Operational procedures

Question 1

When is wake turbulence most hazardous?

1- During take-off and landing

2- During take-off, initial climb, final approach, and landing

3- During take-off and initial climb

4- Wake turbulence is equally dangerous during all stages of flight

Answer 1

During take-off, initial climb, final approach, and landing

All except cruise and descent

Question 2

**Select the answer which lists only visual signs of wind shear.
1-adjacent clouds moving in the same direction,
2-virga,
3-cumulus clouds,
4-funnel clouds,
5-smoke plumes sheared and moving in different directions,
6-tornadoes,
7-dust raised beneath convective clouds,
8-wind socks around the aerodrome responding to different winds

1- 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8

2- 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8

3- 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8

4- No other answer is correct

Answer 2

2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8

Virga, Funnel clouds, smoke plumes sheared and moving in different directions, tornadoes, dust raised beneath convective clouds, wind socks around the aerodrome responding to different winds

Question 3

Which factors determine the characteristics of the wake turbulence generated by an aeroplane? Select the most complete answer.

1- The aeroplane’s wingspan and mass

2- The aeroplane’s airspeed and attitude

3- The aeroplane’s mass and attitude

4- All answers are correct

Answer 3

All answers are correct

-Mass (+ mass = + wake)
-wingspan (+ span = +wake)
-airspeed (+ speed = - wake)
-Attitude

GREATER wake-turbulence = heavy, slow speed, clean configuration

Question 4

Which precautionary measures should be taken expecting wind shear during take-off? Select the most complete answer.

1- Selecting the maximum flaps configuration for take-off

2- All answers are correct

3- Selecting the TO mode on the PFD

4- Selecting the maximum take-off thrust

Answer 4

Selecting the maximum take-off thrust

Question 5

With reference to wake turbulence, crosswind is .

1- dangerous, because it can lead to stagnation of wake turbulence vortices on the runway

2- only a danger to airborne aircraft

3- not dangerous

4- dangerous, because it can cause rapid dispersion of wake turbulence vortices

Answer 5

dangerous, because it can lead to stagnation of wake turbulence vortices on the runway

Question 6

Noise abatement procedures are designed to .

1- maximize safety while maintaining exposure to noise

2- minimize exposure to noise while maintaining safety

3- minimize exposure to noise while maintaining smooth aerodrome operation

4- maintain low exposure to noise while maximizing operational efficiency

Answer 6

minimize exposure to noise while maintaining safety

Question 7

What happens to an aeroplane as it flies into a microburst?

1- Entering a microburst, the aeroplane’s airspeed increases, its rate of descent decreases and it rises above the glide path. Inside, its airspeed and descent rate increase and the aircraft keeps sinking below the glide path.

2- Entering a microburst, the aeroplane’s airspeed and rate of descent decrease and it raises above the glide path. Inside, its airspeed and rate of descent increase, and the aircraft keeps sinking below the glide path.

3- Entering a microburst, the aeroplane’s airspeed decreases, its rate of descent increases and it sinks below the glide path. Inside, its airspeed and rate of descent decrease, and the aircraft keeps rising above the glide path.

4- Entering a microburst, the aeroplane’s airspeed and rate of descent increase and it sinks below the glide path. Inside, its airspeed and rate of descent decrease, and the aircraft keeps rising above the glide path.

Answer 7

Entering a microburst, the aeroplane’s airspeed increases, its rate of descent decreases and it rises above the glide path. Inside, its airspeed and descent rate increase and the aircraft keeps sinking below the glide path.

ENTERING = +airspeed (head wind), - rate of descent, above glide path

INSIDE = +airspeed (downdraft), + rate of descent, below glide path

OUT = -airspeed (tailwind), -rate of descent

Question 8

What aeroplanes is wake turbulence most dangerous to?

1- Aeroplanes with a small wingspan

2- Aeroplanes with large wingspan

3- Heavy aeroplanes

4- Light aeroplanes

Answer 8

Aeroplanes with a small wingspan

Question 9

Who has the authority on deciding whether to execute take-off and approach noise abatement procedures?

1- The aviation Authority

2- Execution of noise abatement procedures is decided upon by the commander and the operator in co-operation

3- The operator

4- The commander

Answer 9

The commander

Question 10

Wake turbulence caused by an aeroplane increases with its ____ and decreases with its ___ .

1- speed; wingspan

2- speed; mass

3- mass; speed

4- mass; wingspan

Answer 10

mass; speed

Wake turbulence depends on:
-Mass (+ mass = + wake)
-wingspan (+ span = +wake)
-airspeed (+ speed = - wake)
-Attitude

GREATER wake-turbulence = heavy, slow speed, clean configuration

Question 11

What is low altitude windshear?

1- A sudden change of wind velocity encountered by aircraft during take-off or landing

2- A sudden change of wind velocity at an altitude below 7000 ft

3- A sudden change of wind velocity along the final approach path or the runway and the take-off and initial climb-out phase

4- A sudden change of wind velocity at an altitude below 5000 ft

Answer 11

A sudden change of wind velocity along the final approach path or the runway and the take-off and initial climb-out phase

Question 12

For an operation in visual meteorological conditions that incorporates noise abatement procedures, which system is required for a runway to be selected for preferential use?

