Air Law Flashcards
(245 cards)
1
Q
What is the ICAO council?
A
The Council is the permanent body of ICAO
2
Q
What do SARPs stand for?
A
Standards and Recommended Practices
3
Q
Which body is responsible for introducing Procedures for Air Navigation Services?
A
The Air Navigation Commission
4
Q
How often does the Assembly of the ICAO meet?
A
Every 3 years
5
Q
At which convention was ICAO established?
A
The Chicago convention
6
Q
What is included in annex 7 to the Chicago convention?
A
Annex 7 contains standards adopted by ICAO as the minimum standards for the display of nationality marks and registration marks - this document provides definitions, location and size of registration marks and nationality symbols.
7
Q
What is included in annex 17 to the Chicago convention?
A
Annex 17 includes SARPs concerned with the security of international air transport
8
Q
What is included in annex 3 to the Chicago convention?
A
Annex 3 contains the SARPs and certain guidelines for the management of meteorological services to the international air navigation
9
Q
Which body provides administrative and technical assistance to the ICAO council?
A
The Secretariat
10
Q
What is included in annex 15 to the Chicago convention?
A
Annex 15 contains SARPs for the provision of the Aeronautical Information Service (AIS)
11
Q
For how long can a contracting state validate a Certificate of Airworthiness (CofA) issued by another state?
A
No longer than the original issue
12
Q
Which items should be included in a CofA application for a new aircraft?
A
-Weight and balance report,
-Statement of conformity,
-The flight manual
13
Q
How many licences for each aircraft category can a pilot hold?
A
1
14
Q
What does Part-FCL consider as “instrument time”?
A
The time which a pilot is controlling an aircraft in flight solely by reference to instruments or the time during which a pilot is receiving instruction in simulated instrument flight, in FSTD.
15
Q
What language abilities must a holder of an Instrument Rating (IR) demonstrate?
A
Ability to use radio-telephony, understanding of the information needed to prepare and accomplish a flight, and ability to communicate effectively with other crew members, all in English.
16
Q
Which items must be included in a CofA application for a used aircraft?
A
-Historical records of aircraft maintenance;
-The flight manual,
-Weight and balance report,
-Statement of conformity
17
Q
Which aircraft are required to hold a CofA?
A
All aircraft engaged in international navigation
18
Q
Who is responsible for determining the aircraft continuing airworthiness?
A
The contracting state of the registry
19
Q
Where should registration, nationality and common marks be on an aeroplane?
A
On the wing’s lower surface and either the fuselage or the vertical tail surface
20
Q
Which lights must be displayed during the day by an aircraft in flight?
A
Anti-collision lights
21
Q
What should be done when there are two aircraft approaching head-on on the ground?
A
Both aircraft should stop, then, if possible, change their way to the right
22
Q
Which lights must be displayed at night by aircraft on the ground?
A
-Navigation lights,
-Anti-collision lights,
-Lights indicating engines are running
23
Q
When two aircraft of the same type are converging in flight, which of them has the right of way?
A
The aircraft on the right of the other
24
Q
Referring to the rules for the avoidance of collision, the PIC must….
A
Take any action required to avoid collision
25
In which meteorological conditions is flying under IFR possible?
VMC and IMC
26
Which light signal should ATS use to warn an aircraft in flight that an aerodrome is not safe to land?
Red flashes
27
The cruising levels above the lowest usable flight level are expressed in terms of ____, while those below that height are expressed in terms of _____.
Flight levels; Altitude
28
Which lights must be displayed at night by an aircraft in flight?
-Navigation lights (unless an aircraft is a ballon);
-Anti-collision lights;
-The lights that are compulsory during the day.
29
Which lights must be displayed during the day by an aircraft on the ground?
Anti-collision lights
30
Which flight levels are available for VFR and IFR flights according to their magnetic tracks?
VFR flight levels end in “5”
IFR flight levels end in “0”
Magnetic headings 0º to 179º have ODD flight levels
Magnetic headings 180º to 359º have EVEN flight levels
31
In which case is deviation form flight plant permitted?
If requested OR emergency
32
Minimum permitted altitude for VFR flights over congested areas is _______ over the highest obstacle in the proximity of _____ the aircraft.
1000 ft; 600m
33
Essentials to perform a simulated instrument flight
-Doubled, fully functional controls;
-Qualified safety pilot
34
The minimum permitted altitude for VFR flights over uncongested areas is ____ over the ground or highest obstacle in the proximity of ___ of the aircraft, if any.
500ft; 150m
35
Consider VFR flight at altitude 10 000ft AMSL in class C airspace. Which weather minima must the pilot preserve?
Horizontal distance from cloud - 1500m;
Vertical distance from clod - 1000 ft (300m);
Flight visibility - 5km.
36
What are the responsibilities associated with a controlled VFR flight?
-Obtaining ATC clearances;
-Maintaining voice communication watch;
-Reporting position (unless instructed otherwise by ATS).
37
Which information has to be included in a request for a change in flight plan route?
-Aircraft identification;
-Flight rules;
-New time estimates
38
In what circumstances must a new flight plan be submitted?
If EOBT delay of >30min in controlled flight
OR
If EOBT delay of >60min in uncontrolled flight
39
In which circumstances is an aircraft likely to be intercepted?
