Agsa Pharma 1st SEM MIDTERMS Flashcards by Jon Snow

Which of the following anti-epileptic drugs is/are highly plasma-bound?
A. Valproic acid
B. Perampanel
C. Phenytoin
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

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A 56-year-old alcoholic male consumes a six-pack of beer before going to bed. After being absorbed from his gut, blood carries the alcohol through the portal vein into the liver where it can be metabolized. Phase I metabolism of ethanol is carried out by cytochrome P450 2E1. Which of the following is true of phase I metabolism?
A. Always precedes phase II metabolism
B. Are carried out largely in the plasma
C. Examples are oxidation and reduction reactions
D. Includes such reactions as glucuronidation and sulfation

C. Examples are oxidation and reduction reactions

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When treating patients with Parkinson’s disease, there are three dopamine agonists: pramipexole, ropinirole, and rotigotine. Regarding the pharmacokinetics of these agents, which of the parameters might suggest favorable clinical efficacy for pramipexole?
A. Hepatic excretion capability
B. Volume of distribution
C. Bioavailability
D. Half-life

C. Bioavailability

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A 14-year-old boy who has diabetes and is insulin dependent is brought to the emergency department after collapsing at a baseball game. His blood sugar is 463 mg/dL by finger stick. Which of the following routes of administration would be most efficacious for medications to bring the blood sugar down?
A. Intramuscular
B. Intravenous
C. Oral
D. Subcutaneous

B. Intravenous

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Which of the following MAO inhibitors can be displaced by tyramine?
A. Selegiline
B. Isocarboxazid
C. Phenelzine
D. Moclobemide

A. Selegiline

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A researcher is studying the bioavailability of commonly used antimuscarinics to treat irritable bowel syndrome. Medication A is administered in a 100 mg daily dose orally and 60 mg of the drug is absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract unchanged. Thus, the bioavailability of Medication A is
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%

B. 60%

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Which part of the poppy plant is used to produce morphine?
A. Roots
B. Stem
C. Sap of the unripe seed capsule
D. Petals

C. Sap of the unripe seed capsule

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Levodopa acts on what type of dopamine receptors?
A. D1
B. D2
C. D3
D. D4

B. D2

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Researchers interested in studying a certain cytochrome P450 enzyme wish to isolate the enzyme of interest from the many other proteins in the cells. One of their initial steps is to lyse the cells and isolate the organelle which carries the enzyme they want to study. Which organelle will they isolate to find CYP enzymes?
A. Golgi apparatus
B. Mitochondria
C. Peroxisomes
D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

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A patient with severe bronchial asthma is to undergo radical mastectomy. The anesthesiologist plans to administer balanced anesthesia. Which of the following inhaled anesthetics should be avoided for this patient?
A. Halothane
B. Sevoflurane
C. Nitrous oxide
D. Desflurane

C. Nitrous oxide

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Which of the following symptoms is the hallmark of Delirium Tremens?
A. Tremors
B. Diaphoresis
C. Hallucinations
D. Profound global confusion

D. Profound global confusion

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Antimicrobial resistance can develop at any one or more of steps in the processes by which a drug reaches and combines with its target. Thus, resistance development may develop due to, EXCEPT:
A. Development of alternative pathways to those inhibited by the antibiotic
B. Release of microbial enzymes that alter or destroy the antibiotic
C. Reduced export of antibiotic by efflux pumps
D. Reduced entry of antibiotic into pathogen
E. Alteration of target proteins

C. Reduced export of antibiotic by efflux pumps

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A surgeon complains of tremors, a condition he shares with some of his family members. He fears that this can interfere with his line of work. Which of the following drugs is the first line of treatment for essential tremors?
A. Levodopa-carbidopa
B. Nebivolol
C. Propranolol
D. Botulinum toxin A

C. Propranolol

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A 59-year-old man is going to undergo a prostate needle biopsy by his urologist. As a preparation for the procedure, he is required to take a fleet enema per rectum and a one time dose of ciprofloxacin 500 mg prior to the procedure. He has a prior medical history of diabetes mellitus, which is controlled with diet. Administration of the medication results in a peak plasma concentration of 20 mg/mL. What is the apparent volume of drug distribution?
A. 0.5 L
B. 1 L
C. 5 L
D. 25 L

D. 25 L

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Which among the following opioids have the strongest affinity to the kappa receptor?
A. Nalbuphine
B. Butorphanol
C. Morphine
D. Fentanyl

