All Chapter Summaries Flashcards

1
Q

what are the ORs and EEs for a Deed

A

grantor

grantee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the ORs and EEs for a mortgage

A

mortgagee - lender

mortgagor - buyer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the ORs and EEs for a deed of trust

A

Trustor

trustee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what separates land use in different areas. they can dictate lot size, building, height, setbacks etc

A

zoning ordinances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is an advalorem tax

A

a tax based on the value of real property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is a property’s assessed value

A

the value placed on land and the building by a city, town, or county assesor for use in levying annual real estate taxes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the highest form of land ownership?

A

Fee simple is the highest form of land ownership.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What warrants title by the seller for them and under them only?

A

Special Warranty Deed

Under a special warranty deed the seller only warrants the property for time they owned it (under them), and not before

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A real estate investment business organized as a trust best describes a/an:

A

REIT

Corporations, partnerships, and LLC ownership interest are not required to have a specified number of individuals. The REIT must have at least 100 investors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Jones deeded a parcel of property to Billings for the life of James. who holds life estate? who is in reversion?

A

Jones is the grantor and as such has an estate in reversion, Billings is the life tenant and holds the life estate, James is known as a pur autre vi (life of another) the one whose life is on the line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When a condition is placed in a deed it would most likely refer to which of the following?

A

Defeasible Fee

This is a condition where the property could revert back to the grantor because of the actions or inactions of the grantee. The other choices are not conditions listed in a deed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which is not properly included in the concept of the power of eminent domain:

A

The right of government to confiscate property from the owner

This right falls under police power because confiscation doesn’t allow for just compensation and eminent domain is a power with just compensation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When a city buys real estate they would take title as:

A

Sole and separate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Rank the order of liens highest to lowest: IRS, Assessements, Property Taxes, Mortgage Lien

A

Property taxes, assessments, mortgage lien, IRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is always personal property?

A

Trade fixtures are personal property of the tenant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What has an interest in real property but not an estate?

A

Mortgage

A mortgage holder has a lien against the property but no leasehold or ownership interest in the property. All the other answers are leasehold or ownership and therefore an estate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The principle of ________ affirms that value is created by expected benefits to be derived in the future. Which of the following is the correct insertion?

A

Anticipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In appraising commercial property, what would an appraiser not need?

A

Original cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the adjusted gross income and how do you arrive at it?

A

Total rents less vacancies and credit losses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When a buyer is considered a customer the salesperson would owe the buyer all of the following EXCEPT:

A

Fiduciary

The salesperson owes his or her customer ethics, truthfulness, and disclosure of material facts. Only the client receives fiduciary duties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The listing agent discriminates against a minority buyer. If the seller were to be held responsible for the actions of the agent, it would be an example of:

A

Vicarious liability

Vicarious liability occurs when a client is held liable for the actions of his/her agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The seller tells the broker they would like to sell their property furnished. The agent should do all of the following EXCEPT:

A

Add the personal property to the deed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A broker has earned a commission when:

A

: The broker secures a willing and able buyer making an offer meeting the seller’s terms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is an essential element of a real estate contract?

