AFMAN32-3001 Flashcards
(437 cards)
1
Q
What is the mission of EOD?
A
To mitigate hazards to personnel and property posed by weapons and explosive materials in all physical domains.
EOD stands for Explosive Ordnance Disposal.
2
Q
What emergency response capability do Air Force EOD members provide?
A
To detect, locate, access, diagnose, render safe, recover and dispose of explosive ordnance.
This capability is essential for Air Force and Joint Commanders.
3
Q
What are Core Mission Capabilities (CMC) in EOD operations?
A
Inherent capabilities that include:
* Operational planning and preparedness
* Threat analysis and intelligence gathering
* Mitigation, rendering safe, disposal and final disposition
* Interagency communication and reporting
These capabilities enable effective EOD operations.
4
Q
What does EOD conduct to enable hazard mitigation?
A
Tactical, operational, and strategic-level pre-mission activities.
These activities are crucial for effective operational planning.
5
Q
What is the purpose of threat analysis and intelligence gathering in EOD?
A
To identify and assess hazards posed by weapons and explosive material, enabling the selection or development of appropriate tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTP).
This analysis is fundamental to EOD problem-solving.
6
Q
What types of explosive hazards is EOD authorized to render safe, dispose of, and mitigate?
A
EOD can handle:
* Military munitions
* Improvised explosive devices
* Nuclear weapons
* Weapons of mass destruction
* CBRN weapons containing explosives
CBRN stands for Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear.
7
Q
What is the role of interagency communication in EOD operations?
A
To communicate with all authorities and agencies required to complete the mitigation of hazards posed by weapons and explosive material.
This includes utilizing tactical and operational reporting methods.
8
Q
What does AFIMSC stand for?
A
Air Force Installation and Mission Support Center
9
Q
What is the primary role of AFIMSC?
A
Providing Installation and Mission Support oversight and capabilities to MAJCOMs and their subordinate organizations and installations
10
Q
What branch of AFIMSC deals with Emergency Services?
A
Emergency Services Branch (AFIMSC/IZPE)
11
Q
Which organizations does AFIMSC/IZPE interface with regarding EOD issues?
A
AF/A4CX and AFCEC/CXD
12
Q
What does AFIMSC/IZPE do to support EOD mission execution?
A
Coordinates across the EOD enterprise, identifies and evaluates shortfalls in assets, training, and associated funding
13
Q
What types of deficiencies does AFIMSC/IZPE consolidate and distribute?
A
EOD enterprise-wide deficiencies and trends
14
Q
What activities does AFIMSC/IZPE manage and monitor in support of the EOD mission?
A
Program Objective Memorandum and budget execution activities
15
Q
Who does AFIMSC/IZPE coordinate with for Air Force EOD manpower programs?
A
AF/A4CX, MAJCOMs, and AFIMSC Detachments
16
Q
What does AFIMSC/IZPE perform oversight of?
A
EOD Installations and Mission Support activities
17
Q
What is the role of AFIMSC/IZPE regarding Air Force and MAJCOM IGs?
A
Acts as functional point of contact for IGs that do not have a retained EOD IG position
18
Q
What does AFIMSC/IZPE manage in accordance with AFI 90-201?
A
Enterprise-wide continual evaluations for Air Force EOD Program
19
Q
What guidance does AFIMSC ensure compliance with regarding non-military EOD support?
A
Guidance for use of non-military EOD support, including Overseas Contingency Operations funds
20
Q
What functional area management does AFIMSC/IZPE perform?
A
Functional area management for AFIMSC Detachments without retained EOD positions
21
Q
What is the role of AFIMSC in relation to EOD forces?
A
Organize, train, and equip EOD forces to support homeland defense, home station mission sustainment, Combatant Commander (COCOM), and contingency requirements.
This is critical for ensuring readiness and operational capability.
22
Q
What support does AFIMSC provide to parent MAJCOMs?
A
Manage and standardize EOD programs across the enterprise.
This ensures consistency and efficiency in EOD operations.
23
Q
Who does AFIMSC collaborate with to develop associate requirements?
A
AFRC and ANG.
This collaboration is essential for effective program management and contingency planning.
24
Q
What are the responsibilities in coordinating with host MAJCOM, AFRC, and ANG?
A
Ensure facilities and resources are adequate to meet mission requirements.
This coordination is crucial for operational success.
25
What assistance does AFIMSC provide to EOD flights during low manpower levels?
Seek and obtain manning assistance.
## Footnote
This support helps maintain operational readiness.
26
How does AFIMSC facilitate communication and coordination?
Provide communication, coordination, and advocacy of AFIMSC enterprise actions to the MAJCOM and installation.
## Footnote
This ensures concerns are addressed through the proper channels.
27
What advice does AFIMSC provide to MAJCOMs without retained EOD staffs?
Advise on EOD operations, support Anti-Terrorism Working Group and Threat Working Group activities, and interface with AFCEC.
## Footnote
This includes operational reporting and damage reporting.
28
What is the role of AFIMSC in crisis situations related to EOD?
Advise MAJCOM Crisis Action Team on matters of EOD significance.
## Footnote
This is vital for informed decision-making during crises.
29
What is the role of the Air Force Civil Engineer Center, Readiness Directorate regarding EOD?
To provide a senior service EOD member as Air Force representative to the DoD EOD Military Technical Acceptance Board.
## Footnote
This is designated as a top priority (T-1).
30
What responsibility does the Air Force Civil Engineer Center have concerning EOD tools and equipment?
Approve Joint Service use of all EOD specific tools, equipment, procedures, and single service EOD specific tools if requested by the single service.
## Footnote
This is designated as a top priority (T-1).
31
What is enforced by the Air Force Civil Engineer Center in relation to weapon systems?
DoD requirements for Air Force weapon system, subsystem, and explosive ordnance development to ensure availability of EOD related design, functioning, and safety data.
## Footnote
This is critical for EOD render safe and disposal procedure development (T-O).
32
What is the time frame for ensuring availability of required hardware for EOD procedures?
30 days before the fielding of new weapon system, subsystem, or explosive ordnance.
## Footnote
This is essential for developing, testing, verifying, and fielding EOD procedures.
33
What type of requests does the Air Force Civil Engineer Center support regarding EOD?
EOD Flight and MAJCOM requests for DoD EOD equipment procurement, sustainment, and disposition information.
## Footnote
This support is provided via the integrated logistics support plan from NSWC IHD.
34
What does the Air Force Civil Engineer Center oversee in relation to DoD EOD material solution development?
Air Force involvement in requirements development, research, development, testing, evaluation, acquisition, deactivation, and retirement.
## Footnote
This is designated as a top priority (T-1).
35
What type of accounts does the Air Force Civil Engineer Center manage?
Air Force 60-series nonnuclear T.O. accounts.
## Footnote
This is designated as a top priority (T-1).
36
What are the primary responsibilities of EOD Flights?
Support Joint and Air Force EOD missions
## Footnote
This includes ensuring personnel and equipment are prepared for operations.
37
What procedures should EOD Flights establish for after normal duty-hours response?
EOD team standby and contact procedures
## Footnote
A roster should be provided to command post and security forces.
38
What is the priority of Emergency Responder duties?
Emergency Responder duties have priority over other assigned duties
## Footnote
They should not be assigned to additional duties that conflict with emergency responsibilities.
39
Who should be notified of changes in planning factors for range clearances?
AFCEC/CXD EOD Munitions User Functional Manager
## Footnote
This is important when changes could affect the annual forecast for operational and training munitions.
40
What type of library should EOD Flights maintain?
A T.O. library of all required nuclear and nonnuclear EOD and equipment publications
## Footnote
This includes developing a familiarization program for new changes and revisions.
41
What must EOD Flights do regarding explosive ordnance destruction?
Destroy according to all local, state, federal, and host nation requirements
## Footnote
This follows the Department of Defense Manual (DoDM 4715.26).
42
What should EOD Flights establish with the State agency responsible for environmental quality?
A Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)
## Footnote
This is to facilitate off-base emergency response actions.
43
What program must EOD Flights establish and maintain?
A Quality Assurance (QA) program
## Footnote
This is mandated in accordance with paragraph 10.4.
44
What types of taskings should EOD Flights support?
Federal and Joint Service EOD taskings
## Footnote
This includes tasks from organizations like USSS, VIPPSA, and DPAA.
45
What is required for each EOD member regarding official travel?
Obtain official passports
## Footnote
This is in accordance with DoDD 3025.13.
46
What is the purpose of developing Team Leader guides in accordance with AFI 10-2501?
To guide emergency management planning using EOD Air Force Tactics, Techniques and Procedures for various operations.
## Footnote
Operations include Aerospace, IED and WMD, Nuclear, Unexploded Ordnance, and Chemical and Biological Ordnance Operations.
47
What types of operations are covered under emergency response operations in EOD?
* Aerospace Operations
* Improvised Explosive Device and Weapons of Mass Destruction Operations
* Nuclear Operations
* Unexploded Explosive Ordnance Operations
* Chemical and Biological Ordnance Operations
## Footnote
All listed operations are marked with (T-1), indicating a high priority.
48
What should emergency notification procedures include when responding off base?
Installation legal and public affairs offices.
## Footnote
This includes routine requests for EOD assistance to civil authorities.
49
What is the purpose of the physical fitness program established for EOD members?