-When an aircraft enters the airspace of a state through a different route from the one stated in the overflight permission;
-When an aircraft deviated from a flight plan without known cause;
-When an aircraft cannot be identified;
-When an aircraft enters a prohibited zone;
-When an aircraft does not follow instructions;
-When an aircraft is considered a hazard;
-When an aircraft is suspected to be engaged in illegal activity.
40
Which action should the ATC take if they suspect a communication loss?
-Confirm it by asking the pilot to send a signal or perform a maneuver;
-Continue to send blind instructions;
-Employ light signals if the aircraft is a part of the aerodrome’s traffic pattern.
41
If unlawful interference occurs to an aircraft, which code should the flight crew set the transponder to?
7500
42
According to SERA, which situations can be considered an act of unlawful interference?
-Spreading misinformation;
-Aircraft seizure;
-Bringing dangerous materials on board.
43
Which of the following documents have to be on board for an international flight?
a) Certificate of aircraft registration
b) Certificate of airworthiness
c) Airworthiness review certificate
d) EASA Form-1
e) Airplane logbook
f) Appropriate papers for every crew member
g) Technical logbook
b, c, d, e, f, g
a, b, c, e, f
a, b, e, g
d, f, g
a, b, c, e, f
44
Which area could be crossed with certain restrictions?
No-fly zone
Restricted area
Prohibited area
Dangerous area
Restricted area
45
Where can the type of restriction for a restricted airspace be found?
NOTAM
AIC
ICAO chart 1:500000
AIP
AIP
46
What is the status of the rules and procedures created by the EASA?
(e.g. Part-SFCL, Part-MED)
They have the same status as ICAO Annexes
Only after a ratification by individual EU member states they are legally binding
They are not legally binding, they only serve as a guide
They are part of the EU regulation and legally binding to all EU member states
They are part of the EU regulation and legally binding to all EU member states
47
Which validity does the "Certificate of Airworthiness" have?
6 months
12 years
Unlimited
12 months
Unlimited
48
What is the meaning of the abbreviation "ARC"?
Airworthiness Recurring Control
Airspace Rulemaking Committee
Airspace Restriction Criteria
Airworthiness Review Certificate
Airworthiness Review Certificate
49
The "Certificate of Airworthiness" is issued by the state...
in which the aircraft is registered.
of the residence of the owner.
in which the aircraft is constructed.
in which the airworthiness review is done.
in which the aircraft is registered.
50
A pilot license issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 is valid in...
those countries that have accepted this license on application.
the country where the license was issued.
all ICAO countries.
the country where the license was acquired.
all ICAO countries.
51
What is the subject of ICAO Annex 1?
Air traffic services
Flight crew licensing
Rules of the air
Operation of aircraft
Flight crew licensing
52
What is the period of validity of a private pilot license (PPL)?
Unlimited
24 months
48 months
60 months
Unlimited
53
What is the minimum age to obtain a private pilot license?
17 years
21 years
16 years
18 years
17 years
54
What are the minimum requirements among others to acquire a rating for VFR night flights?
At least 10 additional flight hours at night, three of them with a flight instructor with at least 1
hour cross-country flight plus 5 solo take-offs and full-stop landings
At least 5 additional flight hours at night, four of them with a flight instructor with at least 1 hour cross-country flight plus 5 solo take-offs and full-stop landings
At least 5 additional flight hours at night, three of them with a flight instructor with at least 1 hour cross-country flight plus 5 solo take-offs and full-stop landings
At least 5 additional flight hours at night, three of them with a flight instructor with at least 1 hour cross-country flight plus 10 solo take-offs and full-stop landings
At least 5 additional flight hours at night, three of them with a flight instructor with at least 1 hour cross-country flight plus 5 solo take-offs and full-stop landings
55
The validity of a medical examination certificate class 2 for a 62 years old pilot is...
60 Months.
48 Months.
24 Months.
12 Months.
12 Months
56
In which way is a SEP (land) rating renewed if you do not meet the required flight time?
A proficiency check with an examiner
According to the flight experience there have to be several training flights under supervision of
an ATO
The ATO can renew the rating after a training flight with a flight instructor
The required flight experience has to be accumulated under supervision of a flight instructor
A proficiency check with an examiner
57
The possession of a european PPL(A) entitles the holder to...
act as pilot on a commercial flight when there are at most 4 people on board.
act as pilot in commercial and non-commercial flights with single engine aircraft.
act as PIC, and only for flights in aircraft with a MTOW of maximum 2000 kg a compensation may be obtained.
act as PIC on non-commercial flights without compensation as well as to receive compensation as a flight instructor.
act as PIC on non-commercial flights without compensation as well as to receive compensation as a flight instructor.
58
What is the minimum age to start a private pilot training at a flight school?
16 years
17 years
21 years
18 years
16 years
59
What is the meaning of the abbreviation "SERA"?
Selective Radar Altimeter
Standardized European Rules of the Air
Specialized Radar Approach
Standard European Routes of the Air
tandardized European Rules of the Air
60
What is the meaning of the abbreviation "TRA"?
Temporary Reserved Airspace
Temporary Radar Routing Area
Transponder Area
Terminal Area
Temporary Reserved Airspace
61
What has to be considered when entering an RMZ?
