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SIU SOM: CRR > all CRR drugs > Flashcards

all CRR drugs Flashcards

(123 cards)

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1
Q

abciximab (reopro)

A

glycoprotein IIb/IIIa antagonist
blocks GPIIb/IIIa receptor on platelets to bind vWF or fibrinogen therefore reduces platelet aggregation and clotting

other examples of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa antagonists: eptifibatide, tirofiban

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2
Q

aspirin

A

NSAID- nonsteroidal anti-inflammatroy drug
acetylsalycic acid
irreversibly inhibits COX (inhibits activation/secretion step of platelet plug formation), reduces clotting

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3
Q

NSAIDs

A

NSAID- nonsteroidal anti-inflammatroy drug
competitive inhibitors for COX (therefore reduce platelet aggregation and clotting)
reversible: ibuprofen, acetaminophin, indomethacin
irreversible: aspririn

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4
Q

ADP receptor (PY12) antagonists

A

irreversibly blocks ADP receptor on platelet therefore reduce platelet aggregation and platelet plug formation
ex. plavix (clopidogrel)

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5
Q

plavix (clopidogrel)

A 
ADP receptor (PY12) antagonist
irreversibly blocks ADP receptor on platelet therefore reduce platelet aggregation and platelet plug formation
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6
Q

glycoprotein IIb/IIIa antagonist

A

blocks GP IIb/IIIa receptor on platelets therefore reducing platelet aggregation and platelet plug formation

Reopro (abciximab, eptifiatide, tirofiban)

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7
Q

vorapaxar

A

blocks thrombin receptor (PAR-1) on platelets, reduces platelet plug formation and clotting

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8
Q

heparin

A

increases antithrombin III activity in inhibiting factor X and thrombin
reduces coagulation

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9
Q

warfarin

A

inhibits vitamin K synthesis therefore inhibiting vitamin K dependent factors in coagulation: X, IX, XII, II, protein Ca, and protein S

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10
Q

direct thrombin inhibitors

A

anticoagulants
bivalirudin (angiomax)
dabigatran (pradaxa)
apixaban (eliquis)

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11
Q

bivalirudin (angiomax)

A

inhibits thrombin

anticoagulant

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12
Q

dabigatran (pradaxa)

A

inhibits thrombin

anticoagulant

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13
Q

apixaban (eliquis)

A

inhibits factor Xa

anticoagulant

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14
Q

voxelotor

A

blocks the polymerization of hemoglobin in SCD and beta thalassemias

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15
Q

5-azacytidine

A

removes methylation on CpGs islands of gamma globin genes (normally repress gamma globin expression) in order to promote HbF expression

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16
Q

hydroxyurea

A

promotes gamma globin expression, therefore HbF expression

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17
Q

Endari

A

increases NADH in RBC to promote glutathione reduction

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18
Q

Thiopental

A

high lipid coefficient which allows it to rapidly enter the brain
induces rapid anesthesia
also leaves the brain rapidly so short duration of action

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19
Q

Inducers of CYP450 enzymes

A

enhance CYP450 activity which increases the rate at which they metabolize drugs, excrete drugs more quickly

ex. phenobarbital, rifampin, carbamazepine, cruciferous vegetables, smoking

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20
Q

inhibitors of CYP450 enzymes

A

inhibit CYP450 enzymes from metabolizing drugs, drug build up in the body, increases response to drug

ex. omeprazole, eeythromycin, grapefruit juice, cumin,

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21
Q

MAOIs

A

inhibitors of MAO which normally breaks down catecholamines and serotonin, allows build up of these neurotransmitters increasing the post synaptic stimulation

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22
Q

disulfiram

A

inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase (breaks down aldehyde, by product of alcohol metabolism
causes aldehyde build up when person drinks alcohol–> ill with vommitting, sweat, etc

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23
Q

naltrexone

A

k and m opiod receptor antagonist

reduces cravings for alcohol bc decreases alcohol activation of dopamine reward pathway

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24
Q

acamprosate

A

antagonist of NMDA receptors thus reducings the activity of glutamate in the CNS and reduces cravings for alcohol