To maintain individual strength, stamina, and aerobic capacity suitable for the Air Force EOD mission.
## Footnote
The program follows AFMAN 36-2905 and includes thermal injury prevention protocols as per AFI 48-151.
50
What level of Tactical Combat Casualty Care training must all EOD members achieve?
TCCC level 2.
## Footnote
This training is essential for providing critical medical support during EOD operations.
51
What is required when preparing flight budgets for EOD?
Identify and submit operational, training, and logistical budget needs in coordination with the unit's resource advisor.
## Footnote
This follows current year AFIMSC Execution Plan Guidance.
52
What responsibility do EOD members have regarding personal protective equipment?
Budget for, issue, and provide storage for personal protective equipment for EOD MAJCOM or AFIMSC detachments.
## Footnote
This requirement applies if the detachments are located at the same installation.
53
What types of Internet Protocol accounts must Regular Air Force flight members maintain?
* Non-classified Internet Protocol Router (NIPR)
* Secret Internet Protocol Router (SIPR)
* EODIMS account
## Footnote
This requirement is marked as (T-3), indicating a lower priority.
54
What does EOR stand for in the context of Explosive Ordnance?
Explosive Ordnance Reconnaissance
55
What is the requirement for providing EOR training?
Provide deployment location specific EOR training to base populace when directed
## Footnote
This requirement is designated as T-3.
56
What regulations must be followed to establish written guidance for explosives safety?
Defense Explosives Safety Regulation (DESR) 6055.09 and AFMAN 91-201, Explosives Safety Standards
57
What should the written guidance address?
Range, proficiency range, munitions destruction, standby, support to civilian agencies, support of test/research and development operations
## Footnote
This guidance is required to be adopted by AFRO associate flights with joint coordination.
58
What is the role of contracted and government civilian personnel in EOD operations?
Limit to only administrative and logistic support functions.
59
What is the protocol regarding non-military contracted and government civilian personnel?
Will not participate as an EOD operational team member on any EOD response or assigned to flight leadership positions.
60
What document outlines the requirements for Reserve EOD Associate Flights?
AFI 90-1001, Total Force Associations
61
What must Associate EOD flights maintain to outline organization and utilization?
A Support Agreement or MOU
62
List the minimum requirements that must be addressed in the Support Agreement or MOU.
* Facilities requirements
* Operations and housekeeping responsibilities
* Equipment and publication requirements
* Training and exercise requirements
* Reimbursable expenses
63
What is required for Air National Guard EOD Military Technicians before activities involving live explosives?
Be on military orders
64
What activities require Air National Guard EOD Military Technicians to be on military orders?
* Training
* Standby
* Emergency response requests
* Transporting hazardous or explosive materials
* VIPPSA
65
What should ANG EOD Flights coordinate with their State Partnership Program office?
Engage in EOD-related opportunities to foster relationships with partner nation EOD forces
## Footnote
This coordination is designated as T-3.
66
What is the timeframe for commanders to receive an EOD mission briefing after arrival?
Within 90 days of arrival
## Footnote
This is a requirement for all commanders with EOD flights assigned.
67
How often must Squadron Commanders view an EOD demolition or emergency response operation?
Every 6 months
## Footnote
This activity is specifically required for Squadron Commanders.
68
What reports must Squadron Commanders review as appropriate?
EOD Quality Assurance reports
## Footnote
This is a responsibility limited to Squadron Commanders.
69
What are the qualifications required for EOD Personnel?
Must meet requirements in the Officer and Enlisted Classification Directory and assigned to a valid EOD position
## Footnote
This is a Tier 1 requirement.
70
Who is eligible for re-training into EOD?
Airmen with 6 years or less time in service and the rank of SSgt and below
## Footnote
EOD operations require experienced technical leadership.
71
What must the local EOD team do for an Air Reserve Component Airman requesting entry into EOD?
Brief the Airman on mission, tools, equipment, physical requirements, and show the EOD recruiting video
## Footnote
This briefing must be documented on a memorandum for record.
72
What must all non-prior service Airmen complete before entering the EOD training pipeline?
Complete the appropriate EOD volunteer letter
## Footnote
This applies to re-trainees and officer candidates as well.
73
What is required of re-trainees and officer candidates before entering EOD training?
Complete an EOD orientation visit with an operational Air Force EOD flight
## Footnote
If one is not available at the station, funding for temporary duty may be provided.
74
How long must the EOD orientation visit last?
A minimum of five and a maximum of 10 operational duty days
## Footnote
This is to complete the EOD Orientation/Retraining Checklist.
75
What should be done with the completed EOD Orientation/Retraining Checklist?
Send it to the supporting Force Support Squadron to initiate a Case Management System case
## Footnote
This forwards the information to HQ AFPC.
76
Does the EOD orientation visit requirement apply to AFR personnel?
No
## Footnote
This note specifies that the requirement does not apply to Air Force Reserve personnel.
77
What document outlines the training requirements for EOD personnel?
3E8X1 Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP), Section G, AF EOD Standard Training Package and Air Force MTP 3E8X1
## Footnote
This document is essential for maintaining proficiency in EOD duties.
78
What is the consequence of being assigned to a non-EOD position for 48 months or longer?
Must re-accomplish the basic EOD course
## Footnote
This rule applies to enlisted EOD personnel.
79
What is the required duration of a break in service that necessitates re-accomplishing the basic EOD course?
36 months or longer
## Footnote
This applies to enlisted EOD personnel.
80
Who has waiver authority for the requirement to re-accomplish the basic EOD course?
EOD CFM, in consultation with the responsible MAJCOM
## Footnote
Waivers are considered on a case-by-case basis.
81
What must be evaluated to ensure an individual is qualified for EOD duties?
Individual's prior service EOD history and AF quality standards
## Footnote
This evaluation ensures compliance with classification criteria.
82
Who has waiver authority for ARC forces regarding EOD recertification?
ARC EOD Functional Managers
## Footnote
They can grant waivers for EOD recertification requirements.
83
What must be done for ARC EOD personnel excused from training for eight months or more?
Recertify on all skill level tasks
## Footnote
An entry must be made in the member's training record stating training reviewed.
84
What may cause Airmen to be removed from EOD duties?
Documented negative quality force indicators or skill deficiencies
## Footnote
This removal raises questions about their reliability and judgment.
85
Is removal from EOD duties considered an adverse personnel action?
False
## Footnote
Removal itself is not a basis for disciplinary action.
86
What type of incidents can lead to permanent disqualification from EOD duties?
Any alcohol-related incident, alcohol abuse, alcohol dependency, misuse of prescription or controlled medications, or use of illegal substances
## Footnote
Such incidents significantly affect reliability and judgment.
87
What is considered negligence or delinquency in performing duties?
Lack of dependability, flexibility, good attitude, or good judgment.
## Footnote
This indicates a failure to meet the expected standards of EOD personnel.
88
What constitutes a serious offense for EOD personnel?
Arrest or conviction for a serious offense; multiple misdemeanor convictions; or more than one Article 15.
## Footnote
This reflects a pattern of conduct contrary to the standards required of EOD personnel.
89
What is required for EOD personnel regarding grade and skill relationship?
Maintain a proper grade and skill relationship.
## Footnote
This is essential for effective performance in EOD roles.
90
What must EOD personnel maintain to conduct full spectrum EOD operations?
Fitness standards within AF regulations.
## Footnote
Fitness must be at a level required for operations within CONUS, OCONUS, and contingency environments.
91
Who should complete disciplinary actions before recommending removal of the EOD badge?
Squadron commanders.
## Footnote
Recommendations must be endorsed by flight leadership and submitted through EOD MAJCOM/AFIMSC Detachment.
92
What outlines service component requirements for incentive pay related to demolition duty?
DoD 7000.14-R, Department of Defense Financial Management Regulation.
## Footnote
This regulation governs military pay policy for active duty and reserve pay.
93
What documentation is required for EOD personnel receiving demolition duty pay?
Monthly qualifications documented in accordance with Air Force MTP 3E8X1.
## Footnote
This ensures compliance with the requirements for entitlement to incentive pay.
94
Who is responsible for informing finance about a member's failure to perform monthly demolition duty?
Local commanders.
## Footnote
This is in accordance with DoD 7000.14-R.
95
Are EOD members of the ANG Component entitled to incentive pay?
Yes, if they are in a pay status.
## Footnote
Specific compensation depends on whether the member is on inactive duty training or activated on Title 10 orders.
96
What is the Air Force Manpower Standard (AFMS) for Air Force EOD?
AFMS 44D100
## Footnote
AFMS 44D100 is available electronically on the Air Force Manpower Analysis Agency (AFMAA) website.
97
What does AFMS 44D100 quantify?
Manpower necessary to accomplish Air Force EOD tasks based on EOD UTC taskings
## Footnote
This is reflected on the Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
98
What is the AFMS for ANG EOD?
Air National Guard Manpower Standard 44D000
99
What does the ANG Manpower Standard 44D000 quantify?
Manpower necessary to accomplish full-time Air National Guard EOD tasks
100
How are EOD flights structured according to AFMS?
Large-range flights, large force-projection flights, small force-projection flights
## Footnote
Specific personnel numbers: 54 for large-range, 25 for large force-projection, 17 for small force-projection.
101
What is the wartime structure for EOD personnel?