To permanently monitor the radio and if possible to establish radio contact
To obtain a clearance from the local aviation authority
The transponder has to be switched on Mode C and squawk 7000
To obtain a clearance to enter this area
To permanently monitor the radio and if possible to establish radio contact
62
What condition has to be met during a Special VFR flight?
Visual reference to the terrain
Speed not above 115 kt IAS
At least 500 m ground visibility
A minimum distance to clouds of 2000 m
Visual reference to the terrain
63
What has to be done before entering a TMZ?
Switch on the transponder and activate mode A and C or mode S
Request a clearance before entering
Switch on the transponder, activate mode A, and squawk "IDENT"
File a flight plan before the flight
Switch on the transponder and activate mode A and C or mode S
64
What is the meaning of an area marked as "TMZ"?
Transportation Management Zone
Touring Motorglider Zone
Traffic Management Zone
Transponder Mandatory Zone
Transponder Mandatory Zone
65
What is the meaning of the abbreviation "IFR"?
Instrument Flight Rules
Instrument Meteorological Conditions
Bad Weather Flight Rules
Commercial Flight Rules
Instrument Flight Rules
66
A flight is called a "visual flight", if the...
visibility in flight is more than 8 km.
flight is conducted under visual flight rules.
visibility in flight is more than 5 km.
flight is conducted in visual meteorological conditions.
flight is conducted under visual flight rules
67
What is the meaning of the abbreviation "VMC"?
Instrument flight conditions
Variable meteorological conditions
Visual meteorological conditions
Visual flight rules
Visual meteorological conditions
68
Two engine-driven aircraft are flying on crossing courses at the same altitude.
Which one has to divert?
The lighter one has to climb
Both have to divert to the right
The heavier one has to climb
Both have to divert to the left
Both have to divert to the right
69
Two aeroplanes are flying on crossing tracks.
Which one has to divert?
The aircraft which flies from left to right has the right of priority
Both have to divert to the right
The aircraft which flies from right to left has the right of priority
Both have to divert to the left
The aircraft which flies from right to left has the right of priority
70
In airspace "D" a Boeing 737 and a Cessna 152 are flying on crossing courses.
Which aeroplane has to divert?
The Cessna 152, because IFR and commercial flights have priority
The air traffic control (ATC) has to decide which one has to divert
The aeroplane flying from right to left has priority, the other one has to divert
The Boeing 737, because an airliner has greater power reserves
The aeroplane flying from right to left has priority, the other one has to divert
71
Which of the following options is NOT a sufficient reason to fly below the required minimum height?
Take-off or landing at an aerodrome
An approach without landing at an aerodrome
Bad weather conditions in the vicinity of an aerodrome
The drop of towed objects at an aerodrome
Bad weather conditions in the vicinity of an aerodrome
72
A single-engine piston and a turboprop aeroplane are approaching each other opposite at the same altitude.
Which aeroplane has to change its track to avoid a collision?
The turboprop aircraft has to give way to the single-engine piston aircraft
Both aircraft have to alter their tracks to the left
Both aircraft have to alter their tracks to the right
The single-engine piston aircraft has to give way to the turboprop aircraft
Both aircraft have to alter their tracks to the right
73
Which distances to clouds have to be maintained during a VFR flight in airpaces C, D and E?
1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically
1500 m horizontally, 1000 m vertically
1000 m horizontally, 1500 ft vertically
1000 m horizontally, 300 m vertically
1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically
74
The minimum flight visibility at 5000 ft MSL in airspace B for VFR flights is...
8000 m.
3000 m.
1500 m.
5000 m.
5000 m
75
What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" for an aircraft operating under VFR at 5000 ft MSL?
8000 m
1500 m
3000 m
5000 m
5000 m
76
What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "E" for an aircraft operating under VFR at FL75?
8000 m
1500 m
3000 m
5000 m
5000 m
77
What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" for an aircraft operating under VFR at FL110?
5000 m
1500 m
3000 m
8000 m
8000 m
78
What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" for an aircraft operating under VFR at FL125?
5000 m
3000 m
1500 m
8000 m
8000 m
79
What are the minimum distances to clouds for a VFR flight in airspace "B"?
Horizontally 1.500 m, vertically 1.000 m
Horizontally 1.500 m, vertically 300 m
Horizontally 1.000 m, vertically 1.500 ft
Horizontally 1.000 m, vertically 300 m
Horizontally 1.500 m, vertically 300 m
80
What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" below FL 100 for an aircraft operating under VFR?
5 km
10 km
1.5 km
8 km
5 km
81
What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" at and above FL 100 for an aircraft operating under VFR?
1.5 km
5 km
10 km
8 km
8 km
82
The term "ceiling" is defined as the...
altitude of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft.
height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 10000 ft.
height of the base of the highest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft.
height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft.
height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds
covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft.
83
Being intercepted by a military aircraft at daytime, what is the meaning of the following signal:
Alternating movement of the ailerons, normally left of the intercepted aircraft, followed by a smooth turn to the left?