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25
isoproterenol
beta agonist: increases heart rate, increase contraction force, increases conduction velocity, dilates blood vessels
26
epinephrine
mixed alpha, beta agonist: primarily a beta receptor agonsit at low doses and an alpha agonist at high doses used clinically as: with local anestetic bc local vasoconstriction will localize action of the anesthetic local hemostatic (control bleeding during surgery) increase cardiac activity after cardiac arrest treat allergic reaction by counter acting hypotention from histamines, counters constriction of airways (beta 2 broncho dilation)
27
norepinephrine
catecholamine primarily alpha receptor agonist used clinically as: pressor agent to block system hypotension
28
nonselective beta agonist
increase intropic and chronotropic effects and cause some vasodilation ex. isoproterenol
29
beta 1 selective agonist
inotropic/cardioselective effects, increase myocardial oxygen demand ex. dobutamine
30
beta 2 selective agonist
bronchodilation ex. salbutamol, terbutaline, elbuterol, arformoterol tartarate
31
non selective beta blocker
decrease HR, CF, and CO effects are more substantial as sympathetic tone increases reflex from decreased BP causes a temporary rise in BP can have bronchodilation effects so bad for pulmonary compromised patients also blocks renin secretion in kidney --> vasodilation ex. propranolol
32
beta 1 selective blocker
cardioselectively increase HR, CF, and CO, do NOT cause a decrease in bronchoconstriction like non selective so these are safer to use with pulmonary compromised patients also blocks renin secretion in kidney --> vasodilation ex. metoprolol, esmolol, atenolol, nadolol
33
beta 2 selective blocker
inhibits bronchodilation --> bronchoconstriction
34
alpha receptor blocker
decreases peripheral resistance used to treat hypertension without effecting heart rate, renal blood flow, or GFR ex. prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin, phenoxybenzamine
35
muscarininc agonist
stimulates effect of PNS direct: ex. pilocarpine, carbachol indirect: inhibits AChE ex. neostigmine, physostigmine, organophosphate
36
muscarininc antagonsit
inhibit response from PNS ex. atropine, ipratropium
37
isoproterenol
nonselective beta agonist
38
dobutamine
beta 1 selective agonist
39
salbutamol
beta 2 selective agonist
40
terbutaline
beta 2 selective agonist
41
albuterol
beta 2 selective agonist
42
arformoterol tartrate
beta 2 selective agonist
43
propranolol
nonselective beta blocker
44
metoprolol
beta 1 selective blocker
45
atenolol
beta 1 selective blocker
46
esmolol
beta 1 selective blocker
47
nadolol
beta 1 selective blocker
48
prazosin
alpha receptor blocker
49
terazosin
alpha receptor blocker
50
doxazosin
alphareceptor blocker
51
pilocarpine
direct muscarinic agonist
52
carbachol
direct muscarinic agonist
53
neostigmine
indirect muscarinic agonist
54
physostigmine
indirect muscarininc agonist
55
organophosphate
indirect muscarininc agonist
56
atropine
muscarininc antagonist
57
ipratropium
muscarininc antagonist
58
class I antiarrhythmic drugs
sodium channel blockers slow phase 0, work better on cells rapidly depolarizing 1A: slow 0, prolong action potential (ex. procainamide) 1B: shorten phase 3 ex. lidocane 1C: slow phase 0 ex. flecainide treat re-entrant arrhythmias (mainly 1A), tachyarrythmias, and abnormal automacity
59
procainamide
type IA antiarrythmic drug | slows phase 0 and prolongs action potential by blocking sodium channels
60
lidocane
type 1B antiarrhythmic drug | shortens phase 3 by blocking sodium channels
61
flecainide
type 1C antiarrhythmia drug | slows phase 0 by blocking sodium channels
62
class II antiarrhythmic drugs
beta blockers decrease HR, CF, and CO effectiveness increases as sympathetic tone increases treat tachyarrhytmias secondary to sympathoadrenal discharge, distubance of aytomaticity and re-entry ex. non selective: propanolol, B1 selective: metoprolol, atenolol, nadolol, esmolol
63
class III antiarrhythmic drugs
potassium channel blockers prolong phase 3 which increases effective refactory period, depolarization treat supraventricular and or ventricullar tachy ex. amiodarone, sotalol
64
amiodarone
``` class III/potassium channel blocker treat tachycardia ```
65
sotalol
``` class III/potassium channel blocker treat tachy ```
66
class IV antiarrhymic
calcium channel blocker especially affects AV node (ca++ dependent) to decrease phase 4 which prolongs effecticve refractory period decreases normal and abnormal automaticity treat supraventricular arrhythmias, AV reentry and ectopic stimulation ex. verapamil and diltiazem
67
verapamil
``` class IV/ calcium channel blocker treat supraventricular arrhythmias, AV re entry and ectopic stimulation ```
68
class V antiarrhymic
misc. | ex. digoxin, atropine, epi, iso, adenosine
69
digoxin
increase calcium which increases force of contraction | enhances pNS at nodal areas which decreases SA and AV automaticity but mainly affects AV
70
atropine
musc. blocker, treats bradycardia and sinus arrest secondary to PNS stimulation
71
adenosine
receptors at SA and AV inhibits adenylyl cyclase --> decreased calcium and increased potassium, thereofre decreasing conduction, prolonging ERP and decreasing AV automaticity treats paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
72
ACEI
angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors AT I is not turned into AT II, so blocks the vasoconstriction ATII usually produces in arteries and venules decreases cardiac load and arterial pressure ex. captopril, enalapril, lisinopril good for young people and European people who have normal or high plasma renin
73
captopril
ACEI short duration of action treat HTN by lowering BP
74
enalapril
ACEI long duration treat HTN
75
lisinopril
ACEI long duration treat HTN
76
ARB
angiotensin II receptor blocker/angiotensin I antagonist blocks receptor ATII binds to (ATI) blocks inflow of calcium and therefore block vasoconstriction works well in kidney and brain ex. losartan, valsartan, irbesartan, candesartan works well in young people and european people with high plasma renin
77
losartan
ARB
78
candesartan
ARB
79
valsartan
ARB
80
Irbesartan
ARB
81
Ca+ channel antagonists
block influx of calcium thus inducing vasodilation ex. nifedipine, amlodipin, verapramil, dilitiazem good for older people and people with low plasma renin
82
nifedipine
Ca+ channel antagonist | vasodilation
83
amlodipine
Ca+ channel antagonist | vasodilation
84
verapramil
Ca+ channel antagonsit | vasodilation
85
dilitiazem
Ca+ channel antagonist | vasodilation
86
HCTZ
thiazide diuretic
87
lopressor HCT
metoprolol and HCTZ | beta blocker and thiazide diuretic
88
HYZAAR
losartan + HCTZ | ARB and thiazide diuretic
89
vaseretic
enalapril + HCT | ACEI and thiazide diuretic
90
renin inhibitors
blocks ATI --> ATII vasodilation ex. aliskiren
91
aliskiren
renin inhibitor | vasodilation
92
phenoxybenzamine
non selective alpha receptor antagonist binds irreversibly and only used during removal of phaeochromocytoma removal (adrenal gland tumor) since the tumor could release catecholamines when moved
93
aldosterone antagonist
blocks Na and H2O reabsorption in kidney and potassium excretion thus decreases BP while sparing potassium ex. spironolactone
94
spironolactone
aldosterone antagonist | potassium sparing diuretic
95
potassium channel activator
opens KATP channel causing hyperpolarization of cells and decreasing activity of calcium channels and calcium influx thus induces vasodilation ex. minoxidil
96
minoxidil
potassium channel activator vasodilator last resort for severe HTN because very potent and long duration
97
endothelin receptor antagonist
blocks endothelin induced vasoconstriction ex. bosentan
98
bosentan
blocks both ETA and ETB receptors of endothelin | vasodilation
99
alpha methyldopa
sympatholytic decreases BP without affecting the kidney safe to use in kidney compromised patients and during pregnancy
100
hydralazine
acts on arteries by unkown mechanism to decrease blood pressure can cause tachycardia and increased cardiac output only used short term for severe hypertension during pregnancy
101
Nitric Oxide
activates guanylyl cylcase to increase cGMP to alter PKG, cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase, and ion channels in order to decrease/block Ca++ channels and stop constriction vasodilation ex. nitroprusside
102
sacubitril
blocks neprilysin neprilysin cleaves ANP, BNP, and CNP which usually induce vasoconstriction but also degrades ATII which usualy induce vasoconstriction using ACEI with neprilysin will block increased ATII and result in only vasodilation
103
nitroprusside
NO | vasodilation
104
entresto
valsartan + sacubitril | ACEI and sacubitril (degrades neprilysin)
105
acetazolamide
inhibits carbonic andhydrase which normally breaks down HCO3 into CO2 and H2O results in decreases H2O and Na+ absorptopn and alkaline urine (HCO3 is excreted and not absorbed)
106
osmotic diuretics
inhibit reabsorption of solute and water by altering the osmotic forces along the nephron in the proximal tubule makes the lumen of tubule very concrentrated so water does not leave the lumen ex. mannitol, glyverin, isosorbide, and urea
107
mannitol
osmotic diuretic | decreases H2O and solute reabsorption in proximal tubule
108
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
inhibits carbonic anhydrase which decreases bicarb break down which decreases CO2 and H2O absorption which decreases H+ leaving cell via H/Na transporter leading to decreased Na+ reabsorption results in decreases H2O and Na absorption and alkaline urine ex. acetazolamide
109
loop diuretics
inhibit Na,2Cl, K symporter in loop of henle decreases Na reabsorption and H2O reabsorption risk of hypokalemia ex. furosemide, ethocrynic (etharcinic) acid, bumetanide, torsemide
110
furosemide
loop diuretic
111
ethocrynic (etharcinic) acid
loop diuretic
112
bumetanide
loop diuretic
113
torsemide
loop diuretic
114
thiazide diuretics
block Na/Cl symporter in distal convoluted tubule decreasing Na+ absorption and H2O absorption risk of hypokalemia ex. HCTZ, chlorthalidone, indapamide, metolazone
115
HCTZ
thiazide diuretic
116
chlorthalidone
thiazide diuretic
117
indapamide
thiazide diuretic
118
metolazone
thiazide diuretic
119
potassium sparing diuretics
inhibit either Na+ channel (ENAC) or aldosterone action in the principal cells which decreases the amount of K+ secretion and excretion only has small volume changes ex. Na+ channel inhibitors: amiloride, triamterene ex. aldosterone antagonist: spironolactone, eplerenone
120
spironolactone
potassium sparing diuretic that acts on aldosterone
121
eplerenone
potassium sparing diuretic that acts on aldosterone
122
amiloride
potassium sparing diuretic that acts on ENAC
123
triamteren
potassium sparing diuretic that acts on ENAC

SIU SOM: CRR (15 decks)

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