Provides limited EOD personnel at home station to support nine mission areas during wartime activities
102
How are ARC EOD flights structured?
As Homeland Defense flights
## Footnote
Personnel range: 11-22.
103
What is the USAF EOD Minimum Sustainable Manpower based on?
Manpower required to meet all EOD missions identified in AFPD 32-30
104
What is the manpower requirements at different flight types?
105
What do the provided numbers assume regarding flights?
Flights maintain leadership support and team integrity to meet mission requirements.
106
What are the three key components of minimum sustainable mission capability manpower?
* Maintain missions for an indefinite period
* Provide proper leadership and mentoring
* Maintain required training proficiency
107
What operations can limited capability levels perform?
* Emergency response operations
* Minimum range support
* Degraded or limited training and proficiency operations
108
How long can limited capability be maintained without losing EOD certifications and qualifications?
Cannot be maintained for more than 90 days.
109
What happens if an EOD flight falls below minimum sustainable manpower levels?
A degraded capability exists and required proficiency training and certifications cannot be maintained.
110
For how long can break the flight manpower levels be maintained without losing EOD certifications?
Cannot be maintained for more than 30 days.
111
What is required for scheduled range clearances according to AFMAN 13-212V1?
Manning augmentation from other EOD flights.
112
What is the minimum support manpower structure for AFRC with Base Operating Support Integrator?
A manpower structure of six personnel.
113
What is the capability of on-duty break the base manpower?
Only sufficient to provide limited mission areas support and a single incident response capability.
114
What is required if flight manning falls below break the base levels?
Squadron Commander approval and MAJCOM or AFIMSC Detachment awareness.
115
How many fulltime personnel are required to maintain all mission area and training requirements?
Six fulltime personnel
## Footnote
This is in accordance with AFPD 32-30 and reflected in AFMAN.
116
What is the minimum sustainable manpower for ANG Fulltime EOD?
Six fulltime personnel
## Footnote
This number is necessary to maintain mission area and training requirements.
117
What happens if flight full-time manning falls below six?
Requires Air National Guard Readiness Center concurrence
## Footnote
This ensures that operational capability is not compromised.
118
What should flights do if they fall below minimum manning requirements for longer than 30 days?
Request manning assistance
## Footnote
This may include temporary civilian or contractor support for program management.
119
For how long can flights operate below minimum manning requirements without requesting assistance?
30 days
## Footnote
After this period, assistance must be sought through respective MAJCOM/AFIMSC Detachment.
120
What type of support can be requested for manning assistance?
Temporary civilian or contractor support
## Footnote
This is specifically for program management support.
121
What are the core Homeland Defense planning groups EOD flights will participate in?
Anti-Terrorism Working Group and Integrated Defense Working Group
## Footnote
These groups focus on enhancing national security against terrorist threats.
122
What is required for local threat briefings coordination?
Coordination with the Office of Special Investigations and local civilian law enforcement agencies
## Footnote
This ensures comprehensive threat assessment at the local level.
123
What information must EOD flights obtain from the Navy EOD Technology Division?
DoD EOD Critical Commander Information Requirements (CCIR), Essential Elements of Information (EEI), Enemy Order of Battle, and current macro level Joint EOD Program Board threat briefings
## Footnote
This information is crucial for understanding the broader threat landscape.
124
What should EOD flights do if they require assistance with obtaining threat briefings?
Contact AFCEC/CXE
## Footnote
AFCEC/CXE provides support for EOD operations.
125
What must EOD flights obtain from the wing deployment office?
Current operational plan support taskings
## Footnote
This is essential for aligning EOD operations with overall military objectives.
126
What is the purpose of liaising with the wing intelligence office?
To create a reoccurring schedule to review, update, and connect macro, micro, and local threat information
## Footnote
This ensures that all threat information is current and relevant.
127
What security clearance is initially required for candidates of EOD School?
T3 (Secret) clearance with an initiated TS (Top Secret)
## Footnote
This clearance level is necessary for access to sensitive information.
128
What is required for the retention of EOD Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC)?
Completion of a current IS clearance according to DoDM 5200.02_AFMAN 16-1405
## Footnote
This ensures that personnel maintain necessary security standards.
129
What access is required for EOD personnel filling an authorized EOD position?
Authorized access to Critical Nuclear Weapon Design Information
## Footnote
This access is essential for the performance of their assigned duties.
130
What program designates specific EOD positions for personnel reliability?
Nuclear Weapons Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)
## Footnote
This program ensures that personnel involved with nuclear weapons are reliable and trustworthy.
131
What is the role of MAJCOMs in relation to missions requiring special access?
Identify missions requiring special access requirements
## Footnote
MAJCOM stands for Major Command within the Air Force structure.
132
What code is assigned to military positions in the EOD Flight regarding Security Access Requirement?
SAR 5 (Top Secret)
## Footnote
SAR indicates the level of security access required for positions.
133
What type of uniforms must Air Force EOD personnel wear for safety?
Flame retardant variants of approved uniforms
## Footnote
These uniforms are identified in the Battlefield Airmen Rapid Refresh and Replenishment System (BARS).
134
What must EOD Flights provide to all assigned EOD personnel?
Required items including cold and inclement weather protective clothing
## Footnote
This is necessary due to the operational environment EOD personnel work in.
135
Which documents cover EOD requirements for Weapons Safety?
DESR 6055.09_AFMAN 91-201, T.O. 60A-1-1-4, T.O. 60A-1-1-22
## Footnote
These documents provide guidelines for protecting personnel and property during operations.
136
What should be done when information between safety references conflicts?
Use the more stringent safety reference
## Footnote
This ensures the highest level of safety is maintained.
137
What must an EOD member complete before starting all explosive operations?
A Pre-Operation Safety Briefing
## Footnote
This briefing is based on a template from AFTTP 3-32.5, Volume 7.
138
What are Proficiency Range Parameters related to EOD operations?
Authorized procedures on EOD ranges allow for reduced safe separation distances
## Footnote
These parameters are detailed in DESR 6055.09 AFMAN 91-201.
139
What do the authorized procedures on EOD ranges allow for?
Reduced safe separation distances
## Footnote
Referenced in DESR 6055.09_AFMAN 91-201.
140
What must be obtained when the net explosive weight and fragmentation hazards exceed established quantity-distance criteria on a range?
Installation commander's permission
## Footnote
Additionally, a risk assessment must be performed and protective measures used.
141
What is required for EOD proficiency training and disposal ranges?
Site all ranges in accordance with DESR 6055.09_AFMAN 91-201 requirements
## Footnote
This is marked as a T-O requirement.
142
Who must approve all proposed Vehicle-Borne IED intentional detonation training operations?
Air Force Safety Center (AFSEC/SEW)
## Footnote
Approval is required through the explosives site planning process.
143
What does the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire, and Health Standards list?
Occupational safety, fire, and health requirements
## Footnote
This is outlined in AFMAN 91-203.
144
Which health and safety programs must EOD flights participate in?
* Environmental Management System
* Hazard Communication (HAZCOM)
* Respiratory Protection Program
* Blood Borne Pathogen
## Footnote
Programs are in consultation with Bioenvironmental Engineering.
145
What is the purpose of the Hazard Communication (HAZCOM) program?
To ensure proper communication of hazards
## Footnote
Governed by AFI 90-821.
146
What does the Respiratory Protection Program involve?
Consultation with Bioenvironmental Engineering
## Footnote
In accordance with AFI 48-137.
147
Under what circumstances do normal home-station EOD duties warrant participation in the Blood Borne Pathogen program?
They do not warrant participation
## Footnote
Provided established control procedures and good hygiene are followed.
148
Fill in the blank: EOD proficiency training ranges must comply with _______.
DESR 6055.09_AFMAN 91-201 requirements
149
True or False: Vehicle access shots are included in the approval requirement for intentional detonations.
False
## Footnote
The approval requirement does not include vehicle access shots.
150
What guides should be used on all EOD operations?
Developed Team Leader guides and EOD T.O.s
## Footnote
T-1 refers to the tasking priority level.
151
What is the first step for responding EOD teams regarding ordnance items?
Attempt positive identification
## Footnote
Document all actions and identification efforts in EOD reports.
152
If the ordnance item cannot be identified, what assumptions does the team make?
Assume it is:
* The most hazardous type
* It has the most hazardous features or filler
* It is in the most hazardous condition
## Footnote
EOD flights must state in response guides that positive identification was attempted.
153
What should EOD teams do if no technical data exists for an ordnance item?
Use other means to identify ordnance
## Footnote
Example: Use X-rays to identify contents.
154
What is the contact method for the Joint EOD Technical Support Center?
1-877-EOD INFO (1-877-363-4636) or submit a request via the Joint EOD Portal
## Footnote
NIPR and SIPR links are provided for further assistance.
155
What should be performed during IED, suspect package, and munitions responses?
Initial on-site detection and point detection of known Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear materials
## Footnote
Task priority level for this action is T-3.
156
What guidance should be followed for conducting EOD procedures?
Joint Service EOD 60-series T.O.s
## Footnote
If absent, use supporting instructions and EOD AFTTP publications.
157
What authority do local commanders have regarding EOD mission requirements?
Make Risk Management adjustments to established requirements
## Footnote
Refer to AFI 90-802 for Risk Management.