A

Consideration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Under what conditions would the buyer most likely be refunded the earnest money?
Failure to qualify for financing
26
If the seller retains the buyer's earnest money due to a contract breach, this would be called
Liquidated damages
27
Sellers sign an exclusive agency agreement with a broker and then sell the property themselves. What is true regarding the commission?
No commission will be paid
28
The listing agent is informed by the seller that the basement gets wet when it rains. The agent says nothing to the buyer. Who is liable for the failure to disclose the latent defect?
seller
29
Wetlands would come under:
Wetlands would fall under government police power.
30
Which of the following IS a protected class under the Equal Credit Opportunity Act but NOT under Fair Housing laws?
Marital status is only an ECOA protected category.
31
A man may take depreciation for income tax purposes on all of the following EXCEPT:
Land held for future profit The IRS does not allow for the depreciation of land
32
What is blockbusting
Prohibited act of inducing, for profit, any person to sell or rent property based on representations made regarding entry into the neighborhood of persons of a particular race, color, religion, sex or national origin.
33
What is a forebeance
Forebearance is where the lender agrees to temporarily reduce, postpone or suspend the mortgage payment and not proceed with foreclosure if the borrower brings the loan current with in the specified time.
34
Proration accomplishes what?
Allocates expenses between buyer and seller Because the seller pays expenses up to and through the day of closing, taxes and hazard insurance must be prorated to establish which party pays what portion of an item.
35
Prorated taxes would be shown on the settlement statement as a:
Credit to buyer, debit to seller Prorated taxes are a credit to the buyer and a debit to the seller. The seller is responsible for taxes payable through the date of closing. Since (in most states) homeowners pay taxes in arrears of one year, the seller would have to bring the taxes current and give that money to the buyer as a credit.
36
If the buyer is assuming an existing loan on the property, which of the following is prorated at closing?
Interest Only | If the buyer is assuming an existing loan on the property, only the interest will be prorated.
37
When would IRS form 1099S be used?
Report sales price
38
A note that calls for periodic payments of principal only, with a balloon payment at the end of the loan term is called a/an:
Installment note An installment note calls for periodic payments of principal only, with a balloon payment at the end of the loan term. A straight note calls for interest-only payments with a balloon payment at the end of the loan term. In an amortized note, principal and interest are paid together. An adjustable rate note permits the lender to periodically adjust the rate of interest according to fluctuations in the cost of money (interest).
39
A borrower applying for a FHA loan would be required to:
Pay a mortgage insurance premium
40
Which of the following conventional loan to value ratios would not need private mortgage insurance?
80%-20% Traditionally on a conventional loan, the buyer makes a 20% down payment. They lost ground to FHA-insured and VA-guaranteed loans because of the disparity in down payments. This dilemma was solved in 1972 with the creation of MIP insurance. It enables lenders to make conventional loans without requiring 20% down.
41
The law that requires buyers and sellers be given an itemization of all costs and expenses of the buying and selling of a home is:
RESPA The Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act requires that a thorough listing of the debits and credits due a buyer and seller be issued at the time of closing. Truth-in-Lending applies only to the borrower; it provides the borrower a disclosure of the costs of getting a loan.
42
In a lease situation, A leases to B and B leases to C. Who is responsible for the rent?
B to A Ultimately the rent is due to the owner, and the lease is between the owner A is to tenant B. B is still responsible to A. Correct Answer: B
43
A property management account can earn what?
A property management trust account can earn interest that gets paid to the property owner.
44
In real estate terms, an estate for years also may be called:
A Leasehold An estate for years is a lease that begins and ends on a specific date. A fee is the ownership of real property, and joint tenancy is co-ownership of the same property by two or more people at the same time.
45
Commingling is one of the greatest single causes for loss of license. Which of the following would not be considered commingling?
Holding an un-cashed deposit check until acceptance of an offer when directed to do so by both the offeror and the offeree According to A.R.S. Sec. 32-2151 (A): unless otherwise provided in writing by all parties to a transaction, a broker must immediately place all trust funds entrusted to the broker in either a neutral escrow depository or in the broker's trust account. Note the words "unless otherwise provided in writing by all parties to a transaction." This means that if the parties to a transaction direct the broker to hold an un-cashed check until acceptance of an offer, the broker can do as directed without the action being considered "commingling." In fact, this is common practice.
46
An easement cannot be extinguished by:
Decision of the property owner (servient tenement)
47
What is true when Bill moves into a cooperative?
Bill may have to make a larger payment if the other parties do not make their payments
48