B. Butorphanol

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What is the half life of phenobarbital?
A. 5 hours
B. 6-8 hours
C. 1-2 days
D. 4-5 days

D. 4-5 days

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A case of epilepsy is classified as pharmacoresistant when seizure control is not achieved after using at least how many appropriate anti-epileptic drugs?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

B. 2

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Which of the following medications does NOT increase benzodiazepine levels in the blood?
A. Miconazole
B. Verapamil
C. Azithromycin
D. Clarithromycin

C. Azithromycin

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Which of the following molecules work through retrograde signaling?
A. Cocaine
B. Curare
C. Opioids
D. Endocannabinoids

D. Endocannabinoids

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One of the main adverse effects of this drug is loss of libido and so it is useful for patients who have premature ejaculation. Which among the following is this drug?
A. Amitriptyline
B. Escitalopram
C. Venlafaxine
D. Trazodone

B. Escitalopram

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A 30-year-old man with HIV disease and hepatic insufficiency presents to his primary care physician complaining of rectal pain and bleeding with bowel movements. Physical examination reveals several internal and external hemorrhoids. The patient would like to avoid surgical therapy for this condition. Which of the following routes of drug administration would be preferred in this patient?
A. Intramuscular
B. Intravenous
C. Rectal
D. Enteral

C. Rectal

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A drug that binds to a receptor and produces a biological response that mimics the response to the endogenous ligand is known as
A. Agonist
B. Antagonist
C. Partial agonist
D. Partial antagonist

A. Agonist

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What is the common cause of death from methanol poisoning?
A. Brain herniation
B. Massive GI bleeding
C. Sudden respiratory arrest
D. Chronic kidney failure

C. Sudden respiratory arrest

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A 25-year-old man takes a 100 mg dose of medication X. This drug is taken orally and becomes biotransformed by metabolism in the liver and secondary metabolism in the kidneys. This defines which of the following processes?
A. Absorption
B. Catabolism
C. Distribution
D. Elimination
E. Metabolism

E. Metabolism

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What is given to patients admitted for alcohol intoxication / chronic alcohol consumption to prevent Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome? A. Intravenous High dose vitamin C B. Intravenous vitamin D C. Intravenous Vitamin B complex D. Diazepam tablets

C. Intravenous Vitamin B complex

You are the physician on duty when a couple brings in their child in the ER for seizures. Upon further history taking, you discovered that the patient was diagnosed with phenylketonuria during newborn screening. Which of the following anti-epileptic drugs should you avoid giving this child? A. Zonisamide B. Clonazepam C. Lacosamide D. Oxcarbazepine

C. Lacosamide

A hospitalized patient with systemic infection is receiving intravenous antibiotics. He also has hepatic and renal insufficiency. After receiving medications for 5 days, he is found by nursing staff to be jaundiced. Drug toxicology profile is obtained and indicated drug levels of 10 times the acceptable value. Which of the following drug administration schemes is most likely to explain this situation? A. Continuous IV infusion B. Once weekly IV injection C. Single daily IV injection D. Twice daily IV injection

D. Twice daily IV injection

A 20-year-old boy who has diabetes and is insulin dependent is brought to the emergency department after collapsing at a soccer game. His blood sugar is 501 mg/dL by finger stick. Which of the following routes of administration would be most efficacious for medications to bring the blood sugar down? A. Intramuscular B. Subcutaneous C. Intravenous D. Sublingual

C. Intravenous

Which of the following medications undergo fast elimination? A. Succinylcholine B. Tubocurarine C. Rocuronium D. Atracurium

A. Succinylcholine

Your cousin has recently given birth via Cesarean section. It was her first operation and knowing that you are a medical student, she tells you that she was given intravenous anesthesia after her epidural anesthesia. She was still able to respond to the anesthesiologist when she was asked questions but the drug made her a bit drowsy. What approach to anesthesia was employed when she was given the intravenous drug? A. Balanced anesthesia B. Deep sedation C. Conscious sedation D. Monitored anesthesia

C. Conscious sedation

A 24-year-old primigravid female’s water breaks at 39 weeks gestation. Twenty-four hours later, she is having regular contractions 3 min apart. Her labor lasts 8 h. At the hospital, she gives birth to a baby boy, who initially appeared healthy. Within the next 12 h, the baby boy begins to have temperature fluctuations, difficulty breathing, and reduced movements. You suspect neonatal sepsis, so IV gentamicin plus ampicillin is started. Gentamicin and ampicillin are commonly used together because the combined effect is greater than the additive effects of both alone. This increased effectiveness is an example of what principle? A. Agonism B. Anergy C. Symbiosis D. Synergy