158
Fill in the blank: EOD flights will document all actions in ______.
EOD reports
## Footnote
This documentation must verify identification efforts.
159
True or False: EOD teams should not use X-rays if they cannot identify ordnance.
False
## Footnote
X-rays can assist in identifying the nature of the contents.
160
What is the purpose of Attachment 2, Figure A2.1 in EOD guidance?
To provide basic EOD emergency response guidance
## Footnote
It supports the execution of EOD procedures.
161
What is the purpose of the weapons recovery plan developed by EOD personnel?
To develop a plan in accordance with DoDM 3150.08, Nuclear Weapon Accident Response Procedures (NARP).
## Footnote
This procedure is essential during accident situations involving nuclear weapons.
162
What is the requirement for medical support before conducting intentional detonation operations?
Evaluate the need for emergency medical support onsite.
## Footnote
Medical support must remain in a designated safe area unless required for an injury or incident response.
163
What type of medical personnel is required for explosive operations involving only demolition explosives?
Medical support must be available within a 30-minute response time.
## Footnote
Trauma facilities should be accessible within 60 minutes via ground or air transportation.
164
What certification is required for medical personnel during explosive operations involving practice munitions with hazards?
Any state-level or National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (EMT) certified at EMT or higher.
## Footnote
They must be available on-site or within a 30-minute response time.
165
What is the requirement for medical personnel during explosive operations involving high explosive munitions?
Any State-level or National Registry certified EMT must be available on-site during all operations.
## Footnote
Trauma care should be available within 30 minutes and definitive care within 60 minutes.
166
How should off-installation EOD emergency responses be treated?
As 'immediate response authority' requests under DoDD 3025.18 and DoDI 3025.21.
## Footnote
This applies to support of civil authorities.
167
Who must respond to accidents or incidents involving Air Force-owned explosive ordnance?
The closest Air Force EOD flight.
## Footnote
This applies to incidents both on and off Air Force installations.
168
Fill in the blank: Medical personnel supporting explosive operations should receive _______.
[familiarization training]
## Footnote
This training should be on the planned operation.
169
True or False: Trauma care must be available within 30 minutes for high explosive munitions operations.
True
## Footnote
Definitive care must be available within 60 minutes.
170
What is the required response time for trauma facilities during explosive operations involving practice munitions?
Within 30 minutes via ground or air transportation.
## Footnote
Definitive care must also be within 60 minutes.
171
What must the first service notified of a transportation accident involving federally owned explosive ordnance do?
Respond immediately, regardless of location
## Footnote
The EOD team should arrive on-scene as soon as possible.
172
What is the risk category assignment based on?
Joint assessment of the incident by the senior EOD representative and the incident commander
## Footnote
Commanders should limit exposure of EOD personnel to risk of injury or loss of life unless justified.
173
Who is primarily responsible for the safe handling and disposal of IEDs and non-military commercial explosives off DoD installations?
Civil authorities
## Footnote
This includes similarly dangerous articles located off DoD installations.
174
Under what conditions can non-DoD toxic or hazardous materials be taken to military installations?
If the situation is an emergency or lifesaving operation or if formal agreements exist with other federal agencies
## Footnote
Storage or disposal of such materials is otherwise prohibited.
175
What does DoDI 3025.21, Enclosure 5 cover?
EOD response
## Footnote
It requires immediate notification of the National Joint Operations and Intelligence Center and the FBI's Strategic Information Operations Center regarding military munitions.
176
What information must EOD flights provide to the Command Post upon returning to base?
The information in Figure 4.1
## Footnote
This is part of the reporting requirements for EOD responses.
177
True or False: The EOD team should wait for the incident commander before responding to a transportation accident.
False
## Footnote
The EOD team must respond immediately.
178
What is the AF DSCA?
AF DSCA refers to the Air Force Defense Support of Civil Authorities.
179
What does DSCA Rule 17B pertain to?
It pertains to the guidelines for military assistance in response to civil authorities' requests.
180
What information is required regarding the type of support in a DSCA report?
Type of support, location, and specific assistance requested or provided.
181
What should be estimated regarding military participation?
Estimated duration of military participation in reported event.
182
What details must be included about the civil authority's request?
Source, date, and time of civil authority's request for military assistance, including official titles, phone numbers, and email addresses.
183
What personnel information is required in the DSCA Immediate Response request?
Number of USAF personnel (military and civilian) employed.
184
What types of information should be reported about equipment used?
Amount and types of equipment used.
185
What should be reported regarding supplies used?
Amount and types of supplies used.
186
What contact details are needed for the unit point of contact (POC)?
Title, rank, and telephone/email/fax of unit POC.
187
What aspect of media should be described?
The extent of any media interest in the USAF response.
188
What mission designator should be included if applicable?
Appropriate DoD or Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) mission designator.
189
What should ARC EOD units do to codify the process?
Coordinate with their local Command Post to codify the process in local operational instructions and checklists
## Footnote
This ensures that procedures are standardized across units.
190
What is the legal requirement for EOD personnel before destroying explosive ordnance in non-emergency situations?
Consult legal and the installation's CE environmental management function
## Footnote
This is necessary to meet all legal requirements.
191
What laws must all AF EOD flights comply with in the United States and its territories?
42 USC § 6901 et seq, Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) and other applicable state regulatory requirements
## Footnote
Compliance ensures adherence to environmental protection standards.
192
What are the two levels of EOD emergency response defined by the DoD?
Immediate response (Level 1) and imminent and substantial endangerment (Level 2)
## Footnote
These levels help prioritize responses based on urgency and safety.
193
True or False: A Level 2 response can be delayed without compromising safety.
True
## Footnote
This level does not pose immediate risks to life, property, health, or the environment.
194
What must be treated as a Level 1 response until determined otherwise?
All requests for EOD response
## Footnote
This approach ensures safety is prioritized in uncertain situations.
195
Who determines if the situation requires a Level 1, Level 2, or cancellation of EOD emergency response?
The on-scene EOD Team Leader
## Footnote
This individual is responsible for assessing the situation and making critical decisions.
196
Fill in the blank: The Environmental Protection Agency has established definitions for when munitions become a _______.
waste
## Footnote
Understanding this definition is crucial for compliance with environmental regulations.
197
What should be done with temporary storage in a munitions storage facility for a Level 2 response?
It should not terminate the emergency nature of the response
## Footnote
Final destruction or shipment to a destruction facility should be awaited.
198
What is the primary distinction between Level 1 and Level 2 EOD emergency responses?
Level 1 requires immediate action, while Level 2 can be delayed
## Footnote
This distinction helps prioritize resources and actions effectively.
199
What federal program exempts EOD operations from some environmental management requirements?
RCRA's implementing regulations
## Footnote
This exemption applies during EOD emergency response actions.
200
What should units establish at installations without a fulltime Command Post?
A process to provide information to the Air National Guard Command Center
## Footnote
This ensures communication and coordination in absence of a Command Post.
201
What are Level 1 emergency response actions exempt from?
RCRA permitting and Department of Transportation manifesting for movement to a safe disposal area
202
What may Level 2 emergency response actions be subject to?
Emergency permitting and other requirements, but not manifesting
203
Who should the installation environmental office consult with before contacting environmental regulators?
The installation Staff Judge Advocate
204
Do EOD personnel conduct planned munitions responses?
No, they respond to explosives or munitions emergencies during planned responses
205
What should EOD personnel not do if there is significant disagreement during an emergency response?
Take any action inconsistent with approved EOD procedures or that would place the EOD team at added risk
206
What should be implemented when a delay in conducting response activities does not compromise safety?
Protective measures until a finalized mutually agreeable solution is reached
207
What should environmental regulators or safety officials do if they have serious concerns during an emergency response?
Immediately elevate the concern to the next level of authority
208
What is required after an agreeable solution is attained in an emergency response?
The appropriate DoD authority coordinates EOD's support to resolve the emergency
209
How does EOD often transport explosive hazards?
Over installation and public roads in the performance of their assigned mission
210
For what purpose do EOD teams not transport explosive hazards?
For the purpose of shipping in commerce
211
Any movement of explosive hazards by DoD forces must comply with what?
Applicable DoD policy and guidance
212
Fill in the blank: Level 1 emergency response actions are exempt from _______.
RCRA permitting and Department of Transportation manifesting
213
True or False: EOD personnel conduct planned munitions responses.
False
214
What does EOD stand for?
Explosive Ordnance Disposal
215
What are EOD teams not classified as in commerce?
EOD teams are not shippers in commerce
## Footnote
This classification affects the requirements for manifests and associated forms.
216
What regulations must EOD teams still adhere to despite not being shippers?
40 CFR, Protection of the Environment, Part 260-266 and Part 270 for Military Munitions
## Footnote
These regulations focus on the environmental protection aspects of military munitions.
217
List examples of Explosive Hazards.
* Bulk explosives
* Demolition explosives
* Military munitions
* Explosive ordnance
* Unexploded explosive ordnance (UXO)
* IEDs
* HME
* Explosively actuated cartridges used in EOD tools
## Footnote
These items are critical for EOD operations and safety.
218
Which documents provide specific guidance for transporting explosive hazards by EOD?
* Interpretation of Regulation/Policy for Transporting Explosive Hazards by EOD memorandum
* Transportation of Explosive Hazards During EOD Operations AFMAN32-3001
## Footnote
These documents are available for download on the AF EOD Program Management SharePoint® site.