A life tenant leases a property for 25 years to a major corporation. The life tenant dies ten years later. What is the status of the lease?
Lease is terminated
49
An owner of a two-acre lot separates it and wants to give away one of the newly formed lots. What would they have to provide?
Easement by necessity
50
Water table is defined as:
Level of which water will be located.
51
The two classifications of water in Arizona are:
Ground and surface
52
A section of land may be described as:
a section is 5,280 feet x 5,280. 4,280 / 3 = 1,760 yards
53
What determines the north and south boundaries in a government survey?
baselines
54
The Arizona Affidavit of Disclosure would not include
The affidavit of disclosure applies only to residential zoned property The Affidavit of Disclosure allows for a 5-day rescission right, applies to all land zoning, and is recorded with the grand deed.
55
When a buyer purchases a parcel of unimproved land, there exists a right to rescind. How long do they have?
The buyer has a 7 day unilateral right to rescind if he has seen the property
56
Arizona law defines a subdivision as land that is divided or proposed to be divided for sale or lease into:
6 or more lots of less than 36 acres
57
The difference between the actual value of a property and the total amount of liens against the property would be:
The owner's equity
58
is marketable title a perfect title?
There is no such thing as a perfect title, there always something on the title such as property taxes, etc.
59
When purchasing a piece of property in which your spouse is not to have any interest, which deed would be used to relinquish any rights to the property?
Disclaimer deed
60
Who places deed restrictions on real estate?
The Grantor
61
The rules of the Real Estate Commissioner have what kind of effect
Have the force and effect of law The rules of the Real Estate Commissioner are not a part of statutory real estate law. The rules have the force and effect of law to licensees only.
62
A real estate licensee gets contracted with a large bank to handle all of their local BPO's. Who can the bank make payment to the BPO for?
Only the licensee's broker All compensation for a licensee must go through the licensee's broker.
63
When a broker's license is revoked, the licenses of the salespeople in the brokerage agency are:
Automatically suspended When a broker's license is revoked, the licenses of the salespeople in the brokerage agency are suspended or inactive until they get a new broker. You must have an active broker in order to participate in real estate activities.
64
An authorization to sell consists of a mutual agreement between broker and seller and is considered:
It is a contract for personal services
65
Bob and Mary have decided to purchase a house from a real estate auction. what do they need in order to do this
The auctioneer needs a license. To auction any real property, business or timeshare a real estate license is required
66
What is the maximum amount of personal money a broker can keep in his trust account?
The maximum amount of personal money a broker can keep in his trust account is $3,000.
67
What is the statutory redemption period on a tax lien foreclosure sale?
The statutory redemption period for a tax foreclosure is 3 years.
68
What would NOT be a lien?
An easement in gross is not a lien.
69
In using the income approach to value, an appraiser would not care about:
The cost to cure a leaky roof In using the income approach to value, an appraiser would not care about the cost to cure a leaky roof because the indication of value using the income approach is based solely on the property's ability to generate income in whatever state of repair the property is at the time of the appraisal.
70
A trustor lists his property for sale on May 1. On May 2 he was notified of default on the trust deed, which default had occurred 45 days prior to notification. The trustor, under these conditions:
The homeowner may sell the property within the 90-day reinstatement period.
71
The premium for a lender's title insurance policy is based upon the:
Amount of new financing The premium for a lender's title insurance policy is based upon the amount of new financing. Customarily, it is the buyer who pays for this policy. This policy is then put in the lender's name, and it insures up to the amount borrowed.
72
A property management company hires employees to supervise residential units. The company is covered in the event the employees steal or misappropriate monies. What would best describe that type of coverage?
No. An occupancy limitation of two persons per bedroom residing in a dwelling unit is presumed reasonable according to Arizona law According to A.R.S. Sec. 33-1317 (F): an occupancy limitation of two persons per bedroom residing in a dwelling unit shall be presumed reasonable.
73
If there is a material non-compliance by a landlord or a tenant with the rental agreement, the non-breaching party may deliver a written notice to the breaching party specifying the acts and omissions constituting the breach and the rental agreement will terminate as follows:
If there is no effect upon the health and safety of the tenant, the rental agreement will terminate upon a date not less than ten days after the receipt of the notice if the breach is not remedied within ten days According to A.R.S. Sec. 33-1361: if there is a material noncompliance by the landlord with the rental agreement...the tenant may deliver a written notice to the landlord specifying the acts and omissions constituting the breach and that the rental agreement will terminate upon a date not less than ten days after receipt of the notice if the breach is not remedied in ten days. If there is a noncompliance by the landlord...materially affecting health and safety, the tenant may deliver a written notice to the landlord specifying the acts and omissions constituting the breach and that the rental agreement will terminate upon a date not less than five days after receipt of the notice if the breach is not remedied in five days
