has the slowest onset?

A

procaine

121
Q

Which of the following local anesthetics has the shortest duration of action?

A

Procaine

122
Q

During the dissemination in the action potential NA+ permeability decreases due to?
A. Opening of sodium channels
B. Inactivation of sodium channels
C. Opening of potassium channels outward movement of potassium

A

B. Inactivation of sodium channels

123
Q 
Drug x is a weak acid with a pka of 3.4 and ph of 7.4. which of the following is true regarding the drug?
A.    More than 50% ionized
B.    More than 50% unionized
C.     50 % ionized and 50% unionized
D.    Cannot be determined
A

A. More than 50% ionized

124
Q

Amides are metabolized by liver P-450 enzymes in the liver
rate of metabolism depends on the LA agent used:

order of metabolism greatest to least

A

Prilocaine> lidocaine> mepivacaine> ropivacaine> bupivacaine

125
Q

Most appropriate treatment of PDPH (choose 2)

A

Caffeine
NSAIDS
Fluids

Ephedrine ?

126
Q

Which is not a long acting LA?

A

Bupivacaine, Etidocaine, Tetracaine “BET on a LONG shot” are long acting.

127
Q

Level of Total Spinal

A

T4-T5

128
Q

LA with severe cardio toxicity due to unintended intravascular injection:

A

Bupivacaine

129
Q

LA associated with allergic sensitivity/reaction? Why?

A

Esters

PABA metabolite

130
Q

Patient with atypical pseudocholinesterase have

A

Prolong DOA of esters

131
Q

May cause methemoglobinemia:

A

Prilocaine

132
Q

What is responsible for neuraxial hypotension?

A 
overwhelming parasympathetic
Sympathetic blockade (vasodilation → decrease preload → hypotension
133
Q

Maximum dose of Lidocaine with epi:

A

7mg/kg

134
Q

What is responsible for the downstroke of the action potential (repolarization)?

A

Outward K+ movement

135
Q

Most responsible for resting membrane potential:

A

Potassium “leak”/efflux through channels

136
Q

Oil: water coefficient is a measure of

A

Lipid solubility

137
Q

DOA of a LA is determined by 2 properties (this is not exact question but can’t remember it exactly):

A
  • Lipid solubility

- Degree of protein binding – mostly bound to alpha-1 acid glycoprotein

138
Q

*The lung extract significant amounts of LA

A

first pass effect

139
Q

All of the following are landmarks for the Interscalene block EXCEPT:

A

Interscalene Landmarks ARE:

  • Clavicle
  • Clavicular head of SCM m
  • Cricoid Cartilage
  • External jugular
  • Interscalene groove
  • Twitch to deltoid
140
Q

Goal is to inject LA between what muscles during a TAP block:

A

Transversus abdominis and Internal Oblique

20-30ml of LA

141
Q

Has one of the highest complication rates of any peripheral nerve block:

A

Intercostal Block

142
Q

In a Bier block, the proximal cuff is inflated to maintain a cuff pressure at

A

150mmHg above SBP ( usually 250mmHg for upper; 350-400 mmhg for lower)

143
Q

Major risk of popliteal nerve block:

A

Vascular puncture

144
Q

The following are TRUE FOR?

For distal elbow, not shoulder/arm.
Blocks nerves missed by axillary block
Blocks musculocutaneous n.
Elicits Finger response

A

Infraclavicular block:

145
Q

the following are true for:

  • Both sensory and motor (adductors of the hip) ← elicited motor response
  • Damaged in lithotomy position
  • Identify tip of pubic tubercle, 10cm block needle inserted until bone contact, thigh adduction is elicited; neg asp and inject 15-20ml LA.
A

Obturator nerve block

146
Q

Side effects of sciatic nerve block

A

Mild hypotension, residual dysesthesias improving in 1-3days

147
Q

At the level of the cords:

A

infraclavicular

148
Q

At the level of the Trunks/Divisions:

A

Supraclavicular

149
Q
  1. At the level of the Roots:
A

Interscalene

150
Q

Dense block of supraglottic region

A

Superior Laryngeal nerve block

151
Q

Airway mucosa below cords & laryngeal mucosa above the VC and epiglottis

A

Recurrent N. Block

152
Q

INR level for removing epidural catheter

A

< 1.5

153
Q

Ionized form is water soluble, charged form, and conjugate base form.

Ionized form inside the membrane in order to

A

bind with the H-gate

154
Q

Secondary Hyperalgesia is mediated by

A

Substance P (and calcitonin)

155
Q

Appropriate intrathecal dose of medication for outpatient knee arthroscopy without prolonged motor block post op:

A

25mcg fentanyl

156
Q

Main indication for opioid intrathecal drug delivery

A

a. Cancer

b. Do not have 1st pass effect

157
Q

Scenario: Osteophytes; Relieved with rest

A

Spinal stenosis

158
Q

Referred pain from the peritoneum* lungs or diaphragm (Didn’t it specifically say lining?)