219
What is the response time for EOD teams during normal duty hours?
EOD teams will be enroute to the incident site within 30 minutes of initial notification
## Footnote
This response time is crucial for effective emergency management.
220
What is the exception for ANG EOD units regarding response time parameters?
ANG EOD units will establish response time parameters with wing leadership
## Footnote
This allows for flexibility in supporting their specific mission requirements.
221
During off-duty hours, how are EOD flights organized for immediate response?
EOD flights provide standby teams for off-duty immediate response
## Footnote
EOD flights are not manned for continual 24/7 operations.
222
True or False: EOD teams are required to have a manifest for explosive hazards during operations.
False
## Footnote
EOD teams are not shippers and therefore do not require a manifest.
223
What is the response goal for off-duty EOD teams?
To respond to the scene within 60 minutes after initial notification or approval from the wing commander.
## Footnote
This response time considers safety, road conditions, and other factors.
224
What is the purpose of EOD response records?
To enter EOD response records and supporting documentation into the EODIMS database.
## Footnote
Supporting documentation may include emergency permits if issued.
225
Who maintains the permanent records for all EOD response data?
AFCEC/CXD maintains the permanent records in the EODIMS archives.
## Footnote
AFCEC/CXD is also the Release Authority for requests for information pertaining to archived reports.
226
How should requests for EODIMS data-pulls be submitted?
Requests should be submitted directly to AFCEC/CXD.
## Footnote
Requests from the United States Army Corps of Engineers can come directly or through the respective MAJCOM or AFIMSC detachment.
227
What type of requests must be submitted as Freedom of Information Act requests?
Requests from contract companies or individual email addresses.
## Footnote
This ensures proper handling of sensitive information.
228
Who controls direct access to the EODIMS database?
The Joint Configuration Control Board controls direct access.
## Footnote
Access is limited strictly to service EOD units and their respective staffs.
229
What should flights coordinate with their installation legal office regarding?
To build a list of expenses eligible for reimbursement for EOD support to civil authorities.
## Footnote
This includes loss of military specialized equipment, travel costs, and military man-hours.
230
What types of munitions does reimbursement apply to?
Reimbursement applies only for response actions to non-military munitions.
## Footnote
Emergency EOD support should not be withheld due to lack of reimbursement.
231
What should flights maintain logs of when providing support to civil authorities?
Logs of expenses incurred and resources expended.
## Footnote
This helps in tracking financials related to EOD support.
232
What must be reported to the local Command Post and Comptroller?
All DSCA support must be reported.
## Footnote
This ensures transparency and accountability in funding.
233
What should flights work with local Comptrollers to develop?
Procedures to seek reimbursement for EOD support provided to civil and federal authorities.
## Footnote
This helps streamline the reimbursement process.
234
What are the nine mission areas that EOD units must organize, train, and equip to support?
Mission areas listed in AFPD 32-30.
## Footnote
These mission areas are not prioritized operationally and vary based on each base's real-time situations.
235
What is the main purpose of the Aerospace Systems/Vehicles and Conventional Munitions mission area?
Support sortie generation and space operations by responding to airfield emergencies.
## Footnote
This includes rendering safe ordnance and aircraft during emergencies or crash situations.
236
What are EOD personnel's responsibilities when responding to aircraft emergencies?
Evaluation, diagnosis, render safe, recovery, and final disposal of conventional munitions.
## Footnote
This applies to munitions involved in accidents or incidents.
237
True or False: EOD personnel are considered end-of-runway crews.
False.
## Footnote
EOD personnel should be familiar with operations around aircraft but are not classified as end-of-runway crews.
238
When do EOD teams respond in relation to end-of-runway crews?
When end-of-runway crews or transient alert personnel are unavailable or when the aircraft or munitions are unsafe.
## Footnote
This ensures safety during emergencies.
239
What role do EOD teams play in accident investigation?
Critical part of the initial response and accident investigation team.
## Footnote
They must render safe all explosive hazards before any DoD agencies enter the crash site.
240
What is required for all aerospace platform deployments involving live munitions?
On-site EOD capability.
## Footnote
This ensures safe and timely response for aircraft and munitions operations.
241
What is the purpose of the Counter-IED (CIED) mission area?
Eliminate or mitigate explosive hazards and terrorist or criminal devices.
## Footnote
This includes actions outside the base boundary to enhance operational freedom.
242
What type of actions do EOD teams perform in relation to IEDs?
IED defeat actions, including weapon caches, emplaced IEDs, and post-blast analysis.
## Footnote
They provide technical intelligence and insights for CIED tactics.
243
Fill in the blank: EOD teams do not perform searches in support of _______.
bomb-threats.
## Footnote
Their focus is on explosive devices rather than general bomb threat searches.
244
What is the first step recommended for handling diagnostics and remote procedures?
Use diagnostics and remote procedures first
## Footnote
Hand-entry is a last resort.
245
What should be used in conjunction with a sound threat assessment during EOD operations?
All available protective gear (e.g., bomb suit)
## Footnote
This ensures the best protective posture.
246
Are EOD teams responsible for the custody of explosive material during criminal investigations?
No
## Footnote
EOD teams are not responsible for custody.
247
What types of threats do EOD forces respond to during contingencies?
Nuclear, biological, chemical, radiological, incendiary, or conventional explosive ordnance and IEDs
## Footnote
These are classified as Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD).
248
What is the scope of peacetime EOD force WMD response efforts?
Initial threat confirmation, risk mitigation, and situational awareness through passive diagnosis only
## Footnote
Additional technical support may be provided as required.
249
What document provides more information on Countering WMD operations?
AFPD 10-26
## Footnote
This document outlines the Countering Weapons of Mass Destruction Enterprise.
250
What is the responsibility of all Regular Air Force EOD flights during nuclear weapon accidents?
Provide immediate initial support to mitigate risk, provide site stabilization, and situational awareness
## Footnote
This is in accordance with DoDM 3150.08.
251
Fill in the blank: EOD forces provide response capability to _______.
[Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD)]
252
What certification do all Regular Air Force EOD flights and ARC EOD units maintain?
Certification to provide emergency nuclear support
## Footnote
These units must train to support an Initial Response Force.
253
What is T.O. 11N-20-7?
Nuclear Safety Criteria
## Footnote
This publication is a minimum requirement for EOD units.
254
What does T.O. 11N-20-11 provide guidance on?
General Firefighting Guidance
## Footnote
This is one of the essential publications for EOD units.
255
What is the focus of T.O. 60N-60-0?
Principles of Nuclear EOD
## Footnote
It is a required publication for EOD units.
256
What does T.O. 60N-60-1 outline?
General Procedures Applicable to Nuclear Weapons
## Footnote
This document is necessary for EOD operations involving nuclear weapons.
257
What are Render Safe Procedures for Nuclear Weapons outlined in?
T.O. 60N-60-6
## Footnote
This is a critical publication for ensuring safety during nuclear operations.
258
What is the responsibility of Nuclear Custodial Units?
Maintain technical data and qualifications for all assigned weapon systems
## Footnote
These units play a key role in the management of nuclear weapons.
259
What forms the core of weapons recovery teams?
Custodial Units certified on specific weapon systems and aerospace platforms
## Footnote
They are essential for conducting passive diagnostics and technical assessments.
260
What must a properly trained and weapons certified EOD Team do during weapons recovery actions?
Respond in conjunction with response forces to neutralize or defeat explosive hazards
## Footnote
This is crucial for securing the area around an incident.
261
What types of operations does Air Force EOD provide emergency response for?
Neutralize hazards from incidents involving explosives
## Footnote
This includes evaluation of ordnance items and support for weapons system testing.
262
What is the goal of Operational Range Clearance?
Clear active bombing and gunnery ranges of explosive hazards
## Footnote
This enhances safety for training operations.
263
According to which directive must EOD flights conduct Operational Range Clearance?
DoDI 3200.16
## Footnote
This directive outlines the procedures for range management.
264
What is the purpose of EOD flights in relation to operational range clearance?
To work with range management offices and environmental agencies to clear operational and test ranges in accordance with DoDI 3200.16 and DoDI 4140.62.
## Footnote
Reference AFMAN 13-212V1 for further implementing guidance.
265
How do UXO clearance procedures at operational ranges differ from environmental UXO remediation?
They closely mirror combat EOD duties and provide war skills experience for EOD operations.
266
What type of clearance is usually conducted during peacetime range clearance?
Surface clearance.
267
What is a requirement for operational test and evaluation ranges?
Sub-surface recovery of experimental ordnance.
268
Are EOD flights responsible for activities outside the scope of AFMAN 13-212V1?
No, they are not responsible for those activities.
269
What is a limitation of the Air Force EOD program regarding environmental requirements?
It is not equipped or manned for environmental requirements based munitions response operations.
270
Which of the following duties should EOD personnel NOT be responsible for? Fill in the blank: Third-party quality assurance evaluations of _______.
contracts.
271
Which type of environmental support is outside the core competencies for EOD personnel?
Natural & cultural environmental escorts.
272
What should EOD personnel not provide in non-emergency situations?
Research and provision of ordnance information.
273
True or False: EOD personnel are responsible for construction support.
False.
274
What type of UXO recovery is not supported by EOD personnel?
