Aeromed Flashcards
(166 cards)
1
Q
Aviation Medicine Orientation
AAMA is short for:
A
US Army Aeromedical Activity
2
Q
Aviation Medicine Orientation
US Army Aeromedical Activity reviews and recommends ________ for continued flight status of RA, AR, and NG soldiers.
A
Flight physicals
3
Q
Aviation Medicine Orientation
US Army saftey center investigates all ________ and select _______ accidents and writes safety policy for the Army.
A
Class A and B mishabs , *******
4
Q
Aviation Medicine Orientation
USAARL is short for:
A
US Army Aeromedical Research Laboratory
5
Q
Aviation Medicine Orientation
US Army Aeromedical Research Laboratory conducts research in the effects of _______ factors in the aviation enviroment and the development of ___________.
A
Exogenous , Environmental life support
6
Q
Aviation Medicine Orientation
USASAM is short for:
A
Us Army School of Aviation Medicine
7
Q
Aviation Medicine Orientation
Us Army School of Aviation Medicine conducts training for all _______ and ______ crew members.
A
Rated , Non-rated
8
Q
Aviation Medicine Orientation
______ , ______ , ______ , are members of the aviation medicine healthcare program
A
*** , *****
9
Q
Aviation Medicine Orientation
FDME is short for:
A
Flight Duty Med Exam
10
Q
Aviation Medicine Orientation
The two broad categories of FDME are _______ , and ______
A
Initial , Comprehensive
- And the 5y exam.
11
Q
Aviation Medicine Orientation
True/False: The flight surgeon is the final approval authority of the Da Form 4185 (now 2992 - the Upslip).
A
False - The Commander is
12
Q
Aviation Medicine Orientation
A permanent disqualification is one that will likely take longer than _____ days.
A
365 Days
13
Q
Aviation Medicine Orientation
A crew member may request _____ extension each annual period.
And for how long?
A
One
One month
14
Q
Aviation Medicine Orientation
True/False: A FDHS is only completed every 5 years?
A
False - Every year
15
Q
Aviation Medicine Orientation
Aviation Resource management surveys are conducted by ______.
A
USASAM
16
Q
Aviation Medicine Orientation
The duties and responsibilities of the FS and APA as part of the healthcare team are ______ , ______ , ______ , ______.
A
** , ** , ** , **
17
Q
Aviation Medicine Orientation
The aeromedical psychologist responsibilities as part of the health care team are ______ , ______ , ______.
A
Clinical support , *** , ***
18
Q
Aviation Medicine Orientation
Rate whom are Rated crewmembers and not:
Flight Surgeon
Aeromedical physician assistant
Psycologist
A
Flight Surgeon - Rated
Aeromedical physician assistant - Non
Psycologist - Non
19
Q
Aviation Medicine Orientation
The “Aviation Medicine Program” primary goal is:
A
Preventive medicine
20
Q
Aviation Medicine Orientation
Initial FDME is valid for? (normally and maximum)
A
12 months normally, 18 Months max
21
Q
Aviation Medicine Orientation
at what interval is the Comprehensive FDME performed?
A
Every 5 years (between 20-49 years old)
After that every year
22
Q
Aviation Medicine Orientation
Who will be in Class 1 FDME?
A
Pilot students
23
Q
Aviation Medicine Orientation
Who will be in Class 2 FDME?
A
Trained aviators, flight surgeons, DAC pilots and APAs/AMNPs
24
Q
Aviation Medicine Orientation
Who will be in Class 3 FDME?
A
Non-rated crew members
25
*Aviation Medicine Orientation*
Who will be in Class 4 FDME?
Air Traffic Controllers
26
*Aviation Medicine Orientation*
Who is required to maintain a DD form 2992?
All military and civilian personnel on flight status.
Aviators in a non-operational position:
- Desk job
- Simulator flying positions
27
*Aviation Medicine Orientation*
Define Temporary Disqualification:
Aeromedical condition likely to result in requalification within 365 days.
28
*Aviation Medicine Orientation*
Permanent Disqualification
Aeromedical condition NOT likely to result in requalification within 365 days.