Prepare for a safety landing, you have entered a prohibited area
You are entering a restricted area, leave the airspace immediately
Follow me
You are clear of any restricted or reserved airspaces, you can continue on your heading
Follow me
84
Being intercepted by a military aircraft at daytime, what is the meaning of the following signal:
A sudden heading change of 90 degrees or more and a pull-up of the aircraft without crossing the track of the intercepted aircraft?
You are entering a restricted area, leave the airspace immediately
You may continue your flight
Follow me, i will bring you to the next suitable airfield
Prepare for a safety landing, you have entered a prohibited area
You may continue your flight
85
The altimeter is switched from local QNH to 1013.25 hPa...
at the decision height.
at 4000 ft.
when climbing above the transition altitude.
when descending below FL 100.
when climbing above the transition altitude.
86
During a flight at FL 80, the altimeter setting has to be...
1030.25 hPa.
1013.25 hPa.
local QFE.
local QNH.
1013.25 hPa
87
What is the purpose of the semi-circular rule?
To avoid collisions by reducing the probability of opposing traffic at the same altitude
To fly without a filed flight plan in prescribed zones published in the AIP
To allow safe climbing or descending in a holding pattern
To avoid collisions by suspending turning manoeuvres
To avoid collisions by reducing the probability of opposing traffic at the same altitude
88
Which of the following options are possible SSR-Transponder modes?
A, C, S
A, C, R
B, C, V
B, R, S
A, C, S
89
A transponder with the ability to send the current pressure level is a...
pressure-decoder.
mode C or S transponder.
mode A transponder.
transponder approved for airspace "B".
mode C or S transponder
90
Which transponder code indicates a loss of radio communication?
2000
7700
7000
7600
7600
91
Which transponder code should be set during a radio failure without any request?
7600
7700
7000
7500
7600
92
Which transponder code has to be set unrequested during an emergency?
7600
7000
7700
7500
7700
93
Which air traffic service is responsible for the safe conduct of flights?
ALR (alerting service)
FIS (flight information service)
ATC (air traffic control)
AIS (aeronautical information service)
ATC (air traffic control)
94
Air traffic control service is conducted by which services?
TWR (aerodrome control service)
APP (approach control service)
ACC (area control service)
APP (approach control service)
ACC (area control service)
FIS (flight information service)
ALR (alerting service)
SAR (search and rescue service)
TWR (aerodrome control service)
FIS (flight information service)
AIS (aeronautical information service)
AFS (aeronautical fixed telecommunication service)
TWR (aerodrome control service)
APP (approach control service)
ACC (area control service)
95
Which answer is correct with regard to separation in airspace "E"?
IFR traffic is separated only from VFR traffic
VFR traffic is separated from VFR and IFR traffic
VFR traffic is separated only from IFR traffic
VFR traffic is not separated from any other traffic
VFR traffic is not separated from any other traffic
96
Which air traffic services can be expected within an FIR (flight information region)?
ATC (air traffic control)
FIS (flight information service)
FIS (flight information service)
ALR (alerting service)
AIS (aeronautical information service)
SAR (search and rescue)
ATC (air traffic control)
AIS (aeronautical information service)
FIS (flight information service)
ALR (alerting service)
97
A pilot can contact FIS (flight information service)...
via telephone.
via internet.
by a personal visit.
via radio communication.
via radio communication
98
What is the correct phrase with respect to wake turbulence to indicate that a light aircraft is following an aircraft of a higher wake turbulence category?
Danger jet blast
Be careful wake winds
Attention propwash
Caution wake turbulence
Caution wake turbulence
99
Which of the following options states a correct position report?
DEABC reaching "N"
DEABC over "N" in FL 2500 ft
DEABC, "N", 2500 ft
DEABC over "N" at 35
DEABC, "N", 2500 ft
100
What is the meaning of the abbreviation "AIREP"?
Aircraft report
Aeronautical instrument requirement report
Automatic identification report
Aeronautical information report
Aircraft report
101
What information is provided in the general part (GEN) of the AIP?
Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi
charts, restricted and dangerous airspaces
Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees
Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces
Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples
and validity periods
Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees
102
Which are the different parts of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)?
GEN
MET
RAC
GEN
COM
MET
GEN
AGA
COM
GEN
ENR
AD
GEN
ENR
AD
"Gener ad"
103
What information is provided in the part "AD" of the AIP?
Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces.
Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts
Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees
Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples
and validity periods
Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts
104
The shown NOTAM is valid until...
A1024/13 A) LOWW B)1305211200 C)1305211400
E) STOCKERAU VOR STO 113.00 UNSERVICEABLE.
21/05/2013 14:00 UTC.
13/10/2013 00:00 UTC.
13/05/2013 12:00 UTC.
21/05/2014 13:00 UTC.
21/05/2013 14:00 UTC.
105
A Pre-Flight Information Bulletin (PIB) is a presentation of current...
ICAO information of operational significance prepared after the flight.
AIP information of operational significance prepared prior to flight.
AIC information of operational significance prepared after the flight.
NOTAM information of operational significance prepared prior to flight.
NOTAM information of operational significance prepared prior to flight.
106
The term "aerodrome elevation" is defined as...
the highest point of the landing area.
the lowest point of the landing area.
the highest point of the apron.
the average value of the height of the manoeuvring area.
the highest point of the landing area.