1- ILS

2- MLS

3- Any radio communication system

4- VASI

Answer 12

VASI

VMC -> VASI
IMC -> ILS

Question 13

During an in-flight engine fire on a jet aircraft, the commander has already cut the fuel supply to the engine off and tried to extinguish it. The fire is persisting. What should the commander do?

1- Inform the cabin crew

2- Inform the ATC

3- Use the secondary in-built extinguishant

4- Begin an emergency landing

Answer 13

Use the secondary in-built extinguishant

Question 14

Actions to be taken in a carburettor fire :

1- Do not have to be remmembered by the pilot and can be found in appropriate in-flight manuals

2- Depend on whether the engine has started but are the same for all aeroplane types

3- Are initially the same, regardless of the aircrafts state and might differ if the fire is not immediatly put out

4- Depend on whether the engine has started and may be type-specific

Answer 14

Depend on whether the engine has started and may be type-specific

Question 15

In which document can detailed information on noise abatement procedures be found?

1- ICAO document 8168

2- EASA procedures for CAT operations

3- Aeronautical Publication Information (AIP), Part AD

4- In NOTAMs of revelant aerodromes

Answer 15

Aeronautical Publication Information (AIP), Part AD

Question 16

When encountering increased tailwind during landing, the pilot should ____ the engine thrust.
During recovery, the pitch should be changed using ________.

1- Decrease, the flaps

2- Increase; the flaps

3- Increase; the yoke

4- Decrease, the yoke

Answer 16

Increase; the yoke

Tailwind = - airspeed
Heading = +airspeed

Question 17

What is an emergency landing?

1- A situation in which an aircraft unavoidably needs to land, usually regardless of terrain. i.e due to engine failure.

2- A situation in which further flight is anadvisible, and an aircraft should land to prevent a potentially dangerous situation

3- A situation in which a landing has to be carried out on a flooded runway

4- A landing carried out with a number of dangerous goods onboard that exceeds the maximum allowable values

Answer 17

A situation in which an aircraft unavoidably needs to land, usually regardless of terrain. i.e due to engine failure.

Question 18

What is ditching?

1- A deliberate and controlled landing on the surface of the water, of an aircraft not designed for this purpose

2- Reducing the aeroplane’s mass by dumping fuel

3- A situation in which a landing has to be carried out on a contaminated runway

4- A precautionary procedure performed to prevent a potentially dangerous situation

Answer 18

A deliberate and controlled landing on the surface of the water, of an aircraft not designed for this purpose

Question 19

Who is responsible for alerting the emergency services when an emergency landing is necessary?

1- No other answer is correct

2- Any other aircraft that hears the mayday transmission

3- The Air Traffic Controller

4- The pillot in command

Answer 19

The Air Traffic Controller

Question 20

The term “flight time” is defined as… (1,00 P.)

 the period from the start of the take-off run to the final touchdown when landing.

 the total time from the first aircraft movement until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight.

 the period from engine start for the purpose of taking off to leaving the aircraft after engine shutdown.

 the total time from the first take-off until the last landing in conjunction with one or more consecutive flights.

Answer 20

the total time from the first aircraft movement until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight.

Chocks off TO chocks on

Question 21

What should be considered regarding a scheduled flight over water, when land cannot be reached in case of an emergency landing? (1,00 P.)

 Transponder code 7600 has to be set during the whole flight

 Contact to the nearest ATC shall consist during the whole flight

 For all passengers there must be life jackets or lifeboats present

 The flight plan has to contain the exact waypoints

Answer 21

For all passengers there must be life jackets or lifeboats present

Question 22

Which of the items below may have an influence on the noise perceived by a person on the ground?
1) Engine power setting
2) Propeller revolutions per minute
3) Position of the landing gear
4) Flap position
5) Flight track
6) Height above ground
7) Flight rules

 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
 1, 5, 6
 1, 5, 6, 7
 3, 4, 5, 6, 7

Answer 22

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

Question 23

**How can the pilot of an an engine-driven aircraft minimise the noise emission during descent and approach? **

 Normal approach with normal power setting, configuration prior to initiating descent, shortest possible arrival route

 Descent and approach in landing configuration while maintaining a descent angle of 3°, direct approach whenever possible

 Low approach with minimum power setting, late configuration and steep approach, adherence to established arrival routes

 High approach with minimum power setting, late descent, late configuration, adherence to established arrival routes

Answer 23

High approach with minimum power setting, late descent, late configuration, adherence to established arrival routes

Question 24

When should turns at low altitudes above villages be avoided with regard to noise abatement procedures?

