Anaphy Flashcards
(506 cards)
1
Q
Muscular System
A
2
Q
Identify the property of muscle:
The ability of muscle to shorten forcefully, or contract
A
Contractility
3
Q
Identify the property of muscle:
The capacity of muscle to respond to a stimulus
A
Excitability
4
Q
Identify the property of muscle:
The ability to be stretched beyond its normal resting length and still be able to contract
A
Extensibility
5
Q
Identify the property of muscle:
The ability of the muscle to recoil to its original resting length after it has been stretched
A
Elasticity
6
Q
Identify the type of muscle:
- attached to bones
- striated; transverse bands
- voluntary controlled
A
Skeletal
7
Q
Identify the property of muscle:
- located in the heart
- striated
-involuntary controlled
A
Cardiac
8
Q
Identify the property of muscle:
- located in blood vessels, hollow organs
- non - striated; visceral
A
Smooth
9
Q
Each skeletal muscle is surrounded by a connective tissue sheath called the
A
Epimysium
10
Q
A skeletal muscle is subdivided into groups of muscle cells called
A
Fascicles
11
Q
Each fascicle is surrounded by a connective tissue covering, termed the
A
Perimysium
12
Q
Each skeletal muscle cell (fiber) is surrounded by a connective tissue
covering, termed the
A
Endomysium
13
Q
- is a single cylindrical cell, with several nuclei located at
its periphery - range in length 1 cm to 30 cm and are generally 0.15mm in diameter
A
Muscle fiber
14
Q
Another word for cell membrane that has many tubelike inward folds
A
Sarcolemma
15
Q
In Sarcolemma this is the tubelike inward folds also known as transverse tubules
A
T tubules
16
Q
The T tubules are associated with enlarged portions of smooth endoplasmic reticulum called the
A
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
17
Q
The enlarged portions of of muscle fiber structure are called
A
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
18
Q
T tubules connect the sarcolemma to the terminal cisternae to form a
A
Muscle triad
19
Q
The sarcoplasmic reticulum has a relatively high concentration of ____ which plays a major role in muscle contraction
A
CA+2
20
Q
- The cytoplasm of a muscle fiber is called the _____ which contains many bundles of protein filaments
A
Sarcoplasm
21
Q
Bundles of protein filaments are called
A
Myofibrils
22
Q
Myofibrils consist of the ____, -______, _______
A
Myofilaments, actin, and myosin
23
Q
Is the basic structural and functional unit of a skeletal
muscle because it is the smallest portion of a skeletal muscle capable of contracting
A
Sarcomere
24
Q
Form a network of protein fibers that both serve as an anchor for
actin myofilaments and separate one sarcomere from the next
A
Z disks
25
A sarcomere extends from one ____ to the next
Z disk
26
Light bands, consist only of actin, and are called _______ that extends
toward the center of the sarcomere to the ends of the myosin myofilaments
I bands
27
Dark staining bands are called ______, , that extend the length of the myosin myofilaments
A bands
28
Actin and myosin myofilaments overlap for some distance on both ends of the A band; this overlap causes the ______
contraction
29
Actin myofilaments are made up of three components: ______, ______, ______
Actin, troponin, and tropomyosin
30
This molecules have binding sites for Ca2+
Troponin
31
This filaments block the myosin myofilament binding sites on the actin myofilaments
Tropomyosin
32
They have ATP binding sites, ATPase and attachment spots for
actin
Myosin heads
33
The electrical charge difference across the cell membrane of an
unstimulated cell is called the
Resting membrane potential
34
The resting membrane potential is due to the inside of the membrane being ______ charged in comparison to the outside of the membrane
being _______ charged
negatively, positively
35
Are due to the membrane having gated channels
Action potentials
36
The resting membrane potential exists because of
- The concentration of K+ being higher on the inside of the cell membrane and the
concentration of Na+ being higher on the outside
- The presence of many negatively charged molecules, such as proteins, inside the