D. Synergy

A 47-year-old man with AIDS is hospitalized for a fever of unknown origin. He is placed in a combination of antibiotics including a B-lactam and an aminoglycoside. The rationale behind the use of multiple antibiotics includes which of the following? A. Hepatotoxicity B. Nephrotoxicity C. Synergism D. Toxicity

C. Synergism

After debridement of the extensive wound in his right thigh, the patient complains of urinary retention and numbness in his perineal region. The anesthesiologist attributes this to the high doses of anesthetics given during continuous spinal anesthesia. What is this condition? A. Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) B. Transient Neurologic Symptoms (TNS) C. Cauda Equina Syndrome D. Conus Medullaris Syndrome

C. Cauda Equina Syndrome

Which of the following scenarios necessitate giving muscle relaxants? A. Intra abdominal and intrathoracic surgical procedures. B. Intractable status epilepticus C. Endotracheal intubation D. All of the above

D. All of the above

The lowest concentration of the agent that prevents visible growth after 18–24 h of incubation is known as A. Minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC) B. Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) C. Minimum effective concentration (MEC) D. none of the above

B. Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)

A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia manifested with Parkinsonism. Which of the following drugs could induce these symptoms? A. Clozapine B. Fluoxetine C. Escitalopram D. Haloperidol

D. Haloperidol

Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Levodopa cannot cross the blood-brain barrier B. Dopamine is degraded by COMT C. Levodopa should be taken before meals to improve absorption D. A and B only

D. A and B only

Influx of what ion causes the release of acetylcholine from the presynaptic neuron? A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Calcium D. Magnesium

C. Calcium

A 40-year-old man is brought to the emergency department complaining of dyspnea. He has a history of asthma and has had multiple asthma attacks requiring intubation for airway maintenance. He is noncompliant with his medications prescribed for this condition. Physical examination reveals a young man in acute distress. His room air oxygen saturation is 87%. In addition to administration of oxygen, immediate drug administration of albuterol should be administered by which of the following routes? A. Inhalation B. Intranasal puff metered dose C. Subcutaneous D. Sublingual

A. Inhalation

You were in a club hanging out with your friends when a commotion started on the dance floor. A person was having a seizure. His companions say that he was unusually agitated since an hour ago. They claim that the person is not a known epileptic. They worry that it may be because he had way too many ecstasy pills tonight. As a medical student, you suspect that this person is experiencing this life-threatening syndrome of excess neurotransmitter affected by ecstasy. What is this neurotransmitter? A. Epinephrine B. Serotonin C. Dopamine D. Endorphine

B. Serotonin

Which of the following anti-epileptic drugs and potential teratogenicity is correctly paired? A. Topiramate – oral cleft B. Valproic acid – spina bifida C. Phenobarbital – cardiac defects D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Where are opioid receptors found in the synapse? A. Post-synaptic cell B. Presynaptic cell C. Glial cell D. A and B only

D. A and B only

A 47-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder needs a refill on her lithium prescription. She also has hypertension that is well controlled with an ACE inhibitor. Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index. Which of the following describes a narrow therapeutic index? A. The chance of toxicity is remote at the therapeutic dose B. The ratio of TD50 to ED50 equals 1 C. The therapeutic dose approaches the toxic dose D. The therapeutic dose is much greater than the toxic dose

C. The therapeutic dose approaches the toxic dose

Which endogenous opioids are called “happy hormones” A. Serotonin B. Dopamine C. Oxytocin D. Endorphins

D. Endorphins

Which of the following is NOT an effect of volatile anesthetics? A. Reduced BP B. Decreased cerebral blood flow C. Mucus pooling D. Tachycardia

B. Decreased cerebral blood flow

Which of the following medications is the best one to prescribe to a 24-year old male with epilepsy with concurrent bipolar disorder? A. Perampanel B. Lamotrigine C. Topiramate D. Levetiracetam

B. Lamotrigine

The Minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC) of desflurane is 6.0-7 .0 while sevoflurane is 2.0. Which is the more potent drug? A. Desflurane B. Sevoflurane C. Cannot determine because MAC is not a measure of drug potency.