Sub-surface UXO recovery for area remediation not in support of ordnance Research, Development, Testing and Evaluation/Operational Training and Exercise.
275
Which of the following is an example of a task EOD personnel should not be responsible for? Fill in the blank: _______ oversight.
Contract.
276
What is the purpose of lend-lease-grant final land clearance?
To provide clearance subsequent to land use by commercial ventures.
## Footnote
This process ensures that land is safe for use after being utilized by commercial activities.
277
What is required before the closure or re-characterization of operational ranges?
Final land-surveys.
## Footnote
These surveys are essential to assess the condition of the land before any changes are made.
278
Who may authorize unique individual operations for EOD tasks?
MAJCOM EOD staff or AFIMSC EOD detachment staff.
## Footnote
Authorization is contingent upon the situation providing a war skills benefit.
279
What should be included in memorandums for EOD task authorizations?
Parameters established between the contract executing agent, flight involved, and MAJCOM or AFIMSC EOD detachment staff.
## Footnote
AFCEC/CXD should receive a courtesy copy of these memorandums.
280
What is a core competency for EOD personnel?
Emergency support to other than operational range activities.
## Footnote
This includes responding to munitions emergencies to ensure public safety.
281
What should EOD teams do upon notification of a munitions emergency?
Respond to ensure public safety, identify unknown munitions, and notify relevant authorities if chemical munitions are involved.
## Footnote
This ensures a coordinated and safe response to potential hazards.
282
What type of response will EOD flights provide to first found munitions?
A one-time response as outlined in a staff-coordinated memorandum of agreement (MOA).
## Footnote
This agreement ensures clarity on the responsibilities and actions to be taken.
283
What specific responsibilities are provided under the Environmental Protection Agency?
Permits, security, medical etc.
## Footnote
This outlines the regulatory framework and compliance requirements for environmental protection.
284
What is a specific duty the military is responsible for?
To perform or conduct specific responsibilities or duties.
## Footnote
This emphasizes the operational readiness and accountability of military units.
285
How should support provided under immediate response authority be handled?
On a cost-reimbursable basis, where appropriate or legally required.
## Footnote
This ensures that costs incurred during emergency responses are recovered appropriately.
286
Will EOD flights support non-emergency MMRP operations?
No, unless they are pre-coordinated with the EOD flight and respective MAJCOM/AFIMSC Detachment.
## Footnote
This highlights the importance of coordination for effective resource management.
287
What factors do EOD flights consider when supporting MMRP demolition operations?
Current manning, upcoming deployments, operations, proficiency training, exercises, temporary duty schedules, demolition explosives availability.
## Footnote
These factors are critical for ensuring that EOD resources are effectively utilized.
288
What type of support is limited to EOD teams during MMRP operations?
Destruction by demolition of unexploded military ordnance located on the surface of the ground.
## Footnote
EOD teams do not assist in investigating subsurface anomalies.
289
What must installation EOD units do when performing demolition support during MMRP projects?
Coordinate with the MMRP project lead to determine liability for damages.
## Footnote
This ensures accountability and clarity regarding potential damages during operations.
290
What should the MMRP project do regarding costs incurred by installation EOD units?
Reimburse installation EOD units for all assets consumed, including explosives and equipment.
## Footnote
This promotes responsible financial management and resource allocation.
291
What should be developed if the EOD flight determines the ability to provide MMRP demolition support?
A Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) between AFCEC Environmental Quality Technical Support Branch and the installation.
## Footnote
This MOA outlines support areas and responsibilities for effective collaboration.
292
What is the role of AFCEC/CD in MOA development?
AFCEC/CD can provide assistance with the development of the MOA.
293
Who should coordinate all MOAs regarding EOD demolition support?
Coordinate all MOAs regarding EOD demolition support to MMRP with AFCEC/CXD.
294
What must be documented within the MOA?
Document coordination with applicable authoritative parties, i.e. EOD Flight Management, owning unit commander, MAJCOM/AFIMSC Detachment EOD staff, and AFCEC/CXD.
295
What must be provided to AFCEC/CXD regarding the MOA?
Provide a copy of the completed MOA to AFCEC/CXD.
296
What is required for EOD units performing munitions test and evaluations support?
EOD units must receive source data packages containing render safe procedures at least 60 calendar days prior to delivery of assets for Air Force testing.
297
What must EOD units develop and validate for Research and Development missions?
The EOD unit must develop, evaluate, validate, and classify (if required) the EOD procedures.
298
What should EOD personnel not do under any circumstances?
Under no circumstances, provide support without properly coordinated procedures.
299
What must be coordinated with base safety offices?
Coordinate all procedures with base weapons safety, range safety, systems safety, and other offices as appropriate.
300
What must the EOD Flight Chief or Superintendent ensure regarding safety standards?
Ensure personnel adhere to the highest safety standards for test mission support.
301
What must EOD personnel have access to for classified programs?
EOD personnel must have access to relevant munitions information required to support classified programs.
302
What should be reported to AFIMSC/IZPE?
Report any difficulties obtaining relevant munitions information.
303
What is the distribution status of EOD procedures and technical data packages developed under Research and Development testing?
EOD procedures and technical data packages are 'Limited Distribution'.
304
Where should previously unknown information gathered be provided?
Provide to the NSWC IHD and AFCEC/CXE for inclusion in the Joint EOD Library.
305
Fill in the blank: The EOD unit must develop, evaluate, validate, and ________ the EOD procedures.
[classify]
306
True or False: EOD personnel can compromise safety standards to meet project objectives.
False
307
What operations do certain Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) EOD units conduct?
Approved foreign munitions exploitation operations, including foreign munitions disassembly
## Footnote
These operations must be consistent with exploitation mission requirements.
308
Who approves procedures for the 96th Test Wing units?
96th Test Wing, Safety Office (96th TW/SEW)
## Footnote
Base Weapons Safety, AFMC/SEW and Detachment 6 approve all other procedures.
309
What must flights performing foreign munitions operations use?
Locally Manufactured Equipment (LME)
## Footnote
This equipment must satisfy the requirements of AFI 91-205, Non-Nuclear Munitions Safety Board.
310
What is the primary purpose of the capability established by the 96th and 775th Civil Engineer Squadron (CES) EOD Flights?
To locate, excavate, recover, render safe, dispose of and disassemble test munitions
## Footnote
This is achieved through the use of remotely controlled vehicles, armored platforms or other specialized equipment.
311
What must be developed for the inspection and use of Locally Manufactured Equipment (LME)?
In-depth procedures oriented primarily around safety
## Footnote
Procedures must be coordinated with appropriate safety office(s).
312
True or False: The 96th Test Wing units require approval for their procedures.
True
## Footnote
Procedures must be approved to ensure compliance with safety regulations.
313
Fill in the blank: The primary purpose of the EOD capability is to permit munitions _______ analysis and/or disposal of weapon systems posing unusually high risk to personnel.
failure
## Footnote
This analysis is crucial for safety and operational effectiveness.
314
What must AFMC EOD units provide to the NSWC IHD?
Any previously unknown information gathered
## Footnote
This information is vital for ongoing safety and operational assessments.
315
What type of vehicles can be used by EOD Flights for munitions operations?
Remotely controlled vehicles and armored platforms
## Footnote
These vehicles enhance safety during munitions handling.
316
What is the primary mission of Defense Support to Civil Authorities?
Assist Federal and civil authorities with terrorist acts, accidents, found explosive items, and other requests for support.
## Footnote
This mission includes 'Immediate Response Authority' operations as per various DoD directives.
317
What role do EOD teams play in Irregular Warfare?
EOD teams serve as combat enablers to General Purpose and Special Operations Forces in various missions including:
* Security force assistance
* Counterinsurgency
* Stability operations
* Building partnership capacity
## Footnote
Irregular warfare missions focus on non-traditional combat scenarios.
318
What is the purpose of Very Important Persons Protective Support (VIPPSA)?
Provide counter-explosive search teams in support of the USSS and Department of State.
## Footnote
This is conducted in accordance with specific DoD directives regarding protective support.
319
What law establishes non-reimbursable DoD support to the USSS for protecting the President?
Public Law 94-524, Presidential Protection Act of 1976.
## Footnote
This law allows the DoD to provide support without reimbursement for specific protective missions.
320
Who centrally funds Presidential and Vice Presidential VIPPSA missions?
AFCEC centrally funds these missions.
## Footnote
Other missions, such as those involving the First Lady or former Presidents, are funded through USSS and DOS.
321
What must JEODVIPPSA do after coordinating team information with NORTHCOM?
Send an email authorizing the use of the Defense Travel System with explicit instructions.
## Footnote
Different cross organizations will be used depending on the funding source.
322
True or False: EOD flights are not allowed to support VIPPSA taskings.
False. EOD flights may support VIPPSA taskings if personnel are available without impacting their primary mission.
## Footnote
This support is subject to availability and mission priorities.
323
Fill in the blank: EOD teams assist in _______ operations as part of irregular warfare.
[combat enabler]
## Footnote
EOD teams provide essential support for various combat operations in irregular warfare.
324
What is the mission of Defense Support to Civil Authorities?
Assist Federal and civil authorities with terrorist or other criminal acts, accidents, found explosive items, and other requests for support
## Footnote
This mission includes Immediate Response Authority operations as outlined in specific Department of Defense directives.