cell that are too large to exit the cell
- The presence of leak protein channels in the membrane that are more permeable to
K+ than it is to Na+
37
In order to maintain the resting membrane potential, the sodium potassium pump recreates the ion gradient by pumping _____ out of the cell and ___ into the cell
Na+, K+
38
To initiate a muscle contraction, the ______ must be changed to _______
resting membrane potential, action potential
39
This increase in positive charge inside the cell membrane is called
Depolarization
40
If the depolarization changes the membrane potential to a value called ___, an action potential is triggered
Threshold
41
Opening of gated K+ channels starts ______ of the cell membrane
Repolarization
42
Enumerate the steps of Action potential
1. Resting membrane potential
2. Depolarization
3. Repolarization
43
A _____ neuron is a nerve cell stimulates muscle cells
Motor
44
is a synapse where a the fiber of a nerve connects with a muscle fiber
Neuromuscular
45
refers to the cell-to-cell junction between a nerve cell and
either another nerve cell or an effector cell, such as in a muscle or a gland
Synapse
46
is a group of muscle fibers that a motor neuron stimulates
Motor unit
47
is the end of a neuron cell axon fiber
Presynaptic terminal
48
is the space between the presynaptic terminal and
postsynaptic membrane
Synaptic cleft
49
is the muscle fiber membrane
Postsynaptic membrane
50
is a vesicle in the presynaptic terminal that stores
and releases neurotransmitter chemicals
Synaptic vesicle
51
are chemicals that stimulate or inhibit postsynaptic
cells
Neurotransmitters
52
is the neurotransmitter that stimulates skeletal muscles
Acetylcholine
53
Enumerate the steps of Muscle Contraction
1. An action potential
travels down motor
neuron to presynaptic
terminal causing Ca2+
channels to open
2. Ca2+ causes synaptic
vesicles to release
acetylcholine into
synaptic cleft
3. Acetylcholine binds to
receptor sites on Na+
channels, Na+ channels
open, and Na+ rushes into
postsynaptic terminal
(depolarization)
4. Na+ causes sarcolemma
and t-tubules to increase
the permeability of
sarcoplasmic reticulum
which releases stored
calcium
5. Ca2+ binds to
troponin which is
attached to actin
6. Ca2+ binding to
troponin causes
tropomyosin to
move exposing
attachment sites for
myosin
7. Myosin heads bind to
actin
8. ATP is released from
myosin heads and heads
bend toward center of
sarcomere
9. Bending forces actin to
slide over myosin
10. Acetylcholinesterase
(enzyme breaks down
acetylcholine) is
released, Na+ channels
close, and muscle
contraction stops
54
- Energy for muscle contractions is supplied by this
- stored in myosin heads
- help form cross-bridge formation between myosin and actin
ATP
55
Will occur when a person dies and no ATP is available to release cross-bridges
Rigor mortis
56
Is a single contraction of a muscle fiber in response to a stimulus
Muscle twitch
57
Enumerate the 3 phases of muscle twitch
Latent phase, contraction phase, and relaxation phase
58
Muscle twitch phase:
is the time between the application of a stimulus and the beginning of contraction
Latent phase
59
Muscle twitch phase:
is the time during which the muscle contracts
Contraction phase
60
Muscle twitch phase:
is the time during which the
muscle relaxes
Relaxation phase
61
In ______, individual muscles contract more forcefully
Summation
62
is a sustained contraction that occurs when the frequency of
stimulation is so rapid that no relaxation occurs
Tetanus
63
is the stimulation of several motor units
Recruitment
64
Twitch fiber:
- contract slowly
- fatigue slowly
- have a considerable amount of myoglobin
- use aerobic respiration
- are dark in color
- used by long distance runners
Slow twitch fibers
65
Twitch fiber:
- contract quickly
- fatigue quickly
- use anaerobic respiration
- energy from glycogen
- light color
- used by sprinters
Fast twitch fibers
66
Energy comes from either ____with O2 or_____ without O2
aerobic, anaerobic
67
ATP is derived from 4 processes in skeletal muscle which are?
* Aerobic production of ATP during most exercise and normal conditions.