B. Sevoflurane

Livedo reticularis is an adverse event seen with the use of what drug? A. Tolcapone B. Bromocriptine C. Pramipexole D. Amantadine

D. Amantadine

Which of the following drugs is used for the treatment of bulimia? A. Duloxetine B. Fluoxetine C. Paroxetine D. Venlafaxine

B. Fluoxetine

Which of the following medications may be given for spasticity associated with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)? A. Baclofen B. Succinylcholine C. Riluzole D. Gabapentin

C. Riluzole

What highly selective alpha-2 adrenergic agonist is used for short term sedation of intubated patients in ICU as a continuous infusion should be intermittently closed because of a steep rise in its context-sensitive half-time after around an hour? A. Propofol B. Midazolam C. Diazepam D. Dexmedetomidine

D. Dexmedetomidine

A drug that binds to a receptor and produces a biological response that mimics the response to the endogenous ligand is known as A. Agonist B. Antagonist C. Functional antagonist D. Partial agonist

A. Agonist

A 75-year-old man with end-stage Alzheimer’s disease and dysphagia is taking multiple medications. Physical examination reveals xerostomia and a limited gag reflex. Which of the following routes of medication administration would provide the lowest serum drug concentration? A. Enteral B. Intramuscular C. Intrathecal D. Intravenous

A. Enteral

In the metabolism of ethanol, which enzyme is inhibited by disulfiram? A. Alcohol dehydrogenase B. Cytochrome P450 C. Acetaldehyde hydroxylase D. Aldehyde dehydrogenase

D. Aldehyde dehydrogenase

Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Glutamate promotes the entry of sodium into the postsynaptic neuron to cause hyperpolarization. B. GABA promotes the uptake of chloride into the presynaptic neuron to cause hyperpolarization. C. Hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic neuron propagates an impulse. D. None of the above

D. None of the above

Which of the following is true about ethanol? A. It is the most commonly abused drug in the world B. Peaks in the blood after several hours in fasting states C. Absorption is unaffected by food. D. Ethanol cannot cross the blood-brain barrier

A. It is the most commonly abused drug in the world

Which of the following is NOT a desired effect of general anesthesia? A. Complete analgesia B. Unconsciousness C. Inhibition of reflexes D. Retrograde amnesia

A. Complete analgesia

A 24-year-old woman complains of irritability, restlessness, and trouble sleeping. She says that she worries about everything. The physician prescribes diazepam to help calm her anxiety. Diazepam must cross the blood–brain barrier to be effective. Which of the following characteristics would help a drug molecule cross this barrier? A. Hydrophilicity B. Large size C. Lipid solubility D. Weak acid with pKa of 4

C. Lipid solubility

You are an intern-on-duty in the pediatric ward and you received a patient endorsed as a case of fetal alcohol syndrome. Which of the following physical features is observed in such cases? A. Underdeveloped midfacial region B. Decreased head circumference for age C. Low birth weight D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Low dose opioids do not cause paralysis or affect volitional movement when administered because of which reason? A. Opioids only affect ascending pathways. B. Opioids are not potent enough to cause muscle paralysis. C. Opioids must be given with sedatives in order to achieve that effect. D. A and B only E. All of the above

A. Opioids only affect ascending pathways.

You are the resident-on-duty in the wards when a patient admitted for seizures was referred to you at 11:00 PM for difficulty sleeping which has been a chronic problem. As a diligent physician-on-duty, you reviewed her chart and noticed that she was given a total of 5 doses of Diazepam 5mg today due to her seizures. This makes you not consider diazepam as the drug of choice to give for this patient’s insomnia because you recalled learning in your pharmacology class that diazepam produces this metabolite which has a half-life of 40 hours. A. Demoxepam B. Desmethyldiazepam C. Desmethyldiazepam D. Clonazepam

B. Desmethyldiazepam pati C ewan bat same sila haha

A 58-year-old man is recovering in the hospital following a heart attack. He started on clopidogrel. The initial dose, also known as the loading dose, is higher than his normal daily dose, also known as the maintenance dose. Which of the following represents the calculation for a maintenance dose? A. =0.7xVd/t1/2 B. = amount of drug in body/drug plasma concentration C. =CpxCL/F D. =CpxVd/F

C. =CpxCL/F

What is the mechanism of action of endocannabinoids at the synapse? A. Inhibition of neurotransmitter production in the presynaptic neuron B. Inhibition of packing of neurotransmitters into vesicles in the presynaptic neuron C. Antagonist to postsynaptic receptors D. Retrograde signaling from the postsynaptic to the presynaptic neuron