107
The term "runway" is defined as a...
round area on an aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.
rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.
rectangular area on a land or water aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.
rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of helicopters.
rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.
108
Which statement is correct with regard to the term "taxi holding point"?
A taxi holding point is an area where the aircraft must stop unless further permission to proceed
is given
A taxi holding point is only to be observed for IFR traffic if instrument weather conditions are
prevailing
A taxi holding point is the point at which the aircraft must stop unless further permission to
proceed is given
A taxi holding point is designed to indicate the beginning of the safety area and may be crossed
when a taxi clearance is given
A taxi holding point is the point at which the aircraft must stop unless further permission to
proceed is given
109
What does the reported runway condition "WET" mean?
Some water patches are visible
The surface of the runway is soaked, but there are no significant patches of standing water
A large part of the surface is flooded
The runway is clear of water, ice, and snow
The surface of the runway is soaked, but there are no significant patches of standing water
110
What does the reported runway condition "DAMP" mean?
Wet surface, but no significant puddles are visible
Change of colour on the surface due to moisture
The runway is clear of water, ice, and snow
A large part of the surface is flooded
Change of colour on the surface due to moisture
111
What does "WATER PATCHES" mean regarding the reported runway condition?
A large part of the surface is flooded
Patches of standing water are visible
Wet surface, but no significant patches are visible
The runway is clear of water, ice, and snow
Patches of standing water are visible
112
How can a wind direction indicator be marked for better visibility?
The wind direction indicator may be mounted on top of the control tower.
The wind direction indicator could be made from green materials.
The wind direction indicator could be surrounded by a white circle.
The wind direction indicator could be located on a big black surface.
The wind direction indicator could be surrounded by a white circle.
113
What is the meaning of a flashing red light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed
to an aircraft in flight?
Airport unsafe, do not land
Return for landing, followed by steady green at the appropriate time
Cleared to land
Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
Airport unsafe, do not land
114
What is the meaning of a flashing green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft in flight?
Return for landing, followed by steady green at the appropriate time
Cleared to land
Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
Airport unsafe, do not land
Return for landing, followed by steady green at the appropriate time
115
What is the meaning of a steady green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft in flight?
Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
Cleared to land
Return for landing, followed by steady green at the appropriate time
Airport unsafe, do not land
Cleared to land
116
What is the meaning of a flashing white light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft on ground?
Cleared to taxi
Clear the taxiway / runway
Cleared for take-off
Return to starting point
Return to starting point
117
What is the meaning of a flashing red light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft on ground?
Cleared for take-off
Cleared to taxi
Immediately taxi clear of runway in use
Return to starting point
Immediately taxi clear of runway in use
118
What is the meaning of a flashing green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft on ground?
Cleared to taxi
Return to starting point
Land at this airport and proceed to the apron
Cleared for take-off
Cleared to taxi
119
Of what shape is a landing direction indicator?
L
A straight arrow
An angled arrow
T
T
120
What is the purpose of the signal square at an aerodrome?
It contains special symbols to indicate the conditions at the aerodrome visually to over-flying aircraft
It is an illuminated area on which search and rescue and fire fighting vehicles are placed
Aircraft taxi to this square to get light signals for taxi and take-off clearance
It is a specially marked area to pick up or drop towing objects
It contains special symbols to indicate the conditions at the aerodrome visually to over-flying aircraft
121
In which way should a pilot confirm received light signals in flight?
Apply some changes of RPM
Apply some changes of the rudder
Rock the wings (in the daytime)
Apply some fast pitch changes
Rock the wings (in the daytime)
122
What is the meaning of a steady red light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to
an aircraft on ground?
Land at this airport and proceed to apron
Clear the taxiway / runway
Return to starting point
Stop
Stop
123
How are two parallel runways designated?
The left runway gets the suffix "L", the right runway "R"
The left runway gets the suffix "L", the right runway remains unchanged
The left runway gets the suffix "-1", the right runway "-2"
The left runway remains unchanged, the right runway designator is increased by 1
The left runway gets the suffix "L", the right runway "R"
124
According to ICAO Anex 14, which is the colour marking of a runway?
Blue
White
Yellow
Green
White
125
What is indicated by a pattern of longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions disposed
symmetrically about the centerline of a runway?
At this point the glide path of an ILS hits the runway
Do not touch down before them
Do not touch down behind them
A ground roll could be started from this position
Do not touch down before them
126
Which runway designators are correct for 2 parallel runways?
"06L" and "06R"
"18" and "18-2"
"26" and "26R"
"24" and "25"
"06L" and "06R"
127
What is a "PAPI" (Precision Approach Path Indicator)?
A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a tower controller acquire and maintain
the correct approach to an aerodrome or an airport
A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the correct glidepath to an aerodrome or an airport
An instrumental aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the correct approach to an aerodrome or an airport
A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the correct departure track when departing from an aerodrome or an airport
A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the correct glidepath to an aerodrome or an airport
128
An aerodrome beacon (ABN) is a...
rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the ground.
rotating beacon installed at the beginning of the final approach to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the air.
rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the air.
fixed beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the air.
rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the air.
129
Which is the colour of runway edge lights?
Red
White
Blue
Green
White
130
Which is the colour of runway end lights?