* Anaerobic production of ATP during intensive short-term work
* Conversion of a molecule called creatine phosphate to ATP
* Conversion of two ADP to one ATP and one AMP (adenosine monophosphate) during heavy
exercise
68
Mechanisms of fatigue include:
- Acidosis and ATP depletion due to either an increased ATP consumption or a decreased ATP production
- Oxidative stress, which is characterized by the buildup of excess reactive oxygen species (ROS; free
radicals)
- Local inflammatory reactions
69
Type of muscle contraction:
Has an increase in muscle tension, but no change in length
Isometric contraction
70
Type of muscle contraction:
Has a change in muscle length with no change in tension
Isotonic contraction
71
Type of muscle contraction:
are isotonic contractions in which muscle tension increases as
the muscle shortens
Concentric contractions
72
Type of muscle contraction:
are isotonic contractions in which tension is maintained in a
muscle, but the opposing resistance causes the muscle to lengthen
Eccentric contractions
73
- Is the constant tension produced by body muscles over long
periods of time
- is responsible for keeping the back and legs straight, the head in an upright position, and the abdomen from bulging
Muscle tone
74
Are non-striated small, spindle-shaped muscle cells,
usually with one nucleus per cell
Smooth muscle cells
75
- are long, striated, and branching, with usually only one
nucleus per cell
- is striated as a result of the sarcomere arrangement
- contraction is autorhythmic
Cardiac Muscle
76
Cardiac muscle cells are connected to one another by specialized structures
that include desmosomes and gap junctions called
Intercalated disks
77
Connects skeletal muscle to bone
Tendon
78
Are broad, sheetlike tendons
Aponeuroses
79
is a band of connective tissue that holds down the tendons at each wrist and ankle
Retinaculum
80
Skeletal muscle attachments have an origin and an insertion, with the ____ being the attachment at the least mobile location
origin
81
The ______ is the end of the muscle attached to the bone undergoing the greatest movement
Insertion
82
The part of the muscle between the origin and the insertion is the
Belly
83
A group of muscles working together are called
Agonists
84
A muscle or group of muscles that oppose muscle actions are termed
Antagonists
85
A muscle that crosses on the anterior side of a joint produces
Flexion
86
A muscle that crosses on the posterior side of a joint produces
Extension
87
A muscle that crosses on the lateral side of a joint produces
Abduction
88
A muscle that crosses on the medial side of a joint produces
Adduction
89
Movement: touches tip of another finger
Opposition
90
Muscles are named according to:
1. Location
2. Size
3. Shape
4. Orientation of fascicles
5. Origin and insertion
6. Number of heads
7. Function
91
Fan- shaped muscle that covers parts of the temporal, frontal, and parietal bones
Temporalis
92
Powerful muscle that covers lateral aspect of mandibular ramus
Masseter
93
Deep two=headed muscle that runs along internal surface of mandible and is largely concealed by that bone
Medial pterygoid
94
Deep two-headed muscle; lies superior to medial pterygoid muscle
Lateral pterygoid
95
Elevate ribs for inspiration
External intercostals
96
Depress ribs during forced expiration
Internal intercostals
97
Moves during quiet breathing
Diaphragm
98
- center of abdomen
- compresses abdomen
Rectus abdominis
99
- sides of abdomen
- compresses abdomen
External abdominal oblique
100
Compresses abdomen (2)
Internal abdominal oblique and Transverse abdominis
101
Integration and control systems (Special Senses)
102
Traditional smell, taste, sight, and hearing
Special Senses
103
Either large, complex sensory organs or localized clusters of receptors
Special sense receptors
104
The accessory structures of the eye include what?