325
What type of warfare do EOD teams support?
Irregular Warfare
## Footnote
EOD teams serve as combat enablers to General Purpose and Special Operations Forces in various missions, including security force assistance, counterinsurgency, stability operations, and building partnership capacity.
326
What is the role of EOD flights in Very Important Persons Protective Support?
Provide counter-explosive search teams in support of the USSS and Department of State
## Footnote
This support is in accordance with DoDD 3025.13 and DoDI 3025.19.
327
What law establishes the authority for non-reimbursable DoD support to the USSS?
Public Law 94-524, Presidential Protection Act of 1976
## Footnote
This law pertains to the protection of the President, Vice-President, or other officers next in line for the presidency.
328
Who centrally funds Presidential, Vice Presidential, and National Special Security Event VIPPSA missions?
AFCEC
## Footnote
All other missions for individuals like the First Lady, former Presidents, and Secretary of State are funded through USSS and DOS.
329
What is the process for CONUS missions regarding team information coordination?
AFCEC coordinates with NORTHCOM and JEODVIPPSA, which then sends an email authorizing the use of the Defense Travel System
## Footnote
The email includes explicit instructions and varies based on the funding source.
330
Who coordinates directly with USAFE and PACAF EOD staff on taskings for VIPPSA teams?
JEODVIPPSA
## Footnote
This coordination is crucial for the effective deployment of personnel.
331
What should EOD teams do regarding VIPPSA taskings?
Support VIPPSA taskings if personnel are available without impacting the flight's primary mission
## Footnote
This is designated as a T-2 tasking.
332
Who is the executive agent for all routine VIPPSA taskings from the OSD?
NORTHCOM
## Footnote
This applies to taskings involving 25 teams or less.
333
What does the USSS request for National Special Security Events?
Assets via a Request for Assistance to Office of Secretary of Defense Executive Secretary
334
How are teams sourced for National Special Security Events?
Using the Request for Forces process from NORTHCOM to the Joint Staff through the Service
335
What does JEODVIPPSA provide to AFCEC/CXD?
The CONUS AF fair share of joint tasking requirements
336
Who provides funding for Reserve personnel in Mission Qualification Tour?
HQ AFRC
337
What does AFCEC/CXD establish in relation to the requirement?
Installation distribution of the requirement and coordinates required support
338
What type of information does AFCEC/CXD consolidate?
Team information and provides a consolidated roster to JEODVIPPSA
339
What is the tasking authority for AFCEC/CXD?
NORTHCOM JEODVIPPSA per Secretary of Defense Execution Order
340
How does AFCEC/CXD determine which units to task?
Based on mission location and logistical considerations
341
What is the reporting timeframe for EOD flights using EODIMS?
Submit incident reports within 7 working days after response termination
342
What is the emergency status level for EODIMS reports?
Category level two (C-2)
343
What must personnel not enter into EODIMS?
Restricted Data
344
What must responding EOD teams list in the FODIMS incident report?
Individuals who positively identified and verified the ordnance
345
Fill in the blank: EOD flights will use the _____ Operations Module, Incident Reporting System.
EODIMS
346
True or False: Personal Identifiable Information can be included in the EODIMS narrative.
False
347
Who is courtesy copied when a unit is tasked to support the USSS or DOS?
Each respective MAJCOM and AFIMSC Detachment
348
What is the purpose of verifying ordnance in the EODIMS incident report?
To validate the identification of ordnance
## Footnote
This process involves the Team Leader and a different EOD Team Member if the Team Leader identifies the ordnance.
349
Who is responsible for analyzing trends and identifying deficiencies in the EOD program?
MAJCOM/AFIMSC Detachment EOD staff
## Footnote
They utilize EODIMS Incident Reports for this analysis.
350
What is the timeline for reviewing and approving EODIMS Incident Reports?
Within 5 working days from date received
## Footnote
This applies to reports received from flights.
351
When should MAJCOM or Detachment be notified of an operation in support of another service or agency?
As soon as practical
## Footnote
This includes operations related to Disaster Response Force or WMD events.
352
What is the notification requirement for events that degrade mission support capability?
Within 24 hours
## Footnote
Examples include injury, death, or major equipment becoming inoperable.
353
What is the importance of the EOD Continuum of Learning?
It ensures appropriate training throughout a career path
## Footnote
This is critical for the success of the AF mission and safety from explosive hazards.
354
Fill in the blank: Training on the myriad of skills an EOD member must know is critical to the success of the _______.
AF mission
## Footnote
Ensuring safety of personnel from explosive hazards is also a key aspect.
355
What is the minimum number of hours dedicated to EOD proficiency training per person each week?
16 hours
## Footnote
This training is essential to maintain readiness and proficiency against explosive threats.
356
Which document identifies the nine EOD mission areas?
AFPD 32-30
## Footnote
This document outlines the critical mission areas for EOD operations.
357
How many hours of training should ANG Flights dedicate weekly for full-time personnel?
16 hours
## Footnote
This is consistent with the training requirements for EOD personnel.
358
What is the training allotment for drill status guardsmen during scheduled drills?
8 hours per day
## Footnote
This ensures that drill status guardsmen receive adequate training during their drills.
359
What percentage of unit training assembly duty hours must AFR traditional reserve personnel dedicate to training?
75%
## Footnote
This requirement ensures effective use of training time for reserve personnel.
360
What must flight leadership do to maximize training efficiencies for traditional reservists?
Coordinate with commanders
## Footnote
This coordination is essential for effective training on recurring requirements.
361
What is the importance of protecting training time for EOD personnel?
Allows maximum possible time to train on EOD core skills
## Footnote
This is crucial for maintaining proficiency, especially for ANG and AFR personnel.
362
How often is live-explosive training required for EOD personnel?
Monthly
## Footnote
Monthly training is critical for EOD proficiency and involves hands-on training with explosives.
363
What types of tools and devices are involved in monthly live-explosive training?
* Cartridge-actuated tools
* Demolition explosives
* Pyrotechnic devices
## Footnote
These tools are used for render-safe procedures and general demolition.
364
What does CFETP 3E8X1 stand for?
Career Field Education and Training Plan 3E8X1
## Footnote
This document outlines education and training requirements for the EOD career field.
365
What is included in the CFETP 3E8X1?
* Life-cycle education and training requirements
* Training support resources
* Minimum core task requirements
## Footnote
This comprehensive document serves as a guideline for EOD training.
366
What is required for EOD qualification of Hazardous Duty Incentive Pay for demolition duty?
Monthly use of live explosives
## Footnote
This requirement is outlined in the DoD Financial Management Regulation.
367
What actions can fulfill the requirement for pay for demolition duty?
* Training with live explosives
* Actual explosives operations (e.g., emergency responses, combat operations)
## Footnote
Both options ensure that personnel are engaged with live explosives.
368
What is the purpose of Group II training requirements?
Conduct classroom instruction and practical (hands-on) training for team members
## Footnote
This includes assembling tools, briefing unique features and safety precautions, and discussing equipment applications and limitations.
369
What should classroom instruction on procedures coincide with?
Group IV practical exercises
## Footnote
This ensures that theoretical knowledge is applied in practical scenarios.
370
What is conducted during Group III training requirements?
Annual classroom training on ordnance, tools, and EOD techniques
## Footnote
This training is essential for maintaining current knowledge and skills in EOD operations.
371
What is the focus of Group IV training and exercise requirements?
Team exercises that allow members to apply classroom knowledge to formulate plans and manage operations
## Footnote
This includes selecting and using proper equipment in incidents involving explosive ordnance.
372
What does Group V training entail?
Supplementary training required by directive for additional military duties
## Footnote
This training may be general or specialized depending on the directive.
373
What must be documented in the approved training program?
Career Development Course progression, formal training, and all classroom and practical training
## Footnote
This documentation is essential for tracking training compliance and development.
374
What is the significance of the Air Force Master Training Plan 3E8X1?
Flights will utilize the current Air Force MTP 3E8X1
## Footnote
This plan outlines training requirements and standards for EOD personnel.
375
What requirements may MAJCOM/AFIMSC Detachment EOD staff provide?
Additional MAJCOM unique MTP requirements
## Footnote
These requirements are deemed appropriate by the beginning of the calendar year.
376
What is the purpose of the AF Form 797?
To train and document home station specific qualifications for EOD standby duties
## Footnote
This form serves as an initial job qualification standard (IQS).
377
What does the IJQS include?
Committed aerospace platforms and munitions, safety programs, protective equipment, and installation response plans
## Footnote
These elements are critical for effective EOD operations.
378
What tool do flights use to identify core items for training?
Unit-Committed Munitions List (UCML)
## Footnote
This tool helps in incorporating relevant munitions into training and IJQS requirements.
379
Where can the UCML be obtained from?
The installation Munitions Accountable Supply Officer
## Footnote
This ensures that the training is based on the most current and relevant munitions available.
380
What additional tool can be used alongside the UCML?
Agile Munitions Support Tool
## Footnote
This tool helps run queries for all munition items in stockpile configuration on base.
381
What are the training requirements that must be accomplished as per AFI 10-210?
Home station, contingency just-in-time, and combat skills training requirements
## Footnote
Refers to the Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) Program.
382
Who collaborates to determine pre-deployment requirements?