29
*Aviation Medicine Orientation*
Grounding time for:
```
Anesthesia (general)
Anesthesia (Local)
Alcohol
Immunization
Blood and plasma donations
```
Altitude chamber run of 25,000 ft or higher
SCUBA diving
Simulator sickness
Centrifuge runs
```
Anesthesia (general) - 48 hr
Anesthesia (Local) - 12 hr
Alcohol - 12 hr or no symptoms
Immunization - 12 hr
Blood and plasma donations - 72/24 hr
```
Altitude chamber run of 25,000 ft or higher - 24 hr
SCUBA diving - 24 hr
Simulator sickness - 12 hr
Centrifuge runs - 6 hr
30
*Aviation Medicine Orientation*
Medicine Class 1 covers what type of medicine?
Over-The-Counter (OTC) medications
Occasional and infrequent use
31
*Aviation Medicine Orientation*
Medicine Class 2A covers what type of medicine?
Require a prescription
Short-term use
Under supervision of a FS/APA
32
*Aviation Medicine Orientation*
Medicine Class 2B covers what type of medicine?
Require prescription
Short-term or chronic use
Under supervision of a FS/APA
Medical condition may require a waiver
Must be noted on FDME
First time use ground for 24 hours
33
*Aviation Medicine Orientation*
Medicine Class 3 covers what type of medicine?
Require prescription
Requires a waiver for underlying medical condition
34
*Aviation Medicine Orientation*
Medicine Class 4 covers what type of medicine?
Grounds the aircrew member
Not-waiverable
35
*Gravitational Forces*
The measure of the magnitude of an accelerative force with respect to gravity at the earths surface is _____.
9.81 m/s^2 or 32.2 ft/s^2 or 1G
36
*Gravitational Forces*
______ is a reduction in the velocity of a moving body with respect to time.
Deceleration
37
*Gravitational Forces*
______ is the resistance to a change in state of rest or motion.
Inertial Force
38
*Gravitational Forces*
The ______ identifies the direction in which the body receives accelerative forces.
Triaxial reference system
39
*Gravitational Forces*
The greater the ______ the more servere the effects of accelerative forces.
intensity
40
*Gravitational Forces*
The longer the force is applied, the more the severe the effect is the definition of ______.
Duration
41
*Gravitational Forces*
Lateral accelerations in the _____ axis are the most lethal to aircraft and crewmen.
G_y
42
*Gravitational Forces*
The physiological effects of high magnitude accelerations are _____ , _____ , _____ , _____ and _____.
Minor discomfort , Minor Injury , incapacitation , irreversible injury , lethal
43
*Gravitational Forces*
Aircrew members experience mild transverse accelerations during _____ , _____
Ldg , T/O
44
*Gravitational Forces*
The aircraft design features that enhance crash survivability are _____ , _____ , _____ , _____ and _____.
Container , Restraint , Environment , Energy absorption , Post crash factors
45
*Gravitational Forces*
The primary source of high magnitude accelerations and decelerations are ______.
A/C crashes
46
*Gravitational Forces*
The up/down axis is called:
Gz
20G / -15G
47
*Gravitational Forces*
The forward/backward axis is called:
Gx
80G / -40G
48
*Gravitational Forces*
The left/right axis is called:
Gy
9G / -9G
49
*Gravitational Forces*
Define Low Magnitude Accelerations:
G’s that range from 1 – 10 G’s and lasting for several seconds.
50
*Gravitational Forces*
Redout occurs between:
Negative 2.5-3 G
51
*Gravitational Forces*
Grayout occurs between:
Positive 2.5-4.0 G
52
*Gravitational Forces*
Blackout occurs between:
Positive 4.0-4.5 G
53
*Gravitational Forces*
G-LOC occurs after:
Positive 4.5 G
54
*Gravitational Forces*
Define High Magnitude Accelerations:
G-forces exceeding 10 G’s and lasting less than a second.
55
*Spatial Disorientation*
The sensory inputs the provide orientation and equilibrium are the _____ , _____ , and _____ systems.
Visual , Vestibular , Proprioreceptive
56
*Spatial Disorientation*
A false perception of reality caused by the conflict of orientation information from one or more mechanisms of the equilibrium is a ______.
Sensory illusion
57
*Spatial Disorientation*
The _____ system is the most important/dominant sense providing orientation.