extrinsic eye muscles, eyelids, conjunctiva, and lacrimal apparatus
105
Anteriorly the eyes are protected by the
Eyelids
106
The eyelids meet at the medial and lateral corners of the eye which are
Medial commisure and Lateral commisure
107
Projecting from the border of each eyelid are the
Eyelashes
108
Modified sebaceous glands associated with the eyelid edges are the
Tarsal glands
109
Modified sweat glands that lie between the eyelashes
Ciliary glands
110
A delicate membrane that lines the eyelid and covers part of the outer surface of the eyeball that secretes mucus
Conjunctiva
111
Inflammation of the conjunctiva results in reddened, irritated eyes
Conjunctivitis
112
Its infectious form caused by bacteria or viruses, is highly contagious
Pinkeye
113
Consist of the lacrimal gland and a number of ducts that drain lacrimal secretions into the nasal cavity
Lacrimal apparatus
114
Located above the lateral end of each eye that continually release a dilute salt solution onto the anterior surface of the eyeball through several small ducts
Lacrimal glands
115
The tears flush across the eyeball medially into the
lacrimal sac
116
After going through the lacrimal sac the eyeball will go into this which empties into the inferior meatus of the nasal cavity
Nasolacrimal duct
117
Enzyme that destroys bacteria
lysozyme
118
What muscle produce gross eye movements and make it possible for the eyes to follow a moving object
Extrinsic eye muscles
119
How many extrinsic eye muscle are attached to the outer surface of each eye.
6
120
The eyeball has walls that is composed of 3 ____ and its interior is filed with fluids called _____
tunics and humors
121
The outermost layer of the eye is called
fibrous layer
122
The fibrous layer consists of the protective ____ is seen anteriorly as the white of the eye
Sclera
123
The fibrous layer consists of the transparent ___ which is the central anterior portion "window" which light enters the eye
cornea
124
The middle layer of the eye
vascular layer
125
The most posterior part of the vascular layer that is a blood-rich nutritive tunic that contains a dark pigment
Choroid
126
Anterior part of the vascular layer with two smooth muscle structures
Ciliary body
127
Part of the vascular layer which is a suspensory ligament called the
ciliary zonule
128
Part of the vascular layer with pigment and a rounded opening through which light passes
iris and pupil
129
Innermost layer of the eye
Sensory layer
130
Part of the sensory layer which is the delicate two-layered ___ which extends anteriorly only to the ciliary body
retina
131
The transparent inner neutral layer of the retina contains millions of receptor cells, the rods, and cones, which are called
photoreceptors
132
Electrical signals pass from the photoreceptors via two neuron chain
Bipolar cells and Ganglion cells
133
The photoreceptor cells are distributed over the entire retina, except where the optic nerve leaves the eyeball; this site is called the. There are no photoreceptors here
optic disc
134
A tiny pit that contains only cones lateral to each blind spot. This is the area of greatest visual activity
Fovea centralis
135
Crystal-like structure that bends light rays so they focus on the retina
Lens
136
If light is not focused on the lens what eye problems may occur?
Myopia, hyperopia, or astigmatism
137
The anterior chamber which is similar to blood plasma. Is reabsorbed into the scleral venous sinus
Aqueous humor
138
The posterior chamber contains this gel-like fluid posterior to lens
Vitreous humor
139
Pathway of light through the eye
1. Cornea
2. aqueous humor
3. pupil
4. lens
5. vitreous humor
6. retina
140
The shape of the lens is adjusted during the process of
Accommodation
141
The site where medial fibers from each eye cross over to the opposite side of the brain
Optic chiasma
142
Pathway of nerve impulses from the retina steps
1. optic nerve
2. optic chiasma
3. optic tract
4. thalamus
5. optic radiation
6. visual cortex
7. occipital lobe of brain
143
3 Eye reflexes
Eye reflexes include the photo pupillary reflex, accommodation pupillary reflex, and convergence
144
Respond to physical movement in order to detect a stimulus and send an impulse
Mechanoreceptors
145