 In descent
 In climb
 During the approach
 In horizontal flight

Answer 24

In climb

Question 25

***How should departures near villages be carried out?***  Slow with a low propeller rotation speed  Low and fast between the villages  Climb and changes in direction should be done as slow as possible  Villages should be circumnavigated and crossed in a sufficient altitude

Answer 25

Villages should be circumnavigated and crossed in a sufficient altitude

Question 26

***Which kind of engine is susceptible to carburettor fire?***  Piston engines  Turbine engines  Electric motors  Turboprop engines

Answer 26

Piston engines

Question 27

***Why is it dangerous to pump the throttle for engine start in cold weather? ***  It may cause a carburettor fire  Carburettor icing can occur  The engine might start with not enough power  The oil will become diluted

Answer 27

It may cause a carburettor fire

Question 28

***Which danger exists during engine start?***  Cable fire  Carburettor fire  Sparking  Smoke emission

Answer 28

Carburettor fire

Question 29

***May an engine, which previously was on fire, be restarted?***  No, the risk of a reignition of the fire would be too high  Yes, if the aircraft is flying at a safe altitude  Yes, but only on the ground for the purpose of taxiing  Yes, but only if the cause of the fire was a carburettor fire during engine start

Answer 29

No, the risk of a reignition of the fire would be too high

Question 30

***Which gas is most dangerous during an engine fire?***  Carbon monoxide  Nitrogen  Oxygen  Carbon dioxide

Answer 30

Carbon monoxide

Question 31

***Smoke enters the cockpit during an engine fire. Which actions have to be taken immediately?*  Switching off the master switch and the ignition  Switching off the heating and the ventilating system  Switching off the pitot and front window heating  Switching off the avionics and the cabin lighting

Answer 31

Switching off the heating and the ventilating system

Question 32

***What should be the first action in case of a cable fire during a flight?***  Close the fuel valve  Open the windows  Turn off the master switch  Open cabin ventialtion

Answer 32

Turn off the master switch

Question 33

***What extinguishing agent is the least suitable for an aircraft fire?***  Powder  Halon  Water  Foam

Answer 33

Water ## Footnote "WATER FOr DRY SPECIALly COntaminated Willies" WATER = Class A (solids) FOam = Class A + B (liquids) DRY powder = Class A + B + C (gases) SPECIAL powder = Class D (metals) CO2 / halon = Class E (electrical) --> also used for classes A+B+C (most used extinguishant!) Wet chemical = Class F (oil and fat)

Question 34

***In flight, a little smoke emerges from behind the instrument panel. An electrical fire is suspected. Which action, with respect to the pilot's operating manual, should be taken? ***  Turn off the heat  Shut down the engine  Turn off the master switch  Use the fire extinguisher

Answer 34

Turn off the master switch

Question 35

******In flight, a little smoke emerges from behind the instrument panel. An engine fire is suspected. Which action, with respect to the pilot's operating manual, should be taken?  Turn off the heat  Shut down the engine  Use the fire extinguisher  Turn off the master switch

Answer 35

Turn off the heat

Question 36

***A wind shear is...***  a slow increase of the wind speed in altitudes above 13000 ft.  a wind speed change of more than 15 kt.  a vertical or horizontal change of wind speed and wind direction.  a meteorological downslope wind phenomenon in the alps.

Answer 36

a vertical or horizontal change of wind speed and wind direction

Question 37

***Which weather phenomenon is typically associated with wind shear?***  Fog.  Invernal warm front.  Thunderstorms.  Stable high pressure areas.

Answer 37

Thunderstorms

Question 38

***When do you expect wind shear?***  During an inversion  In calm wind in cold weather  During a summer day with calm winds  When passing a warm front

Answer 38

During an inversion ## Footnote Inversion is a deviation from the normal change of an atmospheric property with altitude --> layer in the atmosphere in which air temperature increases with heigh

Question 39

***During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with a decreasing headwind. If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change?***  Path is higher, IAS decreases  Path is lower, IAS increases  Path is higher, IAS increases  Path is lower, IAS decreases

Answer 39

Path is lower, IAS decreases ## Footnote Increasing tailwind = Decreasing headwind tailwind = - airspeed --> below glide path headwind = + airspeed --> above glide path

Question 40

***During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with an increasing headwind. If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change?*  Path is higher, IAS decreases  Path is lower, IAS increases  Path is higher, IAS increases  Path is lower, IAS decreases

Answer 40

Path is higher, IAS increases ## Footnote Increasing tailwind = Decreasing headwind tailwind = - airspeed --> below glide path headwind = + airspeed --> above glide path

Question 41

During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with a decreasing tailwind. If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change?  Path is higher, IAS decreases  Path is higher, IAS increases  Path is lower, IAS decreases  Path is lower, IAS increases

Answer 41

Path is higher, IAS increases ## Footnote Increasing tailwind = Decreasing headwind tailwind = - airspeed --> below glide path headwind = + airspeed --> above glide path

Question 42

***After take-off an aeroplane gets into a wind shear with decreasing headwind. As a result...***  the aeroplane flies above the estimated climb path.  the true airspeed (TAS) will increase.  the ground speed (GS) will decrease.  the aeroplane flies below the estimated climb path.

Answer 42

the aeroplane flies below the estimated climb path. ## Footnote Increasing tailwind = Decreasing headwind tailwind = - airspeed --> below glide path headwind = + airspeed --> above glide path

Question 43

***How may windshear be recognised in flight?***  Sudden and apparently baseless change in altitude, airspeed, rate of climb or descent.  Sudden and apparently baseless change in heading, turning rate, engine speed or oil temperature.  Sudden and apparently baseless change of oil pressure, oil temperature, engine speed and altitude.  Rather unexpected onset of drizzle associated with high stratus clouds following previously clear skies and calm conditions.