AF/A4CX, AFCEC/CXD, MAJCOMS, AFFOR combatant commanders, and other services
## Footnote
This collaboration aims to establish fluid contingency type training requirements.
383
What is the intent of maintaining skills in training?
To reduce future just-in-time requirements
## Footnote
Skills are maintained consistently to ensure readiness.
384
What does AFOSH stand for?
Air Force Occupational Safety and Health
## Footnote
Related to safety training requirements.
385
What form is used to document all ancillary training?
AF Form 55
## Footnote
This form is the Employee Safety and Health Record.
386
Where can the AF EOD standard AF Form 55 template be found?
AF EOD Program Management SharePoint® site
## Footnote
Used by flights for documentation.
387
What must AFRC and ANG units develop and maintain?
A pre-deployment training IQS
## Footnote
This is for use upon activation or mobilization.
388
What is the prerequisite for all EOD personnel?
Graduation from Naval School Explosive Ordnance Disposal (NAVSCOLEOD) Basic Course
## Footnote
Applies to both officer and enlisted personnel.
389
Who approves waivers for attendance beyond one time for certain courses?
EOD CFM
## Footnote
CFM stands for Career Field Manager.
390
What is the target audience for the Advanced Improvised Explosive Device Disposal Course?
TSet/3E871
## Footnote
Secondary audience includes SSgt/3E851.
391
What is the focus of the training requirements outlined in the document?
To ensure personnel are adequately trained and ready for deployment
## Footnote
Emphasizes the importance of safety and skill maintenance.
392
What is the target audience for Advanced Diagnostics Training (ADT) 1 (Nuclear)?
EOD Airmen whose steady-state operations require an awareness of Nuclear Materials of Concern and did not receive the training at NAVSCOLEOD
393
What is the target audience for Advanced Diagnostics Training (ADT) 2 (Nuclear)?
EOD Airmen who may be requested to develop a threat assessment of Nuclear Materials of Concern
394
Who is the target audience for the Joint Nuclear Explosive Ordnance Disposal Course?
SSgt/TSgt/MSgt 3E871 assigned to Custodial Units in AFGSC and USAFE
395
What are the course codes for EOD Homemade Explosive Training?
J5AZA3E851 OORA (ATF-ARMY HME), J5AZD3E851 O0LA (LAN HME), J5AZD3E851 00FA (FBI HME)
396
How many of the EOD Homemade Explosive Training courses can EOD Airmen attend?
Only one of the three courses
397
What is required for EOD personnel to maintain proficiency and qualification?
Participation in an EOD flight training program
398
Which personnel are exempt from the EOD flight training program requirement?
Personnel assigned to AF/A4CX, COCOM, MAJCOM, AFIMSC, AFCEC, Silver Flag, or I-coded positions
399
What happens if personnel in EOD positions do not participate in an EOD training program for longer than 90 days?
They are no longer authorized to perform Team Leader or Team Member duties
400
What must be completed before personnel can perform EOD functions or operations after a 90-day absence from training?
Reenter into an EOD flight training program, complete CFETP core tasks and MTP items evaluations, and complete all missed QA evaluations
401
What type of supervision is required for personnel not meeting EOD training criteria?
Direct supervision of a qualified AF EOD Team Leader, current in a flight training program
402
Fill in the blank: EOD Training Participation requires personnel to maintain proficiency and qualification in a large number of _______.
[critical tasks]
403
True or False: EOD personnel can complete any EOD functions without supervision after 90 days of not participating in an EOD training program.
False
404
What are EOD training programs based on?
CFETP, MTP, and local mission requirements
## Footnote
CFETP stands for Career Field Education and Training Plan, and MTP stands for Master Training Plan.
405
Who maintains training records for EOD personnel?
EOD training sections
## Footnote
This includes personnel assigned to operational EOD flights and those assigned to positions outside of the flight but within their area of operation.
406
What minimum training must be completed if management duties prevent full participation?
Monthly proficiency, nuclear weapons (custodial units only), and Force Readiness Reporting reportable training
## Footnote
This is according to AFI 10-210 and the CFETP 3E8X1.
407
What types of training can be waived by EOD Flight management?
Any missed training except for:
* Monthly demolition pay certification
* Nuclear weapons (custodial units only)
* Supported weapons system
* Compliance
* AFOSH requirements
* Force Readiness Reporting reportable training
## Footnote
AFOSH stands for Air Force Occupational Safety and Health.
408
Under what condition can training be waived?
When the individual demonstrates knowledge and proficiency on the item or task
## Footnote
All waived training must be documented in the approved training program.
409
Fill in the blank: EOD training sections will maintain training records on all personnel assigned to _______.
operational EOD flights
410
True or False: EOD Flight management can waive monthly demolition pay certification training.
False
## Footnote
Monthly demolition pay certification is one of the training types that cannot be waived.
411
What training completion dates does Flight management provide to the Unit Deployment Manager (UDM)?
AFI 10-210 training completion dates
## Footnote
This ensures reporting in the Defense Readiness Reporting System for both home station and Silver Flag training.
412
What has significantly changed the employment of EOD capabilities in tactical environments?
Lessons learned from contingency operations
## Footnote
These changes are not common in home station mission sets.
413
What is the focus of the EOD flight training programs' training philosophy?
Contingency tasks and necessary skills for deployed operations
## Footnote
The training duration is typically 30-90 days.
414
What program will ARC personnel incorporate into their training?
90-day Road to War program
## Footnote
This is part of the pre-deployment training continuum for EOD operators.
415
What must EOD training continue to reinforce?
Skills necessary to deploy to any environment, at any time
## Footnote
This includes supporting US or Coalition general purpose or Special Forces requiring EOD capability.
416
What is the role of the Technical Order Distribution Office Manager in EOD flights?
Establish and maintain T.O. Distribution Office accounts for EOD, nuclear, and general technical orders
## Footnote
This includes establishing sub-accounts as required.
417
Which system is used to manage and input T.O. requirements?
Enhanced Technical Information Management System
## Footnote
This system is utilized for managing technical order requirements.
418
What does the FBI Bomb Data Center and ATF collect information on?
IEDs and terrorist activities encountered by civil law enforcement, public safety, and military agencies
## Footnote
This includes types of IEDs found in various locations.
419
How will the FBI utilize the collected data on IEDs?
Evaluate, record, and disseminate this data to authorized personnel and agencies
## Footnote
This is to aid in preparing contingency plans.
420
Where can you locate United States Bomb Data Center advisories?
On the Joint EOD Portal at https://jeod.disa.mil/alerts
421
Will EOD flights send EODIMS incident reports directly to the FBI Bomb Data Center or ATF?
No
## Footnote
EOD flights will not send any EODIMS incident reports directly.
422
How should EOD flights treat FBI and ATF preprinted documents marked 'RESTRICTED INFORMATION'?
As Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI)
## Footnote
This is in accordance with DoDI 5200.48.
423
What should be done with FBI Bomb Data Center material marked 'RESTRICTED INFORMATION' when no longer needed?
Destroy this material to prevent unauthorized access
424
Fill in the blank: EOD flights will treat FBI and ATF preprinted documents with markings such as '______' as Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI).
RESTRICTED INFORMATION
425
What is the purpose of handling FBI Bomb Data Center material as CUI?
To ensure that unauthorized personnel cannot access it
426
What is required to validate compliance during demolition qualification and practical scenarios in EOD operations?
On-site inspections
## Footnote
Inspections are necessary due to the dynamic and hazardous nature of EOD operations as outlined in CFETP 3E8X1 and the EOD MTP.
427
Who may report lessons learned in EOD operations?
All levels of command
## Footnote
This includes completing After Action Reports at the deployed location or within 30 days after returning from deployment.
428
What is the time frame for completing After Action Reports after returning from deployment?
Within 30 days
## Footnote
Reports can also be completed at the deployed location.
429
What must a person or flight do when they have Lessons Learned?
Provide the issues in writing to the contingency theater headquarters and parent MAJCOM/AFIMSC Detachment EOD Staff
## Footnote
This ensures no redundancy in the Joint Universal Lessons Learned System.
430
What forms are used for submitting After Action Reports and Lessons Learned?
AF Form 4329, AF Form 4329A, AF Form 4330, AF Form 4330A, or EODIMS
## Footnote
These forms are designated for both NIPR and SIPR submissions.
431
What is the responsibility of EOD flights regarding home-station support?
Have a qualified military EOD person participate in the installation's wing inspection team
## Footnote
This ensures proper oversight and support.
432
What must all EOD flights have in place?
A Quality Assurance (QA) program
## Footnote
This program must be performed by qualified military EOD personnel.
433
Who is responsible for oversight of the EOD program?
Flight Management
## Footnote
They must establish a QA program and designate a certified Team Leader.
434
What does the flight QA program consist of?
Team evaluations and functional area inspections
## Footnote
This is necessary for maintaining compliance.
435
What is the role of the certified Team Leader in the flight QA program?
Responsible for administration of the QA program
## Footnote
This includes tracking and monitoring findings or discrepancies.
436
What checklist does the MAJCOM Inspector General use for compliance and operational readiness?
Self-Assessment Checklist
## Footnote
This checklist is used under AFI 90-201 for various inspections.
437
Where can the Self-Assessment Checklist be found?
On the Air Force Inspection Agency website
## Footnote
It is part of the Management Internal Control Toolset.