Visual
58
*Spatial Disorientation*
_____ or _____ vision allows us to perceive images clearly.
Focal , Central
59
*Spatial Disorientation*
_____ is the falsely perceived self-motion in relation to the motion of another object.
Relative motion
60
*Spatial Disorientation*
_____ is the most important function of the vestibular system
Visual tracking
61
*Spatial Disorientation*
_____ illusions are produced when the body is subjected to gravito-inertial forces
********
62
*Spatial Disorientation*
True/False: Type 3 (Incapacitating) spatial disorientation is the most dangerous type of spatial disorientation?
False - Type 1 (Unrecognized) is
63
*Spatial Disorientation*
The most important measure to reduce the possibility of spatial disorientation is ______.
Training
64
*Spatial Disorientation*
The _____ Is the most common form of spatial disorientation.
Leans
65
*Spatial Disorientation*
The semicircular canals will not detect the roll if the rate is less than _____.
2*
66
*Spatial Disorientation*
Define spatial disorientation:
The inability to determine one’s position, attitude and motion relative the earth or significant objects.
67
*Spatial Disorientation*
Define vertigo:
The sensation that everything is spinning around the person and is the opposite of dizziness which is the sensation that one is spinning in a stationary place - used to explain most types of spatial disorientation.
68
*Spatial Disorientation*
Define sensory illusion:
False perception of reality caused by the conflict of orientation information from one or more mechanisms of equilibrium.
69
*Spatial Disorientation*
Fire Fire Fire CRASH CSAR is short for:
Fascination / Fixation
False horizons
Flicker vertigo
Confusion with ground lights
Relative motion
Altered planes of reference
Structural illusions
Height depth perception illusion
Crater illusion
Size-distance illusion
Autokinesis
Reversible perspective
70
*Spatial Disorientation*
Fire Fire Fire CRASH CSAR is short for:
Fascination / Fixation
False horizons
Flicker vertigo
Confusion with ground lights
Relative motion
Altered planes of reference
Structural illusions
Height depth perception illusion
Crater illusion
Size-distance illusion
Autokinesis
Reversible perspective
71
*Spatial Disorientation*
What is the purpose of the Otolith organs?
Linear acceleration and deceleration
72
*Spatial Disorientation*
Describe "the leans"
Pilot banking with less than 2*/sec and not realising
73
*Spatial Disorientation*
Derscribe "Graveyard Spin"
A/C goes into spin without visual references, recovers, starts spin in the other direction.
74
*Spatial Disorientation*
Derscribe "Coriolis illusion"
Pilot enters a turn
stimulating one
semicircular canal
```
Pilot makes a head
movement in a
different geometrical
plane stimulating a
second and/or third
semicircular canal
```
75
*Spatial Disorientation*
The 3 types of Somatogravic Illusions are:
Oculoagravic:
- Rapid downward motion of aircraft
Eyes shift upward
Elevator:
- Occurs during sudden upward acceleration
Eyes gaze downward
Oculogravic:
while acceleration and deceleration
76
*Visual System*
The _____ is the transparent protective tissue located over the front of the eye.
Cornea
77
*Visual System*
The _____ is the opening in the center of the iris. It allows light to enter the eye.
Pupil
78
*Visual System*
The _____ is a transparent, biconvex membrane the directs light rays entering the pupil upon the retina.
Crystalline lens
79
*Visual System*
The day blind spot covers _____ to _____ degrees while the night blind spot covers an area of _____ to _____ degrees.
5.5 , 7.5
5 , 10
80
*Visual System*
_____ compensates for the night blindspot.
The other eye
81
*Visual System*
An unequal curvature of the corona resulting in the inability of the eye to focus on multiple objects simultaneously in the horizontal axis and vertigal planes are ______.
Astigmatism.
82
*Visual System*
Astigmatism occurs with the aging process and results in the hardening of the lens _____.
*****
83
*Visual System*
The three types of vision are _____ , _____ , _____.
Photopic (daylight)
Mesiphic (dusk/dawn)
Scotopic (night)
84
*Visual System*
Eating a balanced nutritious diet vil provide sufficient amounts of vitamin A which is required for the production of _____.