A

Referred visceral pain

159
Q

Degenerative disc disease most commonly affects the _______ spine because it is subjected to the greatest motion and because the posterior longitudinal ligament is thinnest at _____.

A

lumbar

L2-L5

160
Q

Identify the cricoid cartilage

A

picture

161
Q

Most common neuropathic pain: (pick 2)

A

Stocking and glove

diabetic neuropathy.

162
Q

Severing of the nerve root

A

Facet syndrome

*Medial branch rhizotomy may provide long-term analgesia for patients with facet joint disease

163
Q

Pain involving muscle and joint (missing some information)

A

Deep somatic

164
Q

HA that is bilateral, tight band like

A

Tension HA

165
Q

HA that is 5 weeks; 2-3 times a week; Wakes the patient up at night due to drilling pain

A

Cluster HA

166
Q

What is true regarding Precedex (dexmedetomidine?)

A

Is it cardioprotective and prevents hypoxia

167
Q

spondylolisthesis:

A

displacement anteriorly of one vertebral body on the next due to disruption of the posterior elements, usually the pars interarticularis

168
Q

sponyloptosis

A

(subluxation of one vertebral body on another results in one body in from of the next

169
Q

Entrapment Syndrome:

A

-Neural compression
Patients complain of pain and numbness distal to the site, but can also experience proximal pain (M&M)
-Sometimes associated with autonomic dysfunction

170
Q

Trigeminal Neuralgia

Called

A

“tic douloureux”

171
Q

Pain fibers originating from the head are carried by the :

A

“1975”

trigeminal (V),
facial (VII),
glossopharyngeal (IX), and
vagal (X) nerves

172
Q

The Brain lacks nociceptors

rs

A

The brain’s meningeal coverings do contain nocicepto

173
Q

Question about tract of lisseur

A

a. Pain fibers may ascend or descent 1-3 spinal cord segments in Lissauer’s tract before synapsing with second-order neurons in gray matter of the ipsilateral dorsal horn

174
Q

secondary hyperalgesia (3):

A
  1. a red flush around the site of injury (flare)
  2. local tissue edema
  3. sensitization of noxious stimuli
175
Q

Systemic Response to acute pain is typically associated with ?

A

a. Acute pain is typically associated with a systemic neuroendocrine stress response that is proportional to pain intensity

176
Q

Something about entrapment syndrome…

Pronator teres muscle:

A

pain located at proximal forearm and palmar surface of the first three digits (pronator syndrome)

177
Q

Diagnosing entrapment syndrome?

A

Diagnosis can be confirmed by electromyography and nerve conduction studies

178
Q

Myofacial pain

A

Trigger points

179
Q

Ankylosis spondylitis.

A

HLA-B27
Young men
Bamboo spine

180
Q

Abrupt discontinuation of baclofen

A

Rhabdo and death

181
Q

Lidocaine used for bier block

A

0.5%

182
Q

Treatment for fibromyalgia.

A

Lyrica.

183
Q

Choose 3 for extrapyramidal side effects of Neuroleptics

A

Akathisia
Tardive dyskinesia
Choreothetoid

184
Q

Choose 3 for fibromyalgia (it may have been an except question..)

A
  1. High pain score
  2. Symptoms present for at least 3 months
  3. Absence of another disorder that would otherwise explain the pain
185
Q

Weak acid 3.5, patient is 7.4

.

A

More than 50% is ionized

186
Q

Which local anesthetic has a slow onset

A

Procaine

187
Q

Repeat question about digital block: what is NOT ture

A

Max dose of >1ml per finger

188
Q

Widespread analgesia is caused by Stimulation of the _____ in the midbrain

A

-Periaqueductal gray area

Stimulation of the periaqueductal gray area in the midbrain produces widespread analgesia in humans

189
Q

Systemic CV effects in response to acute pain:

A

Because of the increase in myocardial oxygen demand, pain can worsen or precipitate myocardial ischemia

190
Q

Systemic Hematological effects in response to acute pain:

A

Stress mediated increases in platelet adhesiveness, reduced fibrinolysis, and hypercoagulability have been reported.

191
Q

contraindicated in the use of SNRIs

A

Suicidal ideation

Other drugs that act on CNS (maoi’s?)

192
Q

Long-term side effects of Neuroleptics (fluphenazine, haloperidol, chlorpromazine, and perphenazine)
include

A

akathisia (extreme restlessness) and tardive dyskinesia (involuntary choreoathetoid movements of the tongue, lip smacking, and truncal instability

193
Q

First order neurons synapse with second order neurons

In the

A

dorsal horn

L I, II, V

194
Q

Third order Neurons:

A

Located in the thalamus and send fibers to somatosensory areas I and II in the postcentral gyrus of the parietal cortex and the superior wall of the sylvian fissure, respectively

195
Q

Moderate to severe acute pain, regardless of site, may adversely affect perioperative

A

morbidity, mortality

SUM '20 Final Exams Prep (7 decks)

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