The external ear includes: which is involved with sound transmission only
1. Auricle
2. External acoustic meatus
3. Tympanic membrane
146
Part of the external ear that secretes waxy cerumen to protect the ear canal
Ceruminous glands
147
The middle ear cavity includes: which is involves with sound transmission only
1. Ossicles
2. Pharyngotympanic tube
148
Transmit and amplify vibratory motion from the eardrum to the oval window
Auditory ossicles
149
Allows pressure to be equalized on both sides of the eardrum
Pharyngotympanic tube
150
Internal ear consists of: which is involves in both hearing and equilibrium
1. Bony labyrinth
2. cochlea vestibule
3. semicircular canals
151
Bony labyrinth contains _____; membrane labyrinth contains ______
Perilymph, Endolymph
152
In the cochlear duct, the spiral organ of Corti has hearing receptors called. They are anchored to the basilar membrane, and are embedded in a tectorial membrane
hair cells
153
Equilibrium receptors in inner ear that respond to head movements with respect to the pull of gravity
Vestibular apparatus
154
Report on head movements when body is not moving
Static equilibrium
155
Receptors in the vestibule are called
maculae
156
Are embedded on the surface of otolithic membrane which move in response to body movement with respect of pull of gravity
Otoliths
157
Report on rotational movements of the head
Dynamic equilibrium
158
Receptors in the ampullae of the semicircular canals are called
Crista ampullaris
159
The tufts of hair cells with hair embedded in gel cap in Crista
Cupula
160
Any degree of hearing loss
Deafness
161
Something interferes with transmission of sound waves
Conduction deafness
162
Fusion of the middle ear ossicles, resulting in conduction deafness
Otosclerosis
163
Something interferes with receptors or neural transmission of impulses to the brain
Sensorineural deafness
164
Result in nausea, dizziness, problems maintaining balance
Equilibrium problems
165
Results in progressive deafness and vertigo
Meiniere's syndrome
166
Respond to dissolved chemicals
Chemoreceptors
167
Located in the superior aspect of each nasal cavity
Olfactory receptors
168
Closely linked to the limbic system; odors stimulate the recall of memories and arouse emotional responses
Olfactory pathways
169
Are located in the taste buds
Gustatory cells
170
True or False:
Special sense organs from early in embryonic development
True
171
Congenital eye problem resulting from unequal pulling by extrinsic eye muscles that result in crossed eyes
Strabismus
172
Most important congenital ear problem
Absence of the external acoustic meatus
173
Normal consequence of aging
Sensorineural deafness or presbycusis
174
Renal System (Urinary System)
175
Arteries and veins, arterioles and venules
Vascular System
176
Clear Part of the blood
Plasma
177
Obtained when blood is separated in the laboratory
Serum
178
Component of the blood without the plasma
Whole Blood
179
Composed of red cell, white cells, platelets, etc.
Blood
180
Function of the Kidney:
Remove waste and toxic substances in the blood (metabolic by-products of cells and substances)
Excretory Organs
181
Excretion of metabolic wastes:
Breakdown of creatine phosphate in muscle fibers
Creatinine
182
Excretion of metabolic wastes:
Breakdown of proteins
Urea
183
Excretion of metabolic wastes:
By product of proteins/ amino acids
Ammonia (NH3)
184
Excretion of metabolic wastes:
Breakdown of hemoglobin
Bilirubin
185
Excretion of metabolic wastes:
Breakdown of nucleic acid
Uric Acid
186
Function of the Kidney:
By control of extracellular fluid volume (Renin) and urine concentration (osmolality)
Regulator of blood volume and blood pressure
187
Function of the Kidney:
Glucose, sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarbonate, phosphate, calcium
Regulation of solutes and ions in the blood plasma
188
Function of the Kidney:
PH (acidity and alkalinity)
Regulator of the Body fluid PH
189
Function of the Kidney:
Cell synthesis (Erythropoietin)
Regulator of the red blood cell synthesis
190
Function of the Kidney:
final conversion of its active form 1,25 DIHYDROCHOLECALCIFEROL (Calcitriol)
Synthesis of Vitamin D
191
- known as renal in Latin
- bean shaped