74
a residential tenant with a month to month lease enjoys which leasehold estate?
periodic tenancy it automatically renews itself from period to period
75
in real estate terms, an estate for years may also be called
fee simple conditional
76
to be enforeable a lease must be in writing if the term is
longer than 1 year
77
when a claim is paid by the real estate recovery fund, the status of the licensee's license is
terminated
78
how long must the landlord give notice if they were to terminate a month to month lease
30 days
79
what is an essential element for an Arizona deed
signature of grantor
80
the statute of frauds was brought into being to prevent
perjury
81
an affidavit of value would be used in what circumstance
to assist the assessor in determining property taxes
82
what is an irrevocable right
an easement
83
what ownership requires probate
tenancy in common. a tenancy that includes rights of survivorship does not require probate. Tenancy in common is not rights of survivorship and your property passes to your heirs
84
when a husband and wife own real estate as community property and the husband dies without a will, what happens to the property
goes to the heirs
85
if you hold a long-term proprietary lease you would have an interest in
cooperative
86
when two or more parties own real property as co-owners with right of survivorship, what is the tenancy called?
joint tenancy when parties specify and preserve the unities of possession, interest, time and title with the right of survivorship their tenancy is a joint tenancy.
87
when a new residential development is taking place in an Active Management Area, the developer would be required to provide what?
assured water supply
88
radon gas would be found primary in what substance
underground minerals
89
how many townships are contained in a government survey "check"
16
90
what sections are contiguous to section 6?
1 and 7
91
government checks are 24 miles square and are defined by which of the following
standard parallels and guide meridian.
92
a subdivision public report is not required on what type of property
commercial lots.
93
if you buy an unimproved land in a subdivision "sight unseen" you have how to rescind the contract
6 months 7 days if seen
94
what is a good way to describe a second mortgage
a junior lien on real estate. second = junior
95
the difference between the actual value of property and the total amount of liens agains the property would be
the owners equity
96
when a person wishes to enforce a judgement they would exercise
a writ of execution
97
who places deed restrictions on real estate
the grantor
98
an interest in title to real property, not gov. owned, obtained by action at law based on adverse possession best describes
prescription
99
define subrogation
the substitution of one claimant or creditor for another with the substituted party succeeding to the legal rights and claims of the original claimant.
100
define subordination
a written agreement between lienholders on a property to change the priority of mortgages, judgements, and other liens
101
when the buyer is getting a new loan, the interest proration on the closing statement will reflect
debit to the buyer
102
adverse possession is gained by
living open and hostile on property for 10 years
103
what action would terminate a purchase oontract
eminent domain
104
a subordination clause is most often used in a
trust deed
105
what would not be a lien?
easement in gross
106
if a buyer wants to purchase property with an FHA Insured loan you would refer him to
the primary market
107
a non-recourse loan would not provide for which of the following
deficiency judgement
108
the sellers proceeds would show on the closing statement in the following manner
debit seller only any money that seller takes out of escrow account is a debit against the account.
109
permanent finance payments would include which of the following
principal and interest `
110
when a new FHA loan is required the mortgage insurance premium
is up front and monthly premium
111
what charge would be paid at closing on a high-risk conventional loan
PMI
112
a trust deed is signed by the
trustor
113
what association is not a part of the secondary market
federal universal mortgage assosiation
114
the "escape clause" in FHA insured finance of a home purchase is the
right of the buyer to withdraw if the appraisal is lower than the contract price
115
If you live along a steam and have water rights, these rights are called
riparian
116
what deed would contain 3 promises and 2 warranties
warranty deed
117
if the tenant abandons the property and leaves personal property behind how long does the landlord hold the tenants property
14 days
118
property management companies are required to retain a copy of all residential rental agreements for a period of ____ from the date of expiration
1 year
119
by definition, "a property management firm" means any corp, partnership or LLC or a designated broker that manages rental property
under a written agreement and for compensation
120
if there is a material noncompliance by a tenant, the landlord may deliver a written notice to the tenant to fix. If breach is not remedied within ____ the landlord may terminate the rental agreement
10 days
121
what warrant indicates that the grantee is the owner of the property
seizin
122
what is taken into consideration when calculating the effective gross income
vacancy and loss of credit
123
what is NOT an operating expense
vacancies and loss of credit
124
what would be considered functional obsolescence