D. Retrograde signaling from the postsynaptic to the presynaptic neuron

A patient receives a single dose of antibiotics following a prostate needle biopsy. He takes 500mg of ciprofloxacin immediately after completion of the procedure. The half-life of the medication is 8 h. At approximately how many half-lives will it take for 90% of the drug to be excreted from the body? A. 1.0 B. 2.0 C. 3.0 D. 3.3

D. 3.3

One must be aware of the different drug-drug interactions when prescribing valproic acid to their patients. Which of the following statements is/are true about these interactions? A. Valproic acid can cause idiosyncratic thrombocytopenia. B. Valproic acid can increase phenytoin blood levels. C. Valproic acid can increase lamotrigine blood levels. D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following drugs act on the synaptic cleft? A. Lamotrigine B. Physostigmine C. Endocannabinoids D. Perampanel E. Atropine

B. Physostigmine

A 34-year-old man with DM type II presents to his primary care physician complaining of rectal pain and bleeding with bowel movements. Several internal and external hemorrhoids were the findings in the physical examination. The patient would like to avoid surgical therapy for this condition. Which of the following routes of drug administration would be preferred in this patient? A. Intramuscular B. Intravenous C. Transdermal D. Rectal

D. Rectal

The P-glycoprotein is a multidrug transmembrane transporter protein that transports medications across cell membranes. Functions of this protein include A. Pumping drugs into the urine for excretion B. Transport of drugs into liver hepatocytes C. Transport of drugs into fetal circulation for fetal treatment D. Transport of drugs from the intestinal lumen to the circulation

A. Pumping drugs into the urine for excretion

A potential beneficial effect of a long-acting benzodiazepine, flurazepam, may have a cost-effective property beneficial to the development of a generic form. This could be related to which of the following areas? A. Adverse effects B. Efficacy C. Timing of administration D. Toxicity

B. Efficacy

A hospitalized patient with systemic candidiasis is receiving intravenous antifungal medications. He also has hepatic and renal insufficiency. Which of the following drug administration schemes would allow for the most steady state amount of drug in the body over a 2-week hospitalization period where medication administration will be necessary? A. Continuous IV infusion B. Once weekly IV injection C. Single daily IV injection D. Twice daily IV injection

A. Continuous IV infusion

Persons who abuse cocaine often abuse amphetamine too as these two drugs of abuse ensure abundance of a certain neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft. What is this neurotransmitter? A. Epinephrine B. Serotonin C. Dopamine D. Endorphine

C. Dopamine

Which of the following is/are contraindications to levodopa therapy? A. Angle-closure glaucoma B. Psychosis C. History of melanoma D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following drugs is excreted unchanged in the urine? A. Alprazolam B. Butabarbital C. Zolpidem D. Phenobarbital

D. Phenobarbital

The penetration of a drug into an anatomical compartment depends on A. The physical barriers that the molecule must traverse B. The presence of multidrug transporters C. The chemical properties of the drug D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following drugs is an ergot-derivative? A. Bromocriptine B. Pergolide C. Ropinirole D. A & B

D. A & B

You are the resident-on-duty in the wards when a patient admitted for seizures was referred to you at 11:00 PM for difficulty sleeping which has been a chronic problem. As a diligent physician-on-duty, you reviewed her chart and noticed that she was given a total of 5 doses of Diazepam 5mg today due to her seizures. This makes you not consider diazepam as the drug of choice to give for this patient’s insomnia because you recalled learning in your pharmacology class that diazepam produces this metabolite which has a half-life of 40 hours. Other than diazepam, what other drugs can produce this metabolite? A. Alprazolam B. Triazolam C. Prazepam D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following drugs is effective in treating the extrapyramidal side effects of levodopa-carbidopa treatment? A. Amantadine B. Entacapone C. Pramipexole D. Bromocriptine

A. Amantadine

A medical student is doing a summer research project studying five antibiotics to determine potency using the EC50. Antibiotics are placed in plated culture wells with 100,000 CFU of Escherichia coli. The EC50 results for the five antibiotics are shown in the following choices. Based on the results, the most potent antibiotic is A. Antibiotic A EC50 = 100 B. Antibiotic B EC50 = 2 C. Antibiotic C EC50 = 80 D. Antibiotic D EC50 = 20