- adipose tissues holds it in place
Kidney
192
Location of Kidney
- posterior location
- costovertebral angle
- 12h rib
- 1st 3 lumbar spine
193
Behind the peritoneum
Retroperitoneal
194
True or False:
The left kidney is lower than the right kidney
False: The right kidney is lower than the left kidney
195
Connective tissue (fibrous) that surrounds and protect the kidney
Renal Capsule
196
Medial indentation on each side of the kidney where vessels or nerves enter or exit
Hilum
197
Fat filled cavity which contains the blood vessels
Renal Sinus
198
Wide section of the urinary channel
Renal Pelvis
199
- Cup of a flower
- funnel shape branch of the renal pelvis
Calyx
200
Outer Renal Parenchyma
Cortex
201
Inner Renal Parenchyma
Medulla
202
Cone shaped sections of tissue lying mostly in the medulla
Renal Pyramids
203
Tip of the pyramids
Renal Papilla
204
Functional unit of the kidney (Greek for kidney)
Nephron
205
3 functions of the Nephron
1. Filtration
2. Reabsorption
3. Secretion
206
How many Mil in each kidney
1.3 Mil
207
How many L of Blood plasma passes through the kidney /24 hours
150 L to 180 L
208
Average Urinary Output (L)
1.0 L to 1,8 L
209
Loops of Henle do not deep into the medulla (?) and how many % of the nephron)
Cortical Nephrons (80-85%)
210
- Next to the medulla
- loops of henle extend deep into the medulla
and how many % of the nephron
Juxtamedullary Nephrons (15-25%)
211
Branch of the aorta
Renal Artery
212
Branch of Inferior Vena Cava
Renal Vein
213
Originates from the renal artery
Peritubular Capillaries
214
Connects to renal vein
Vasa Recta
215
- "Tiny body"
- composed of the Glomerulus and Bowman's Capsule
Renal Corpuscle
216
Tufts of capillaries which resembles a ball of yarn
Glomerulus
217
Arteriole blood goes in for filtration (Inflow of blood)
Afferent
218
Arteriole blood goes out to supply the blood circulation of the nephron (Outflow of Blood)
Efferent
219
- an enclosure
- double walled chamber
- 3 filtration membranes
Bowman's Capsule
220
3 Layers of Filtration Membrane
1. Podocytes
2. Basement Membrane
3. Endothelial Capillary Membrane
221
While Filtration is composed of Toxic wastes excreted like urea and creatinine, Glucose, and Ions, what are not filtered?
Blood cells and Proteins
222
- Carries fluid away from the capsule
- Primary site of reabsorption of solutes and water (65-70% of filtrate is reabsorbed)
Proximal Tubule
223
Proximal tubule has reabsorption of ____ of water
70%
224
After passing the proximal tubule the fluid is now called
Filtrate Fluid
225
Reabsorption of ions
Loop of Henle
226
- Downward tube in Loop of Henle
- is permeable to water
- further concentrates the filtrate (15% of filtrate reabsorbed)
Descending Limb
227
- Upward tube in Loop of Henle
- is permeable to solutes, potassium, sodium
- dilutes the filtrate by removing solutes
Ascending Limb
228
- reabsorption water (20-25%)
- secretion of Renin (RAAS)
- In the Juxtaglomerular Apparatus
- removes more water and solutes (19% reabsorbed)
Distal Convoluted Tubules
229
- Consists of cells from the wall of the afferent arteriole and the distal tubule
- secretion of renin
Juxtaglomerular Apparatus
230
"Brain" Natriuretic Hormone
Natriuretic Hormones
231
- Carries fluid from the cortex through the medulla
- responsible for regulation and concentration of URINE through the action of ADH
- reabsorption water (5-10%)
- Secretion of ADH ( regulates water excretion)
- Secretion of ions (Regulates urine/ blood osmolality and pH)
Collecting ducts
232
After passing the collecting ducts filtrate is now called
Urine
233
Urea, Uric Acid, Creatinine, Na, K, Cl, HCO3, Hydrogen
Urine Production
234
Formation of filtrate
Filtration
235
What are the 3 pressures that compromise Filtration Pressure
1. Glomerular Capillary Pressure
2. Capsular Pressure
3. Colloidal Oncotic Pressure
236
"Back to Plasma"
Reabsorption
237
Solutes are reabsorbed across the wall of the nephron into interstitial fluid by
Transport process (Active transport and Cotransport)
238
- Water and solutes pass from interstitial fluid into the peritubular capillaries
- water moves out of nephron
Osmosis
239
Solutes move into nephron by
Diffusion
240
What is the process for reabsorption and what is left?