Answer 43

Sudden and apparently baseless change in altitude, airspeed, rate of climb or descent.

Question 44

***Which phenomenon may be expected INSIDE of the microburst? ***  Constant rate of descent  Decrease of descent rate  Increase of airspeed  Decrease of climb rate

Answer 44

Decrease of climb rate ## Footnote ENTERING = +airspeed (head wind), - rate of descent, above glide path INSIDE = +airspeed (downdraft), + rate of descent, below glide path OUT = -airspeed (tailwind), -rate of descent

Question 45

Which phenomenon may be expected EXITING the miroburst?  Decrease in airspeed  Constant rate of descent  Increase in airspeed  Decrease in climb rate

Answer 45

Decrease in airspeed ## Footnote ENTERING = +airspeed (head wind), - rate of descent, above glide path INSIDE = +airspeed (downdraft), + rate of descent, below glide path OUT = -airspeed (tailwind), -rate of descent

Question 46

***How can a wind shear encounter in flight be avoided?***  Avoid take-off and landing during the passage of heavy showers or thunderstorms  Avoid areas of precipitation, particularly during winter, and choose low flight altitudes  Avoid take-offs and landings in mountainous terrain and stay in flat country whenever possible  Avoid thermally active areas, particularly during summer, or stay below these areas

Answer 46

Avoid take-off and landing during the passage of heavy showers or thunderstorms

Question 47

***What action should be taken when entering a windshear? 1. Reduce speed 2. Retract gear and flaps 3. Maintain current configuration 4. Adjust thrust***  2 and 4  1 and 2  1 and 3  3 and 4

Answer 47

3 and 4 ## Footnote TOGA + increase pitch (15º) + No change in configuration

Question 48

***After lift-off, a much stronger than expected airspeed rise is experienced during the initial climb phase. What may be expected if the aeroplane entered a microburst?***  An increased climb rate and decreased airspeed  An increased climb rate and airspeed  A decreased climb rate and airspeed  A decreased climb rate and increased airspeed

Answer 48

A decreased climb rate and airspeed

Question 49

***Immediately after lift-off, a microburst is entered inadvertently. Which action might avoid an unintentional descent?*  Set maximum power, maintain present aircraft configuration, climb at the best rate of climb speed  Set maximum power, retract landing gear and flaps, pick up speed and perform a left or a right turn in an attempt to leave the area of the microburst on the shortest way  Set maximum power, retract landing gear and flaps, increase pitch until attaining optimum climb speed  Set maximum power, maintain present aircraft configuration, pick up speed in an attempt to leave the area of the microburst as fast as possible

Answer 49

Set maximum power, maintain present aircraft configuration, climb at the best rate of climb speed

Question 50

**Wake turbulences develop during take-off just as the aeroplane...**  reaches an altitude of 15 ft.  lifts off with the main gear.  lifts off with the front gear.  accelerates.

Answer 50

lifts off with the front gear

Question 51

***Wake turbulence is caused by...***  wind shear at the wingtip of an aerofoil.  jet blast behind a turbine engine.  turbulence at the downwind side of a mountain range.  pressure compensation at the wingtip of an aerofoil.

Answer 51

pressure compensation at the wingtip of an aerofoil

Question 52

***Wake turbulence is particularly strong...***  when flying at high speeds.  when flying at high altitudes.  when flying at low speeds.  when flying at low altitudes.

Answer 52

when flying at low speeds. ## Footnote Wake turbulence depends on: -Mass (+ mass = + wake) -wingspan (+ span = +wake) -airspeed (+ speed = - wake) -Attitude GREATER wake-turbulence = heavy, slow speed, clean configuration

Question 53

***Wake turbulence is particularly strong...***  at a high aeroplane weight.  when flying with high thrust.  when flying with low thrust.  at a low aeroplane weight.

Answer 53

at a high aeroplane weight ## Footnote Wake turbulence depends on: -Mass (+ mass = + wake) -wingspan (+ span = +wake) -airspeed (+ speed = - wake) -Attitude GREATER wake-turbulence = heavy, slow speed, clean configuration

Question 54

***The intensity of wake turbulence depends on...***  the propeller pitch.  the temperature.  the weight of the aeroplane.  the altitude of the aeroplane.

Answer 54

the weight of the aeroplane ## Footnote Wake turbulence depends on: -Mass (+ mass = + wake) -wingspan (+ span = +wake) -airspeed (+ speed = - wake) -Attitude GREATER wake-turbulence = heavy, slow speed, clean configuration

Question 55

***Two aircraft of the same type, same grossweight and same configuration fly at different airspeeds. Which aircraft will cause more severe wake turbulence?***  The aircraft flying at lower altitude.  The aircraft flying at slower speed.  The aircraft flying at higher speed.  The aircraft flying at higher altitude.

Answer 55

The aircraft flying at slower speed ## Footnote Wake turbulence depends on: -Mass (+ mass = + wake) -wingspan (+ span = +wake) -airspeed (+ speed = - wake) -Attitude GREATER wake-turbulence = heavy, slow speed, clean configuration

Question 56

***Two aircraft of the same type, same gross weight and same flap configuration fly with different speeds and altitude. Which aircraft will cause more wake turbulence?***  The aircraft flying at a higher altitude  The aircraft flying at a lower altitude  The aircraft flying at higher speed.  The aircraft flying at lower speed.