Rhodopsin
85
*Visual System*
The apparent relative motion of stationary objects as viewed by a moving observer is _____.
Motion parallax
86
*Visual System*
Average time to dark adapt is _____ - _____ minutes for a well rested aviator.
30 , 45
87
*Visual System*
Describe what Cone cells are:
Used in periods of bright light
Identifies colors
Sharp visual acuity and color sense
7 million in fovea and parafoveal regions
1:1 ratio of cone cells to neuron cells
Produces Iodopsin
88
*Visual System*
Describe what Rod cells are:
Used in periods of low ambient light and darkness
Identifies outline of shapes and silhouettes
Poor color sense and visual acuity
120 million rod cells
10:1 to 10,000:1ratio of rod cells to neuron cells
Produces Rhodopsin (Visual Purple)
89
*Visual System*
The three types of Visual Deficiencies are:
Myopia: Nearsightedness
Hyperopia: Farsightedness
Presbyopia: (aging) Hardening of lens, loss of elasticity
90
*Visual System*
Which Refractive Surgeries are allowable (in US - not DK)
PRK – Photorefractive Keratectomy
LASIK – Laser in Situ Keratomileusis
LASEK – Laser Subepithelial Keratomileusis
91
*Visual System*
Self-imposed Stresses covers: (DEATH)
Drugs
Exhaustion
Alcohol
Tobacco
Hypoglycemia
92
*Aviation Toxicology*
_____ is anything capable of producing an adverse health effect on a worker.
Occupational hazard
93
*Aviation Toxicology*
_____ is a long term exposure to an agent or series of repeated exposures to an agent that lead to adverse health changes.
Chronic exposure
94
*Aviation Toxicology*
_____ is exposure of an agent over a short period of time that can cause adverse health changes.
Acute Exposure
95
*Aviation Toxicology*
There are 3 principle ways a toxin can enter the body they are _____ , _____ and _____
Inhalation , Ingestion , Absorption
96
*Aviation Toxicology*
How long a toxin is kept in the body is _____.
Retention
97
*Aviation Toxicology*
_____ is how quickly the body rids itself of the toxin.
Excretion
98
*Aviation Toxicology*
The three environmental principals of toxicity are _____ , _____ and _____.
Atmospheric , Temperature , Humidity
99
*Aviation Toxicology*
Three physiological principles the determine a response to a toxin are _____ , _____ and _____.
Genetics , Metabolism , Bodyfat
100
*Aviation Toxicology*
_____ is an odorless, tasteless and colorless vapor produced by the incomplete combustion of any fuel.
CO
101
*Aviation Toxicology*
True/False: Plastics release NO harmfull chemicals when burned.
False - they do
102
*Aviation Toxicology*
True/False: The primary hazard with fibers is absorption.
False - Inhalation is
103
*Aviation Toxicology*
The effects of a toxin on the body depend on the _____, and the _____ of the exposure.
Dose , Duration
104
*Aviation Toxicology*
TLV is short for:
Threshold Limit Values
Concentrations of a chemical that will produce no effects to individuals who are exposed for 8 hours a day
105
*Aviation Toxicology*
TLV-STEL is short for:
Short Term Exposure Limits
Concentration of chemicals that are allowed for exposure times of 15 minutes during the work day
106
*Aviation Toxicology*
TLV-C is short for:
Ceiling Concentration
Concentration of a chemical that must never be exceeded during any part of the workday
107
*Aviation Toxicology*
6 toxic substances in aviation are:
Aviation fuels and fuel combustion products
Solvents and degreasers
Lubricants
Hydraulic fluids
Fire extinguishers
Composites and plastics
108
*Stress and fatigue*
True/False: Stress involves a physical or body response?
True
109
*Stress and fatigue*
The to physical changes of stress that we control are _____ and _____
Breathing , Muscle tension
110
*Stress and fatigue*
The belief that if you dont have it all, you have nothing is _____.
All or nothing thinking
111
*Stress and fatigue*
Improper use of _____ can have effects that threaten safety
Drugs
112
*Stress and fatigue*
The cognitive abilities crew members rely on to successfully perform their mission are _____ , _____ , _____ , _____ and _____.