five bedrooms and one bath
125
in real estate matters, "open housing" means
prevention or elimination of discrimination in housing
126
if the seller breaches the purchase contract the buyer may seek
specific performance
127
which term best describes reducing the degree or intensity of, or eliminating pollution
abatement
128
which term best describes any substance that can cause or aggravate cancer
carcinogen
129
what is the primary reason asbestos was used prior to our knowlege of the health risks
fire resistance
130
Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) is responsible for
flood area maps
131
when a person has suffered a violation of the Fair Housing Law they have ____ to file a claim
12 months or a year
132
what is not part of a tax deferred exchange
highest and best use
133
RESPA Requirements would not apply in which of the following situations
a conventional loan that would not be sold on secondary mortgage markets
134
who picks the title insurance company
the seller
135
RESPA regulations would not apply to:
a transaction financed solely by a purchase money mortgage taken by the seller
136
which would a buyer prefer: land installment contract or purchase money mortgage
purchase money mortgage
137
a home seller would purchase title insurance for a buyer. What type of insurance would a buyer purchase for a lender?
mortgagee title insurance
138
real estate taxes are prorated as of the day of closing. the real estate taxes are
a debit to the seller and a credit to the buyer
139
the broker must give his client an accounting of the property management account every ____
6 months
140
the broker's property management account must
be accessible by the property manager/broker
141
when the court orders property to be sold as a result of a judgement is called
execution
142
in AZ the Doctrine of Water Usage is known as
prior appropriation
143
Littoral rights would refer to
property boarding lakes and oceans
144
when a party owns land on a non-navigable stream, it is said that they hold title to
low water mark
145
there are how many standard sections in a townshp
25
146
land described by lots and blocks
are described by reference to the recorded plat of a subdivision
147
what can a developer do without a public report
lot reservations
148
a subdivider must be able to give the purchaser
permanent access
149
if a buyer buys a parcel of land in which a public report was required but was not issued, the buyer may void the sale within
3 years
150
a buyer of a lot located within a subdivision may rescind the sale if the lot does not have
permanent ingress and egress
151
how long does a developer keep a receipt of having given a public report to the buyer
5 years
152
how many parcels can a tract of land be divided into without requiring a public report
5
153
what is maximum deposit allowed with a lot reservation
$5,000 fully refundable
154
improved subdivided property is defined as
a parcel of land on which a structure has been build
155
An area or easement that restricts use and preserves the land in an undeveloped state is an
Natural Area Open Space
156
An employer wants to be protected against employee's dishonesty, the employer should ask for a
fidelity bond
157
what is a life estate pur autre vie
for the life of another, | life estate measured by the life of another
158
what are the ways to terminate a homestead
sale or transfer of property they move out of AZ abandon prop for 2 years+ moves to different primary residence
159
how much does the homestead exemption cover and how often can if be used
up to $150,000 of property equity a person can have ony one homestead exemption at one time
160
what is a turnkey
when a new tenant can use a commercial space without making changes or improvements
161
what is a lease option
a lease agreement that gives tenant the choice to purchase the property
162
the provisions of Section 121 of the taxpayer relief act of 1997 can be invoked only once every
2 years
163
what is protected under the civil rights act 1866
discrimination against race, religion, sex, national origin (ancestry)
164
what is the limit if there is a violation of the civil rights act
there is no limit to punitive damages
165
what does the fair housing act protect
race color religion or national origin of residential property
166
what are the 3 requirements to be exempt from the federal fair housing act
owns no more than 3 such homes at a time no discriminatory ads are used no real estate broker is used
167
what are the added protected classes protected in the fair housing laws
in 1974, added sex and gender in 1988 added familial status and disability
168
an individual can file a civil lawsuit within _____ after discriminatory incident or after the conclusion of a HUD hearing
2 years
169
what are the days a lease can terminate under ALTA if a tenant breaches? a landlord if unhealthy?
10 days of noncompliance for tenant to remedy 5 days if noncompliance for landlord if affecting health/safety.
170
how many days can tenant terminate lease if dwelling has fire or casualty damage
14 day written notice
171
what are emblements
farm crops that require annual cultivation, which may be removed by a tenant farmer if the owner sells land; considered to be personal property and so emblements are transferred through a bill of sale aka fructus industriales
172
what warrants title by the seller for them and under them only
special warranty deed Under a special warranty deed the seller only warrants the property for time they owned it (under them), and not before.
173
Buyer purchases property and has a $90,000 title policy. The title company is required to pay a claim, but the payoff is higher than the original policy amount. This is due to:
An inflation clause in the title policy