Red
White
Blue
Green
Red
131
What is shown on the printed sign?
_______
|__A__|
Outer rim is yellow
Letter is yellow
Backgroun is black
Point A on a taxiway
Part A of the runway
Taxiway A
Parking position A
| A |
Taxiway A
132
What is shown on the printed sign?
<---- 2500m
2500 m in the stated direction till reaching the parking area
From this intersection the available runway length is 2500 m in the stated direction
The complete length of the runway in the stated direction is 2500 m
2500 m in the stated direction till reaching the departure point of the runway
From this intersection the available runway length is 2500 m in the stated direction
133
What is the meaning of this sign at an aerodrome?
++
Landing prohibited for a longer period
Glider flying is in progress
Caution, manoeuvring area is poor
After take-off and before landing all turns have to be made to the right
Glider flying is in progress
134
What is the meaning of the illustrated ground signal as shown in the signal area of an
aerodrome?
______
| ____ >
| |
Caution, manoeuvring area is poor
Prohibition on landing for a longer period
After take-off and before landing all turns have to be made to the right
Ground movement restricted to hard surfaces
After take-off and before landing all turns have to be made to the right
135
What is the meaning of "DETRESFA"?
Uncertainty phase
Rescue phase
Distress phase
Alerting phase
Distress phase
136
Who provides search and rescue service?
Only military organisations
International approved organisations
Only civil organisations
Both military and civil organisations
Both military and civil organisations
137
How can a pilot confirm a search and rescue signal on ground in flight?
Rock the wings
Push the rudder in both directions multiple times
Fly in a parabolic flight path multiple times
Deploy and retract the landing flaps multiple times
Rock the wings
138
With respect to aircraft accident and incident investigation, what are the three categories regarding aircraft occurrences?
Event, Crash, Disaster
Happening, Event, Serious event
Incident, Serious incident, Accident
Event, Serious event, Accident
Incident
Serious incident
Accident
139
What is the primary purpose of an aircraft accident investigation?
To Determine the guilty party and draw legal consequences
To clarify questions of liability within the meaning of compensation for passengers
To identify the reasons and work out safety recommendations
To work for the public prosecutor and help to follow-up flight accidents
To identify the reasons and work out safety recommendations
140
Who is responsible for coordinating the conduct of search and rescue operations?
Rescue Coordination Centre (RCC)
141
What information has to be provided in the ATIS?
-Name of the aerodrome;
-Arrival and/or departure indicator;
-Message indicator;
-Runway information;
-Transition level;
-Type of approach;
-Surface wind;
-Visibility;
-Clouds and weather;
-Air temperature;
-Dew point temperature;
-Altimeter setting;
-Other important information.
142
What is the name of the emergency phase referring to a situation, in which it is certain that an aircraft and its occupants are threatened?
DETRESFA
143
Which statement is true concerning the UIRs, upper airspace CTAs and FIRs?
One UIR usually covers a few FIRs to limit the number of controlled airspace areas the aircraft would have to operate through
144
What are the basic elements of an ATC clearance?
Aircraft identification, clearance limit, route, flight level
145
When is the INCERFA initiated?
When an aircraft does not arrive within 30 minutes of the estimated time of arrival and there are doubts concerning the aircraft's safety.
146
How is the airspace divided according to international regulations?
Into Flight Information Regions (FIRs) and Upper Flight Information Regions (UIRs)
147
What are the names of the three basic units of Air Traffic Control Services?
Area Control Service, Approach Control Service, Aerodrome Control Service
148
Which statement is true concerning flights in class E airspace?
IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights only
149
What is the name of the emergency phase referring to a situation, in which it is uncertain if an aircraft and its occupants are safe?
INCERFA
150
With regard to wake turbulence, what is the minimum radar separation between a HEAVY aircraft following another HEAVY aircraft for landing?
4 NM
151
What is a clearance limit?
The point to which the aircraft's ATC clearance is valid
152
Which phenomenon should trigger a special air report when encountered in flight?
Severe turbulence
153
With regard to wake turbulence, what is the minimum radar separation between a HEAVY aircraft following a SUPER aircraft for landing?
6 NM
154
What is the minimum time separation between a LIGHT category aircraft taking off after MEDIUM if they use crossing runways?
2 minutes
155
What is the minimum time separation between a LIGHT or MEDIUM category aircraft taking off after HEAVY if they use crossing runways?
2 minutes
156
With regard to wake turbulence, what is the minimum radar separation between a LIGHT aircraft following a SUPER aircraft for landing?
8 NM
157
Which elements of an ATC clearance have to be read back by the crew?
Runway in use, QNH, taxi instructions, holding instructions, transponder code
158
What is the minimum separation between a LIGHT aircraft landing after a HEAVY aircraft's missed approach to an opposite-direction parallel runway, separated by less than 760 m?
2 minutes
159
Can the crew not accept the clearance issued by the ATC?
Yes; in a case like this an amended clearance will be issued on crew request
160
In which part of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) information on interception of civil aircraft and air traffic incidents can be found?
Part 2 – En-route (ENR)
161
In which part of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) information on approach and runway lighting can be found?
Part 3 – Aerodromes (AD)
162
How many types of airspace restrictions are defined by ICAO Annex 15?