Psychomotor abilities , Memory , Judgement , Priority of tasks , Memories
113
*Stress and fatigue*
The four stress coping methods are _____ , _____ , _____ , _____.
Minimizing stressores , Learn to relax , Change thinking , Ventilating stress
114
*Stress and fatigue*
It can take _____ , _____ minutes to fully recover from sleep inertia and gain a full level of alertness.
20 , 30
115
*Stress and fatigue*
True/False: Crew members may be in therapy or counseling and maintain flight status as long their symptoms are not a flight safety issue.
True
116
*Stress and fatigue*
True/False: Alcohol should be used as a sleep aid.
False
117
*Stress and fatigue*
The nonspecific response of the body to any demand placed on it is the definition of _____.
Stress
118
*Stress and fatigue*
Factors that may decrease one's vulnerability to combat stress are _____ , _____ , _____ and _____.
Confidence , Competence , Cohesion , Control
119
*Stress and fatigue*
The _____ cycle causes you to be at your peak level of alertness between the hours of _____ and _____.
Circadian , 0800 , 1200
120
*Stress and fatigue*
Define stress
“The nonspecific response of the body to any
| demand placed upon it”
121
*Stress and fatigue*
What are the 9 physical responses in relation to stress?
Increased heart rate
Shortness of breath
Muscle tension
Sleep problems
```
Increased blood pressure
Gastrointestinal distress
Trembling
Increase in adrenaline
Sweaty palms
```
122
*Stress and fatigue*
The 6 behavioral signs of stress?
```
Late to work
Poor performance
Explosiveness
Alcohol and/or other drug abuse
Social isolation
Suicide
```
123
*Stress and fatigue*
The 8 emotionel signs of stress?
```
Irritability
Hostility
Anger
Anxiety
Sadness
Loss of self-esteem
Feelings of helplessness
Suppressed emotions
```
124
*Stress and fatigue*
The 5 mental signs of stress?
```
Obsession or excessive worrying
Decreased attention
Impaired memory
poor judgment
Poor psychomotor coordination
```
125
*Stress and fatigue*
What are the 4 types of stressors?
Psychosocial
- External things that happen and impact you emotionally
Cognitive (Mental)
- Internal ways you think and approach situations
Physiological
- Your physical state and health
Environmental
126
*Stress and fatigue*
Define combat stress:
All the physiological and emotional stresses encountered as a direct result of the dangers and mission demands of combat
127
*Stress and fatigue*
The 6 long term stress reactions:
Flashbacks
Sleep problems
Social isolation
Hyper-alertness
Alcohol or drug abuse
Problems trusting others
128
*Stress and fatigue*
Define fatigue:
The state of feeling tired, weary, or sleepy that results from periods of anxiety, exposure to harsh environment, or loss of sleep.
129
*Stress and fatigue*
7 Signs and symptoms of fatigue:
Attention / concentration difficult
Feel or appear dull and sluggish
Accuracy, timing, and ability to reason logically degrade
General attempt to conserve energy
Feel or appear careless, uncoordinated, confused, or irritable
Social interactions decline
Involuntary lapses into sleep begin to occur
130
*Stress and fatigue*
List the 5 stages of sleep
Stage 1 = Transition between awake and sleep
Stage 2 = light sleep stage
Stages 3 and 4 = deep sleep, also called “slow wave”
Stage 5 = Rapid Eye Movement (REM)
131
*Stress and fatigue*
What is sleep inertia?
Short-term grogginess right after awaking
132
*Stress and fatigue*
At what intervals does the circadian cycle increase and decrease?
```
24 hour cycle
0800 - 1200 hrs. Peak
1300 - 1500 hrs. Decrease
1500 - 2100 hrs. Increase
2100 + decrease to sleep
```
133
*Stress and fatigue*
3 types of sleep disruption:
Circadian disruptions
Intentional sleep restriction
Personal habits (poor sleep habits)
134
*Stress and fatigue*
What are optimal napping times?
2-4 hr
135
*Noise and Vibrations*
_____ is the mechanical radiant energy that is transmitted by _____ waves in a material medium and is the objective cause of hearing.
Sound , Longitudinal pressure
136
*Noise and Vibrations*
True/False: Sound can be transmitted through any elastic substance such as air, water, or bone.