Answer 56

The aircraft flying at lower speed ## Footnote Wake turbulence depends on: -Mass (+ mass = + wake) -wingspan (+ span = +wake) -airspeed (+ speed = - wake) -Attitude GREATER wake-turbulence = heavy, slow speed, clean configuration

Question 57

***With only a slight crosswind, what is the danger at take-off after the departure of a heavy aeroplane?***  Wake turbulence on or near the runway.  Wake turbulence is amplified and distorted.  Wake turbulence rotate faster and higher.  Wake turbulence twisting transverse to the runway.

Answer 57

Wake turbulence on or near the runway

Question 58

***A light aircraft intends to land behind a commercial airliner belonging to wake turbulence category "medium" or "heavy" on a long runway. How can the wake turbulence of the commercial aircraft be avoided?***  By making a steep approach and a long landing, touching down behind the touchdown point of the airliner's nose gear  By making a steep approach and a very short landing. The light aircraft should be able to stop before reaching the airliner's touchdown point  By making a shallow approach and a long landing, touching down behind the touchdown point of the airliner's nose gear  By making a shallow approach and a very short landing. The light aircraft should be able to stop before reaching the airliner's touchdown point

Answer 58

By making a steep approach and a long landing, touching down behind the touchdown point of the airliner's nose gear

Question 59

***What should be observed when taxiing behind a commercial airliner?***  To avoid wake turbulence, a minimum distance of 700 m should be maintained  To avoid the jet blast, a minimum distance of 600 m should be maintained  To avoid wake turbulence, a minimum distance of 300 m should be maintained  To avoid the jet blast, a minimum distance of 200 m should be maintained

Answer 59

To avoid the jet blast, a minimum distance of 200 m should be maintained

Question 60

***A technical fault requires an emergency off-field landing. Which steps, with respect to the pilot's operating handbook, are necessary? ***  Inform air traffic control and request technical support, check the pilot's operating handbook for a reference on the matter and execute an emergency landing.  Reduce speed and configure the aircraft for landing in an attempt to gain time, declare an emergency, complete the applicable emergency procedure and execute an emergency landing.  Locate a suitable landing area, plan the approach, complete the applicable emergency procedure, declare an emergency, start and concentrate on the approach in due time.  Declare an emergency, complete the applicable emergency procedure, cover as much distance towards the airport as possible to be closer to the rescue forces.

Answer 60

Locate a suitable landing area, plan the approach, complete the applicable emergency procedure, declare an emergency, start and concentrate on the approach in due time.

Question 61

***Which method is appropriate to approach an unprepared landing field?***  Flat direct approach to ensure visual ground contact  Steep approach to keep the noise level low  Fast approach, performance check, and landing within a quick stop  Terrain investigation to determine approach points and landing

Answer 61

Terrain investigation to determine approach points and landing

Question 62

***Which area is suitable for an off-field landing?***  Harvested cornfield  Glade with long dry grass  Plowed field  Sports area in a village

Answer 62

Harvested cornfield

Question 63

***An emergency landing is a landing...***  conducted without power from the engine.  conducted in an attempt to keep up safety regarding an aircraft and its occupants.  conducted with the flaps retracted.  conducted in response to circumstances forcing the aircraft to land.

Answer 63

conducted in response to circumstances forcing the aircraft to land

Question 64

***A landing conducted in response to circumstances forcing the aircraft to land is a / an...***  precautionary landing.  urgent landing.  emergency landing.  field or out landing.

Answer 64

emergency landing

Question 65

***A precautionary landing is a landing...***  conducted without power from the engine.  conducted in response to circumstances forcing the aircraft to land.  conducted in an attempt to sustain flight safety.  conducted with the flaps retracted.

Answer 65

conducted in an attempt to sustain flight safety

Question 66

***Which of the following landing areas is most suitable for an off-field landing? ***  A lake with an undisturbed surface  A light brown field with short crops  A meadow without livestock  A field with ripe waving crops

Answer 66

A light brown field with short crops

Question 67

***How does the pilot prepare for a VFR flight over a large distance of water, when it is unlikely that land can be reached in case of an engine failure?***  File a flight plan including the exact way-points.  Be prepared to fly with transponder only.  Carry life vests or a life raft for all occupants.  Maintain continuous radio contact with ATC.

Answer 67

Carry life vests or a life raft for all occupants

Question 68

***Which items should a passenger briefing in case of an imminent emergency landing include?***  How to work the aircraft radio, emergency transponder squawk, telephone number of the competent search and rescue (SAR) center  Blood type of the other aircraft occupants, location of the first-aid kit  Nature of the emergency, intentions, safety position, evacuation routes, actions after landing  How to read an emergency checklist, how to cut the engine, telephone number of the home airport

Answer 68

Nature of the emergency, intentions, safety position, evacuation routes, actions after landing

Question 69

***After a precautionary landing the brakes and wheels are very hot. In which way should the pilot approach them?***  From the right or left side  At an angle of 45°  From the front or back side  From the front, right or left side

Answer 69

From the front or back side

Question 70

***What needs to be observed in conjunction with overheated brakes?***  The affected brakes need to be cooled down with halon  The affected tyres may burst in axial direction  The affected tyres may burst in radial direction or direction of rotation  The wheel fairing shall be taken off to increase the cooldown

Answer 70

The affected tyres may burst in axial direction

Question 71

***In case of an emergency ditching, the life vests have to be inflated...***  before disembarking the aircraft.  during disembarking the aircraft.  after disembarking the aircraft at a safe distance of about 10 m.  after disembarking the aircraft.