3
163
In which part of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) information on meteorological information services can be found?
Part 1 – General (GEN)
164
For how long is an ASHTAM valid?
For a maximum of 24 hours
165
What type of NOTAM can be used to inform about the condition of the surface of the aerodrome’s movement area?
SNOWTAM
166
Which post-flight information regarding flights ending at international airports should be collected from the flight crew and distributed by the AIS unit? Select the most complete answer.
-Information about the operation of navigation facilities and services;
-Information about the presence of wildlife hazards
167
Which information product can be used to announce permanent changes to the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)?
AIP amendment
168
What is the objective of an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS)?
Improving the safety and efficiency of air traffic
169
How often should a checklist of all Aeronautical Information Circulars (AICs) currently in force be published?
At least once a year
170
The term ‘WET ICE’ is used to describe...
The runway surface condition when the runway braking action is reported by pilots to be less than poor
171
How often should a checklist of all Aeronautical Information Circulars (AICs) currently in force be published?
At least once a year
172
What does the abbreviation RESA mean?
Runway End Safety Area
173
For how long is a SNOWTAM valid?
For a maximum of 8 hours
174
What is a Stopway (SWY)?
A rectangular area at the end of the runway is used by aircraft only in case of abandoned take-off or other emergencies.
175
What is typically included in the Pre-flight Information Bulletin (PIB)?
Operationally significant NOTAMs
176
In which part of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) information on approach and runway lighting can be found?
Part 3 – Aerodromes (AD)
177
In which part of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) information on meteorological information services can be found?
Part 1 – General (GEN)
178
How long are the intervals between consecutive effective dates of changes issued under the Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control (AIRAC)?
28 days
179
What is an aerodrome reference point?
The designated aerodrome’s geographical location
180
What does the number of stripes on the runway threshold markings depend on?
Width of the runway
181
How are DIRECTIONS indicated by aerodrome information markings?
Yellow markings with black lettering
182
Runway holding position sign are...
Mandatory instruction signs
183
What is a signal area?
The area where ground symbols providing visual information regarding the aerodrome conditions to overflying aircraft are presented
184
How are LOCATIONS indicated by aerodrome information markings?
Black markings with yellow lettering
185
What is the number of pairs of the touchdown zone markings correlated with?
The runway Landing Distance Available (LDA)
186
Where can holding position markings be placed?
-At runway holding point;
-At taxiway intersection;
-At the exit boundary of de/anti-icing stand
187
Regarding the aerodrome markings, which elements are marked in yellow?
-Taxiway;
-Aircraft stand;
-Runway turn pads
188
What color should be the low intensity obstacle lights on fixed aerodrome objects?
Fixed red
189
What light color should be used to mark the joint of a runway and taxiway centreline?
The centreline lights should show alternate green and yellow when viewed from the runway side, up to the edge of the ILS/MLS sensitive area
190
What is the correct marking of the paved pre-threshold area greater than 60m in length but not suitable for use by aircraft in any direction?
White 'X'
191
When do aeronautical ground lights need to be iliminated?
During the period of time at which the geometric centre of the sun is at least 6 degrees below the horizon
192
Considering a CAT I precision approach system, what is the distance between each pair of crossbars?
150m
193
When should an aerodrome beacon be provided at an aerodrome?
If the aerodrome is intended to be used by VfR flights and at night
194
What color should the low-intensity obstacle lights be on vehicles not associated with emergency or security services?
Flashing yellow
195
High intensity obstacle lights should be used to indicate the presence of an object if its height above the ground level exceeds ___ . The lights shall be ___ .
150m; flashing white lights
196
With reference to moving object marking at an aerodrome, what should be the color of a flag used to mark a moving vehicle?
Red and white chequered
197
Which statement is true concerning the CAT II/III precision approach lighting system?
If the centreline is made of barrettes, each of them should be supplemented by a flashlight flashing in a sequence that begins with the outermost light and progresses towards the threshold.
198
Which information has to be reported in case of an emergency?
-Number of survivors and their physical condition;
-Best ground access route to the crash site;
-Number of survivors who have been spotted abandoning the ship, in case the crash site is in the water
199
What process describes a crash-landing where the aircraft is forced to land on water?
Ditching
200
"A situation in which the aircraft is in danger and passengers are in a life-threatening situation and require immediate assistance" is the definition of....
Distress phase
201
What does the rescue coordination centre (RCC) do?
It controls and coordinates search and rescue operations in Search And Rescue (SRR)
202
Where should the contracting states establish the alerting posts?
In places with insufficient telecommunications infrastructure where visual identification of the aircraft is difficult
203
What is the important information the PIC should provide in case of emergency?
-Condition of the vessel in distress;
-Position as geographical coordinates of the vessel in distress, and time of the observation;
-Identification and type of the vessel in distress
204
If a pilot is flying in a mountainous region and notices a "V" symbol on the ground, what does this symbol mean?
Assistance is required (NOT medical)
205
Which signal code is used by survivors on the ground to indicate "NEGATIVE" signal?
N
206
Areas of undetermined sovereignty shall be determined on the basis of...
Regional air navigation agreements
207
How many sub-phases does the emergency phase have?
3
208
What is the objective of aviation security?
The safeguard of international civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference
209
Who establishes the national civil aviation security programme?