B. Antibiotic B EC50 = 2

A 17-year-old woman who is a college freshman presents to the student health clinic complaining of a creamy discharge from her vagina. She is not sexually active. Physical examination reveals an intact hymenal ring with no evidence of pelvic prolapse. The patient is given a prescription of fluconazole to be taken daily (q 12 h) for 3 days. The half-life is 12 h. How long will it take for the medication to reach 90% of its final steady state level? A. 10 h B. 20 h C. 30 h D. 40 h

D. 40 h

Which of the following medications can be given for a patient diagnosed with Parkinson’s Disease who is going to undergo gastrectomy, therefore, is expected to have no oral intake for several days? A. Pramipexole B. Fluoxetine C. Ropinirole D. Risperidone

NO CORRECT ANSWER DAW Rotigotine is given as a patch and it is helpful for patients with severe Parkinsonism who are not able to swallow their medications (dysphagia)

A 28-year-old man complains of trouble sleeping, irritability and restlessness. He says that he worries about everything. The physician prescribes diazepam to help calm his anxiety. Diazepam must cross the blood–brain barrier to be effective A. Weak base with pKa of 9 B. Lipid solubility C. Hydrophilicity D. Large size

B. Lipid solubility

It is used as a substitute for universal prophylaxis and as early targeted therapy in high-risk patients who already have a laboratory or other test indicating that an asymptomatic patient is infected. The principle is that delivery of therapy prior to development of symptoms aborts impending disease, and the therapy is for a short and defined duration. A. Preemptive Therapy B. Suppressive Therapy C. Definitive Therapy D. Empiric Therapy

A. Preemptive Therapy

Which of the following medications must be avoided for patients with liver disease? A. Nefazodone B. Fluvoxamine C. Desipramine D. Trazodone

A. Nefazodone

Which of the following is the preferred anti-epileptic drug for a 16-year old female college student who has been diagnosed with absence seizures? A. Valproic acid B. Lamotrigine C. Carbamazepine D. Clobazam

B. Lamotrigine

Which of the following conditions may benefit from Baclofen? A. Intractable hiccups B. Cluster headache C. Low back pain D. All of the above

D. All of the above

100.A 27-year-old man presents to his primary care physician complaining of dysuria, urgency, and painful ejaculation. The patient has a past medical history of allergic rhinitis. Physical examination reveals a tender prostate. The patient is given a prescription of sulfamethoxazole to be taken daily (q 12 h) for 30 days. The half-life is 12 h. How long will it take for the medication to reach 90% of its final steady state level? A. 10 h B. 20 h C. 30 h D. 40 h

D. 40 h

1. Oral 2. Intravenous 3. Rectal 4. Topical 5. Inhalation A. absorption is erratic and variable B. absorption not required C. safest and most common, convenient and economical route of administration D. Suitable when local effect of the drug is required E. Most addictive route (drug can enter the brain quickly)

C - Oral B - Intravenous A - Rectal D - Topical E - Inhalation

Common antidotes and indications 1. Isoniazid seizures 2. Paracetamol 3. Coumarin, indanedione 4. Cyanide A. Acetylcysteine B. Vitamin K1 (phytonadione) C. Hydroxocobalamin hydrochloride D. Pyridoxine hydrochloride

D - Isoniazid seizures A - Paracetamol B - Coumarin, indanedione C - Cyanide

Which of the following statements about Baclofen is FALSE? A. It works on the GABA A receptor. B. It is as effective as diazepam but is less sedating. C. It does not reduce overall muscle strength D. It inhibits the release of substance P in the spinal cord.

A. It works on the GABA A receptor. - GABA B

In traffic-related arrests, when trying to determine if a person is intoxicated or not, authorities may use which samples to detect the presence of ethanol? A. Breath B. Urine C. Stool D. A and B only

D. A and B only

Which drug of abuse is commonly sprinkled in blotting paper and commonly used by artists to inspire art since it does not induce dependence? A. Cocaine B. Ketamine C. LSD D. Amphetamine

C. LSD

Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Even binge drinking can induce cardiac arrhythmias B. Hypertension is linked to alcohol consumption of three drinks per day. C. Alcohol decreases production of endogenous tissue plasminogen activator. D. A and B only

D. A and B only

Which of the following is TRUE? A. Glutamate is released from the presynaptic membrane via sodium-mediated exocytosis. B. Glutamine is converted back to glutamate by glutamate synthetase. C. Glutamine is converted back to glutamate in the glial cell. D. Glutamate is converted to glutamine by glutamine synthetase

D. Glutamate is converted to glutamine by glutamine synthetase

Agsa Pharma 1st SEM MIDTERMS Flashcards

(93 cards)