Answer 71

after disembarking the aircraft

Question 72

***What are the effects of wet grass on the take-off and landing distance?***  Decrease of the take-off distance and increase of the landing distance  Increase of the take-off distance and increase of the landing distance  Decrease of the take-off distance and decrease of the landing distance  Increase of the take-off distance and decrease of the landing distance

Answer 72

Increase of the take-off distance and increase of the landing distance

Question 73

***Under which circumstances may a runway be considered to be contaminated?***  When more than 25 % of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered by water, slush, snow or ice more than 3 mm deep  When 75 % of the required runway length and width are covered by contaminants such as snow, frost, ice or sand  When more than 50 % of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered by water, slush, snow or ice more than 3 mm deep  When more than 50 % of the required runway length and width are covered by contaminants such as snow, frost, ice or sand

Answer 73

When more than 25 % of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered by water, slush, snow or ice more than 3 mm deep

Question 74

***What minimum coverage with ice or snow must be given to call a runway "contaminated"?*  50 %  25 %  10 %  75 %

Answer 74

25 %

Question 75

***Wet snow on a runway can lead to...***  an increase in lift.  a decrease in lift.  reduced rolling resistance during take-off.  increased rolling resistance during take-off.

Answer 75

increased rolling resistance during take-off

Question 76

***What danger does standing water on the runway pose to aircraft?***  Decreased rolling resistance during take-off  An increase in lift  Increased rolling resistance during take-off  A decrease in lift

Answer 76

Increased rolling resistance during take-off

Question 77

***Which danger exists after a heavy rain shower for a landing aircraft?***  Displacement of the tire slip marking  Difficult flare due to glare  Longer braking distance due to aquaplaning  Decreased braking distance due to aquaplaning

Answer 77

Longer braking distance due to aquaplaning

Question 78

***Which would be the correct reaction when hydroplaning is suspected upon landing?***  Add power and use flaps and spoilers to brake aerodynamically  Apply maximum braking to reduce aircraft speed to less than hydroplaning speed, then continue normal ground roll  Cross rudder and aileron controls in order to use the aircraft fuselage to brake aerodynamically  If all wheels are in motion, brake moderately. Maintain directional control by aerodynamic means

Answer 78

If all wheels are in motion, brake moderately. Maintain directional control by aerodynamic means ## Footnote Maximum braking leads to reverted rubber skid!

Question 79

***How should a landing on a contaminated runway be conducted if it proves to be inevitable?***  Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use minimum flaps, touch down softly with positive pitch and minimum speed, do not apply brakes  Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use maximum flaps, touch down with negative pitch and minimum speed, brake carefully  Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use maximum flaps, touch down firmly with minimum speed, brake carefully  Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use minimum flaps, touch down softly with minimum speed, do not apply brakes

Answer 79

Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use maximum flaps, touch down firmly with minimum speed, brake carefully

Question 80

***During final approach, the glider pilot realizes a very bumpy surface on a selected off- field landing site. What technique may be recommended for landing?***  Touch down with minimum speed, compensate different ground levels with power lever  Approach with increased speed, push elevetor upon first ground contact  Touch down with minimum speed, keep elevator pulled until full stop  Approach with increased speed, avoid using wheel brakes

Answer 80

Touch down with minimum speed, keep elevator pulled until full stop

Question 81

***If Search and Rescue (SAR) is expected not to be available during a flight and the aeroplane does not have survival equipment beyond a flare pistol and an Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT), what is the farthest distance the aeroplane can be from an area suitable for an emergency landing?*** 1- 80 minutes of flight at cruising speed 2- 45 minutes of flight at cruising speed 3- 60 minutes of flight at cruising speed 4- 90 minutes of flight at cruising speed

Answer 81

90 minutes of flight at cruising speed

Question 82

***For aeroplanes with turbine engines, what is the minimum fuel required to fly to an isolated aerodrome from the nearest adequate destination alternate?*** 1- Fuel necessary to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising speed consumption above the destination aerodrome 2- No other answer is correct 3- Fuel necessary to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed consumption above the destination aerodrome 4- Fuel necessary to fly for 2 hours at normal cruising speed consumption above the destination aerodrome

Answer 82

Fuel necessary to fly for 2 hours at normal cruising speed consumption above the destination aerodrome

Question 83

***What types of fuel can an aeroplane be fuelled or defuelled with when passengers are on board?*** 1- Any fuel, provided the crew is appropriately trained 2- Any fuel except aviation gasoline 3- The aeroplane cannot be fuelled or defuelled with any fuel when passengers are on board 4- Wide-cut fuel

Answer 83

Any fuel except aviation gasoline

Question 84

***Which of the listed parameters must be available during the flight to the 2nd pilot? Select the most complete answer.*** 1- Stabilised heading 2- Indicated airspeed 3- All answers are correct 4- Slip