Each contracting state
210
If an unlawful interference occurred during a flight, who shall take adequate measures for the safety of the passengers and crew of an aircraft until the aeroplane lands?
The contracting state in which the unlawful interference occured
211
How should a contracting state assist an aeroplane subjected to an act of unlawful seizure during a flight?
-By giving the permission to land as it may be necessitated by the circumstances;
-By providing navigational aids;
-By providing Air Traffic Services (ATS)
212
What is an Airside?
Airside is the movement area of an airport beyond passport and customs control, the access to this area is controlled
213
Who is responsible to take proper actions if there is a security threat on board an aircraft which is still parking at the gate during boarding procedures?
-PIC;
-Police;
-Airport manager
214
How should a contracting state assist an aeroplane subjected to an act of unlawful seizure when the plane lands?
The contracting state should ensure that the concerned aeroplane would be detained on the ground unless it would endanger human life
215
Which transponder code (squawk) is set to inform about danger?
7700
216
What responsibilities does each contracting state have? regarding security?
-Develop regulations regarding the safety of flights;
-Create an organization to face increased security threat;
-Implement procedures to ensure regularity and efficiency of flights
217
If a passenger is obliged to travel due to legal proceedings, the contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that....
The aircraft operator and the PIC are informed
218
Who should be informed if any law enforcement officers carrying weapons are on board?
PIC
219
Which transponder code (squawk) should be set when the aeroplane has been highjacked?
7500
220
What should the PIC do in case of unlawful interference?
-Attempt to land the aircraft immediately at the nearest aerodrome, unless considerations aboard the aircraft dictate otherwise;
-Notify the appropriate ATS units to minimize conflict with other aeroplanes;
-Submit a report to the competente authority and shall inform the designated local authority
221
What is the aircraft security check?
An inspection of the interior of the aircraft to which passenger may have had access, to discover suspicious objects, weapons, explosives or other dangerous devices, articles and substances
222
When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference departs from its assigned track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS. the PIC will...
-Attempt to broadcast warnings on VHF channel in use;
-Attempt to broadcast warnings on VHF emergency frequency
223
What does a member state require from foreign states to allow police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons on its territory to protect the flight?
The state of embarkation must inform the foreign state priorly regarding the weapons that will be carried at the airport of arrival and notification of the PIC's decision to allow weapons to be carried on board the aeroplane
224
The ICAO comprise rules to give higher priority to the safety of ____ passengers against acts of unlawful interference with civil aviation.
Passengers, crew, ground personnel and general public
225
After an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, the _____ has to submit to a competent authority and shall inform the designated local authority.
PIC
226
Unidentified luggage is _______.
Luggage at an airport, with or without name tag, which is not picked up by or identified with its owner.
227
What is the minimum time separation between a HEAVY category aircraft taking off after SUPER if they both use the same runway?
2 min
228
What are the basic elements of a position report?
Aircraft identification, present position, time, altitude, next point and time over
229
Which phenomenon should trigger a special air report when encountered in flight?
Severe turbulence
230
What is the minimal availability of the Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) that a state must provide to all aircraft overflying its territory?
At least 2 hours before entering the area of coverage and 2 hours after leaving it
231
In which part of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) information on interception of civil aircraft and air traffic incidents can be found?
Part 2 – En-route (ENR)
232
For how long is a SNOWTAM valid?
8 hours
233
For how long is an ASHTAM valid?
24 hours
234
What is the normal taxiing speed for runways with code number 3 or 4?
93 km/h
235
When may the term ‘DRY SNOW’ be used to describe the runway surface condition?
When it is not possible to make a snowball from snow readily
236
What is the number of pairs of the touchdown zone markings correlated with?
The runway Landing Distance Available (LDA)
237
What is a signal area?
The area where ground symbols providing visual information regarding the aerodrome conditions to over-flying aircraft are presented
238
What is the full length of a CAT II/III precision approach lighting system?
900 m
239
Which statement concerning the external ground handling equipment is true?
1- Ground handling equipment may never block evacuation paths during boarding, deboarding or aircraft refuelling
2- During aircraft refuelling, the ground handling equipment may never be plugged in
3- Ground handling equipment may approach the aircraft no sooner than once all the passengers have disembarked
4- All answers are correct
1- Ground handling equipment may never block evacuation paths during boarding, deboarding or aircraft refuelling
240
Using the ground-air visual code, the symbol 'XX' means _____.
we are not able to continue, returning to the base
240
With reference to fixed obstacle marking at an aerodrome, what should be the colour of a flag used to mark an inconspicuous fixed obstacle?
Orange
240
If a pilot is flying in a mountainous region and notices a 'V' symbol on the ground, what does this symbol mean?
Assistance is required
241
How should a contracting state assist an aeroplane subjected to an act of unlawful seizure when the plane lands?
The contracting state should ensure that the concerned aeroplane would be detained on the ground unless it would endanger human life
242
When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference departs from its assigned track or cruising level without being able to communicate with Air Traffic Service (ATS), the pilot-in-command will:
-attempt to broadcast warnings on VHF emergency frequency
-proceed according to the procedures established in the Regional Supplementary Procedures
-attempt to broadcast warnings on the VHF channel in use
243