True
137
*Noise and Vibrations*
_____ occurs when noise masks and obscures words.
Speech interference
138
*Noise and Vibrations*
Hearing loss can occur due to exposure to noise that is above safe limits and damage may be either _____ or _____.
Temporary , Permanent
139
*Noise and Vibrations*
Impulse noise is usually _____; therefore acoustic trauma is usually _____
Predictable , Preventable
140
*Noise and Vibrations*
_____ is characterized as how long you are exposed to noise.
Duration
141
*Noise and Vibrations*
True/False: In most cases conductive hearing loss can be treated medically.
True
142
*Noise and Vibrations*
_____ are the most practical end economical method available for noise protection,
Personal protection devises
143
*Noise and Vibrations*
True/False: If the HGU-56P and IHADSS are worn properly the noise attenuation brings the noise exposure within the confines of risk criteria for every aircraft.
False
144
*Noise and Vibrations*
_____ is tha maximum displacement of an object from its point of rest.
Magnitude
145
*Noise and Vibrations*
True/False: Environmental factors such as turbulence may also intensify vibrations.
True
146
*Noise and Vibrations*
Aircrew members may suffer from _____ at an earlier age than normal.
Back pain
147
*Noise and Vibrations*
Define sound:
Sound is mechanical radiant energy that is transmitted by longitudinal pressure waves in a material medium (such as air) and is the objective cause of hearing.
148
*Noise and Vibrations*
Define Noise:
Sound that is:
Loud (perception of the listener)
Unpleasant
Unwanted
149
*Noise and Vibrations*
3 Measurable characteristics of noise:
Frequency
Intensity
Duration
150
*Noise and Vibrations*
What gives sound quality and pitch?
Frequency
151
*Noise and Vibrations*
The human hearing ranged from _____ to _____ Hz
20 , 20,000
152
*Noise and Vibrations*
Define intensity:
A measure that correlates sound pressure to loudness
153
*Noise and Vibrations*
The damage-risk noise limit is?
85 db
154
*Noise and Vibrations*
what is steady noise?
Continuous noise at high intensity
155
*Noise and Vibrations*
What is impulsive noise
Explosive noise, High intensity and low duration
156
*Noise and Vibrations*
What are the 3 types of hearing loss?
Conductive Hearing Loss
Sensorineural Hearing Loss
Mixed
157
*Noise and Vibrations*
What are the 2 types of Noise Induced Hearing Loss?
Temporary Threshold Shift (TTS)
Permanent Threshold Shift (PTS)
158
*Noise and Vibrations*
3 types of noise in the army a/c
Overall noise levels are equal to or exceed 100 dB’s
Most intense noise below 300 Hz
Low frequency noise will produce high frequency hearing loss
159
*Noise and Vibrations*
Types of noise protection - a/c and personel.
Aircraft design, silent operation or noise suppression
Isolate, distance or enclose source (insulate)
Personal protective equipment (most economical and practical)
Attenuation: noise reduction amount
Speech intelligibility increased due to noise reduction
Maximum attenuation is ~50 dB; due to bone conduction
160
*Noise and Vibrations*
Define Vibration:
The motion of an object relative to a reference position (object at rest) involving series of oscillations resulting in the displacement and acceleration of the object
161
*Noise and Vibrations*
Vibration terminology (5 things):
```
Frequency
Amplitude
Duration
Natural Body Resonance
Damping
```
162
*Noise and Vibrations*
Damping is:
Loss of mechanical energy in a vibrating system
163
*Noise and Vibrations*
3 different sources of vibration:
Increased air speed
Internal and external loading
Environmental factors (turbulence)
164
*Noise and Vibrations*
Short term physical effects of vibration:
```
Fatigue
Respiratory effects
Circulatory effects
Motion sickness
Disorientation
Pain
```
165
*Noise and Vibrations*
Long term Physical effects of vibration:
Raynaud’s Disease
Backache/back pain
Kidney and lung damage
166
*Noise and Vibrations*
How can you reduce the effects of vibration in the a/c?
Good posture during flight promotes good circulation
Restraint systems provide protection against high magnitude vibration during extreme turbulence
Maintain your aircraft (rotor blade tracking/balancing)