Answer 84

All answers are correct

Question 85

***When a violation of local laws was necessary to provide safety of the aeroplane or the passengers, which authorities should be informed by the PIC?*** 1- The local authorities and ICAO 2- The local authorities, the state of the operator, and ICAO 3- The local authorities and the state of the operator 4- The state of the operator and ICAO

Answer 85

The local authorities and the state of the operator

Question 86

***What is anti-icing?*** 1- Anti-icing is a reactionary procedure by which clean aeroplane surfaces are protected against the formation of ice and frost and accumulation of snow and slush for a limited period of time 2- Anti-icing is a process which removes ice, snow, slush or frost from aeroplane surfaces 3- Anti-icing is a precautionary procedure by which clean aeroplane surfaces are protected against the formation of ice and frost and accumulation of snow and slush for a limited period of time 4- Anti-icing is a reactionary procedure which removes ice, snow, slush, or frost from the aeroplane and by which the aeroplane surfaces are protected against the formation of ice and frost and accumulation of snow and slush for a limited period of time

Answer 86

Anti-icing is a precautionary procedure by which clean aeroplane surfaces are protected against the formation of ice and frost and accumulation of snow and slush for a limited period of time ## Footnote De-icing = is a process that removes ice, snow, slush or frost from aeroplane surfaces

Question 87

***What is de-icing?*** 1- De-icing is a reactionary procedure by which clean aeroplane surfaces are protected against the formation of ice and frost and accumulation of snow and slush for a limited period of time 2- De-icing is a process that removes ice, snow, slush or frost from aeroplane surfaces 3- De-icing is a reactionary procedure that removes ice, snow, slush, or frost from the aeroplane and by which the aeroplane surfaces are protected against the formation of ice and frost and accumulation of snow and slush for a limited period of time 4- De-icing is a process by that ice, snow, slush or frost is first removed and then in which aeroplane is protected against the formation of ice on the ground

Answer 87

De-icing is a process that removes ice, snow, slush or frost from aeroplane surfaces ## Footnote Anti-icing = is a precautionary procedure by which clean aeroplane surfaces are protected against the formation of ice and frost and accumulation of snow and slush for a limited period of time

Question 88

***Which of the listed information must be kept on the ground for each flight or series of flights? Select the most complete answer.*** 1- A copy of CofA 2- All answers are correct 3- A copy of a certificate of registration 4- Copies of aircraft technical log parts

Answer 88

Copies of aircraft technical log parts

Question 89

***Which part of which ICAO Annex concerns international Commercial Air Transport (CAT) conducted by aeroplanes?*** 1- Part 2 of ICAO Annex 5 2- Part 1 of ICAO Annex 6 3- Part 1 of ICAO Annex 5 4- Part 2 of ICAO Annex 6

Answer 89

Part 1 of ICAO Annex 6

Question 90

***What is the minimum mass for a jet-driven aeroplane to be equipped with 2 independent static pressure systems?*** 1- 5,700 kg 2- 5,000 kg 3- 10,000 kg 4- No other answer is correct

Question 91

***What is de-icing/anti-icing?*** 1- De-icing/anti-icing is a reactionary 2-step procedure by which clean aeroplane surfaces are protected against the formation of ice and frost and accumulation of snow and slush for a limited period of time 2- De-icing/anti-icing is a 2-step procedure which combines de-icing and anti-icing 3- No other answer is correct 4- De-icing/anti-icing is a 1-step procedure which uses anti-icing fluid to perform aircraft de-icing and anti-icing

Answer 91

No other answer is correct

Question 92

***What conditions are necessary to commence a VFR flight?*** 1- VFR limits satisfied by the weather conditions along the part of the route flown under VFR and during take-off and landing 2- Weather minima met at the destination aerodrome or a destination alternate at the time of arrival 3- Weather minima met at the destination aerodrome and a destination alternate at the time of arrival 4- VFR limits satisfied by the weather conditions along the part of the route flown under VFR

Answer 92

VFR limits satisfied by the weather conditions along the part of the route flown under VFR

Question 93

***With reference to destination alternates, select the answer that is true. Select the most complete answer.*** 1- Destination alternate is an aerodrome which a flight can be diverted to regardless of the weather minima 2- Destination alternate is an aerodrome that can be diverted when landing at the destination is not possible or not recommended 3- Destination alternate is an aerodrome where a Non-Precision Approach (NPA) can always be performed in case of a flight being diverted 4- All answers are correct

Answer 93

Destination alternate is an aerodrome that can be diverted when landing at the destination is not possible or not recommended

Question 94

***Which of the listed forms and information must be carried on each flight? Select the most complete answer.*** 1- All answers are correct 2- Aeronautical charts and meteorological information 3- Aeronautical charts and a journey log or equivalent 4- SAR information

Answer 94

All answers are correct

Question 95

***What does the minimum visibility for circling depend on? Select the most complete answer.*** 1- Aeroplane category 2- Pilot license 3- Navigational aids 4- All answers are correct

Answer 95

Aeroplane category ## Footnote Circling = the visual phase of an instrument approach to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for a straight-in approach