174
what is an encumbrance and a lien
deed of trust
175
Under the _________ , the grantor warrants that at the time of delivery, he or she has the right to convey legal title.
Covenant of seizin
176
An instrument that conveys a grantor's interest is called a:
deed
177
what does "tacking" refer to when following easements
prescription easement
178
having an improvement on a land shows that someone has what in that property
interest ie, a fence is an improvement and shows interest in the property
179
what lists an interest in real property by not an estate
a mortgage
180
A legitimate reason for appraising a property as of some date in the past is:
To settle an estate
181
The rule that says an item is only worth what it contributes in value to the property best describes:
The rule of contribution
182
Seller and buyer sign a purchase contract. The buyer wishes to give it to another party. This action is called:
Assignment
183
Seller accepts a sales contract, with a close of escrow in 90 days. What is the buyer's position?
Equitable title
184
what is equitable title
any present right to acquire legal title to property
185
When any broker can sell a listing and receive a full commission, this is called
Open
186
An expanded agency, which does not require the additional consent of the principal for the agent to act is a/an:
Agency by necessity An expanded agency, which does not require the additional consent of the principal for the agent to act is a/an agency by necessity. This typically happens in an emergency situation. You are showing a house to a buyer and it is on fire you should contact the proper authorities even though you don't represent the seller.
187
When a buyer and seller agree to cancel a contract, under normal conditions who would receive the earnest money?
buyer
188
What purpose does the Superfund serve?
It allows the EPA to clean up abandoned waste sites and requires the responsible party to cover the costs of doing so
189
Which is the environmental program established to address abandoned hazardous waste sites?
Superfund
190
A lender is limited in the amount of reserves they may hold in a residential real estate transaction. This is governed by:
RESPA
191
What is RESPA
Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (Regulation X) to protect consumers by requiring lenders to disclose actual closing costs in a timely manner applies to residential property designed for 1 - 4 families
192
When does RESPA not apply
loans used to finance the purchase of 25+ acres loans for purchase of vacant land certain loan assumptions commercial or business loans temporary financing, such as construction loans.
193
what is Regulation Z
Regulation Z implemented The Truth in Lending Act (TILA) lending institution discloses to the borrower the actual, total costs involved in acquiring credit does not set limits on interest rates or other finance charges, regulates disclosure of the items enforced by Consumer Financial Protection Bureau
194
When does TILA apply
to all real estate loans made to consumers for personal, family, or household purposes if loan is subject to finance charge or payable by written agreement in more than 4 installments
195
When does TILA not apply
business, commercial less than 4 installment payments loans without finance charges loans made to corp, partnerships, associations, and agencies
196
what are some examples of trigger terms for regulation z
4% interest rate $500 down payment $350 monthly payments
197
How many times in 10 years could a single person sell their personal home and receive, tax-free, a gain of $250,000?
5 times You can tax a tax exempt gain every 2 years as long as it was your primary residence. It has to be a primary residence 2 of the last 5 years and it's not required that they are consecutive.
198
When land is offered interstate it would be regulated by the Office of Interstate Land Sales Registration. What number of lots must be offered for the regulation to take place?
100 or more
199
When a lender's advertising is considered bait and switch it would be regulated by:
Truth in Lending Truth in Lending states that advertising must be truthful and not deceptive
200
A survey is the process of:
: Determining the size and boundaries of a piece of property Unlike the location survey which determines encroachments, the survey is concerned with size and boundaries of the property.
201
What is a bringdown search (fee)?
Updates the title prior to close of escrow
202
On a closing statement, the amount of the sales price would be:
Debit buyer, credit seller
203
In a blanket mortgage, which special clause would you most likely find?
Release Clause provides for the release of parcels out of a blanket mortgage
204
who has title on a land contract
vendor
205
In what type of installment agreement does the buyer make payments for the right to possession, but does not recieve the title until most or all of the terms have been met?
Land contract
206
In real estate terms, an estate for years also may be called:
a leasehold
207
What term does the law use to describe a holdover tenant?
tenancy at sufferance
208
What document is evidence of the relationship between property owner and property manager?
Property management agreement
209
In a listing of property for sale, what is not necessary for a valid exclusive listing
a legal description A legal description is not required in a listing -- an adequate description is acceptable.
210
If a branch manager is a licensed salesperson the salesperson may, when dealing with branch office transactions:
Be a signer on the broker's trust account and property management trust account
211
For purposes of real estate law, "knowingly" or "with knowledge" includes engaging in any prohibited conduct if the subject person actually knew or should have known:
The falsity of any statement or representation
212
Four widowers decided to buy a home and live together. They took title in equal shares, but agreed that as each of them died, his share would pass to the remainder of the group until only one was left who would then own the entire property. The men took title to the home as:
Joint tenants
213
When land is in an AMA, what is happening?
Overdraft of the underground water supply may be occurring. AMAs are heavily populated areas where there has been significant depletion of mined groundwater referred to as overdraft.
214
What determines the east and west boundaries in a government survey?
meridian
215
When a quarter section is nonstandard as a result of lakes, mountains, and/or streams this is called a:
government lot
216
The Affidavit of Disclosure includes what type of property
The affidavit of disclosure applies only to residential zoned property
217
Who is able to file a mechanic's lien
Mechanic's liens are put on the property by someone who performed work on the real property or provided materials and who ha snot been paid.
218
You would discover a 'cloud on title' by reviewing:
Schedule B
219
If a broker in AZ is giving another broker in CA a $500 fee for a buyer moving to AZ. Who does this information have to be disclosed to?
One broker giving a referral fee to another licensed broker does not have to be disclosed.
220
What is a wraparound loan
allows a mortgage or trust deed to wrap around the existing mortgage. the seller agrees to remain obligated to pay the exisiting loan(s) and the buyer purchase the property "subject to" with the existing loans remaining as encumbrances against the buyer's title interest then buyer makes single payment to amortize the loan
221
Why would the APR be higher than the interest rate on the note?
The lender charges discount points
222
When a mortgage is in default what action would the lender take?
Court action
223
At what time would a warranty deed be given to a buyer under a land contract?
only when paid in full
224
When a property manager repairs a malfunctioning pool pump, the type of maintenance is called:
corrective
225
You do not need to hold a real estate license to:
Act as a residential leasing agent if you work at only one location during any given workday
226
Before the mortgage foreclosure is held the mortgagor can redeem the property. This is called:
equitable period of redemption time frame by which the mortgagor can redeem the property
227
a promissory note is
evidence of the debt
228
the redemption period on a deed of trust following the trustee's sale is
non existent. reinstatement is 90 days PRIOR to trustee's sale. Following, the deed is given to the successful bidder.
229
who authorizes the use of the "power of sale" in a deed of trust
The truster (borrower) authorizes the use of the power of sale clause when they sign the Deed of Trust. The beneficiary (lender) initiates the use of the power of sale clause when the truster is in default.
230
A timeshare representative is offering a gift to all prospective buyers. When would the buyer receive the gift?
after the sales presentation
231
When a person sends unsolicited fax advertising the fine can be up to:
$16,000
232
A selling broker may present an offer directly to the seller without the listing broker if he tried to reach the listing broker for how many hours?
24
233
A salesperson prepares an offer on a property of another listing broker. The salesperson cannot contact the listing broker within 24 hours. What may the salesperson do?
request the seller give written authorization to present the offer
234
when a lot is sold outside of a subdivision what must appear in the deed
no ingress or egress exists
235
How long does a developer keep a receipt of having given a public report to the buyer?
5 years
236
What is required when a Public Disclosure is not required
An Affidavit of Disclosure
237
What is an Affidavit of Disclosure
a mini public report must meet the following: property is an unincorporated area five or fewer parcels are involved in the transaction The buyer has the right to rescind within 5 days of receipt and must be recorded along with the deed
238
If a structure is built within 2 years what is the right of rescission period
if there is a structure built within .2 years it is considered improved land. THere is no right of rescission on improved, subdivided property
239
what is considered an exempt domestic well
one with a maximum pumping capacity of 35 gallons per minute
240
the two classifications of water in AZ are
ground and surface
241
What agency oversees Active Management Areas
ADWR it's mission is to ensure long term water supplies
242
In AZ, the Doctrine of Water Usage is known as
Prior Appropriation
243
what is not considered a grandfathered water right
exempt domestic well
244
littoral rights would refer to
property boarding lakes and oceans
245
Name all the parties in a deed of trust
beneficiary - lender trustee - 3rd party who holds bare naked title trustor - borrower creating the trust
246
what is a testator
maker of a will
247
what is an estate at will
when owner permits another to occupy the property
248
what is an estate at sufferance
the lowest type of leasehold. the holder of this tenant is called a holdover tenant. basically trespassing.
249
what is a gross lease
common residential lease where tenant pays the same rent each month and landlord pays building expenses
250
what is a net lease
used in most commercial properties. tenant pays base rent and a share of the building's expenses
251
what is a percentage lease
typically used for retail business. tenant pays base rent and landlord receives a percentage of the tenant's gross profits.