Question 96

***For aeroplanes with turbine engines, what is the minimum fuel required to fly to an isolated aerodrome from the nearest adequate destination alternate?*** 1- Fuel necessary to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising speed consumption above the destination aerodrome 2- No other answer is correct 3- Fuel necessary to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed consumption above the destination aerodrome 4- Fuel necessary to fly for 2 hours at normal cruising speed consumption above the destination aerodrome

Answer 96

Fuel necessary to fly for 2 hours at normal cruising speed consumption above the destination aerodrome

Question 97

***Which of the listed equipment is required when performing an IFR flight in a propeller-driven aeroplane with a take-off mass below 3,000 kg?*** . 1- Secondary altimeter 2- Secondary pressure system 3- A standby attitude indicator 4- All answers are correct

Answer 97

Secondary altimeter

Question 98

***Who is responsible for operational control throughout an operation, before any delegation of responsibility?*** 1- The pilot-in-command 2- A designated on-board representative of the operator 3- Either the pilot-in-command or the operator, chosen prior to the flight 4- The operator or a designated representative

Answer 98

The operator or a designated representative

Question 99

***Which of the listed seats must be equipped with a shoulder harness?*** 1- Non-additional cabin crew seats 2- Pilot seats in the flight crew compartment 3- All answers are correct 4- Non-pilot seats in the flight crew compartment

Answer 99

All answers are correct

Question 100

***Which of the listed information must be kept on the ground for each flight or series of flights? Select the most complete answer.*** 1- A copy of CofA 2- All answers are correct 3- A copy of a certificate of registration 4- Copies of aircraft technical log parts

Answer 100

Copies of aircraft technical log parts

Question 101

***When can a pilot deviate from an established departure or arrival route?*** 1- When certified on the aircraft and acknowledging the operating conditions 2- When given the ATC clearance and certified on the aircraft 3- When given an ATC clearance and acknowledging the operating conditions 4- When in uncertified airspace

Answer 101

When given an ATC clearance and acknowledging the operating conditions

Question 102

***If Search and Rescue (SAR) is expected not to be available during a flight and the aeroplane does not have survival equipment beyond a flare pistol and an Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT), what is the farthest distance the aeroplane can be from an area suitable for an emergency landing?*** 1- 80 minutes of flight at cruising speed 2- 45 minutes of flight at cruising speed 3- 60 minutes of flight at cruising speed 4- 90 minutes of flight at cruising speed

Answer 102

90 minutes of flight at cruising speed

Question 103

***Which of the listed documents must be carried on each flight?*** 1- The original CofA and certificate of registration and a true copy of the AOC 2- A true copy of the CofA, the certificate of registration and the AOC 3- The original CofA and a true copy of the certificate of registration and the AOC 4- A true copy of the CofA and the certificate of registration and the original AOC

Answer 103

The original CofA and a true copy of the certificate of registration and the AOC

Question 104

***During which types of operations is a radiocommunication transmit button on the pitch and roll controller required?*** 1- No other answer is correct 2- All commercial operations 3- All operations with radiocommunications used 4- Only during IFR operations

Answer 104

No other answer is correct

Question 105

***Which of the listed parameters must be available during the flight to the 2nd pilot? Select the most complete answer.*** 1- Stabilised heading 2- Indicated airspeed 3- All answers are correct 4- Slip

Answer 105

All answers are correct

Question 106

***What should the pilot do if the aeroplane encounters a downdraft?*** 1- Carefully increase the thrust to the maximum and increase the pitch attitude to 12 degrees 2- Carefully increase the trust to the maximum and increase the pitch attitude to 15 degrees 3- Rapidly increase the thrust to the maximum and increase the pitch attitude to 15 degrees 4- Rapidly increase the trust to the maximum and increase the pitch attitude to 12 degrees

Answer 106

Rapidly increase the thrust to the maximum and increase the pitch attitude to 15 degrees

Question 107

***When recovering from wind shear, what is the initial target attitude to which pitch should be changed?*** 1- 15 degrees 2- 12 degrees 3- 10 degrees 4- 8 degrees

Answer 107

15 degrees

Question 108

***In which atmospheric conditions is wake turbulence most dangerous?*** 1- In high winds 2- Atmospheric conditions do not significantly affect wake turbulence 3- In atmospheric turbulence 4- In light wind conditions

Answer 108

In light wind conditions

Question 109

***During an in-flight engine fire on a jet aircraft, the commander has already cut the fuel supply to the engine off and tried to extinguish it. The fire is persisting. What should the commander do?*** 1- Inform the cabin crew 2- Inform the ATC 3- Use the secondary in-built extinguishant 4- Begin an emergency landing

Answer 109

Use the secondary in-built extinguishant

Question 110

***What is the minimum required number of fire extinguishers on an aeroplane with 95 passenger seats?*** 1- 3, including at least 2 Halon 1211 extinguishers 2- 2, including at least 1 Halon 1211 extinguisher 3- 4, including at least 2 Halon 1211 extinguishers 4- 4, including at least 1 Halon 1211 extinguisher

Answer 110

3, including at least 2 Halon 1211 extinguishers ## Footnote 7 - 30 = 1 31 - 60 = 2 61 - 200 = 3 201 - 300 = 4