1. Proximal Tubules (65-70%)
2. Descending Limb (15%)
3. Ascending Limb
4. Distal Tubules and Collecting Ducts (19%)
1% left as urine = 1L TO 1.8 L
241
Solutes are ____ across the capillary wall of the nephron into the filtrate to form urine
Secreted (Secretion)
242
Secretion:
H, K, Creatinine, Histamine
Active Transport
243
Secretion:
NH3
Passive Transport
244
Small tubes that carry urine from the renal pelvis to the bladder
Ureters
245
- Hollow muscular container
- stores urine
- can hold max of 1L urine
Urinary Bladder
246
Tube that exits the bladder carries urine from bladder to outside
Urethra
247
- Not well defined in women
- under involuntary control in men
- contracts during ejaculation to prevent urine flow
Internal Sphincter
248
- voluntary control
- controls flow of urine through urethra
External Urethra
249
- triangle shaped muscle
- located between the openings of the ureters and the urethra
Trigone
250
Layer of urinary bladder wall:
smooth muscle layer
Detrussor
251
Layer of urinary bladder wall:
- inner layer
- in contact with urine
Transitional Epithelium
252
Action potentials in Mechanism of Micturition reflex (Involuntary reflex) are carried by
Parasympathetic Nerves
253
1. Urine stretch the bladder wall 300-500 ML
2. "Action Potentials" produced by the stretch receptors are carried along the sacral region of the spinal cord
3. Action Potentials are carried by Parasympathetic nerves and stimulates muscle contraction of the bladder and relaxation of urethral sphincter
Mechanism of micturition
254
1. Action Potentials sends sensory impulse to the PONS and communicates to the CORTEX
2. INHIBITORY SIGNALS keep the sphincters closed to delay voiding
3. Decreased action potentials carried by SOMATIC MOTOR NERVES cause the external urinary sphincter to relax and allow urination
Micturition (Voluntary control reflex)
255
Characteristic of normal urine:
color is clear pale yellow due to ___, a pigment metabolite coming from destroyed hemoglobin (via BILIRUBIN or bile pigments
Urochrome
256
Normal urine odor
- slightly aromatic
- bacterial action gives out amonia-like odor when left standing
257
Normal urine pH
4.5 to 8 (Average of 6)
258
Influence of food in urine pH:
High protein foods such as meet, eggs, cheese, and whole wheat
Acid Ash
259
Influence of food in urine pH:
Vegetarian Diet
Alkaline Ash
260
Normal range of urine specific gravity
1.00 to 1.03
261
An increase in urine specific gravity indicates
Dehydration
262
Water, Urea, Ions, Creatinine and Uric Acid, Small amounts of CA, Mg and HCO3
Normal constituents of Urine
263
Glucose, Albumin, Ketone bodies, RBC, HB, nitrites, bile pigments, WBC, Casts
Abnormal Constituents
264
Fluid
265
-State of Equilibrium
- stabilization of body functions
- maintain normal status
Homeostasis
266
ECF Fluid Volume Deficit
Dehydration
267
ECF Fluid Volume Excess
Fluid Overload
268
Absorption back to the bloodstream; retained in the body
Reabsorption
269
Tonicity
Osmolality
270
Fluid Content of the Body
- Infant- 70 - 80 %
- Adult Male- 50 – 70 %
- Adult Female- 50 – 60 %
- Older Adult- 45 – 55 %
- Obesity - ?
271
Water Compartments of Body:
2/3 of Fluid within cells
Intracellular Fluid (ICF)
272
Water Compartments of Body:
1/3 of Fluid outside cells
Extracellular Fluid (ECF)
273
Water Compartments of Body:
An ECF fluid between cells (lymph)
Interstitial
274
Water Compartments of Body:
An ECF fluid within the blood vessels
Intravascular
275
Water Compartments of Body:
Fluid in small and specialized
cavities
Transcellular fluid
276
Function of Body water:
The high heat capacity of water allows it to absorb and release large amounts of heat before changing temperature
Stabilizes body temperature
277
Function of Body water:
Acts as a lubricant or cushion
Protection
278
Function of Body water:
* Most of the chemical reactions necessary for life do not take place
unless the reacting molecules are dissolved in water
* Water also directly participates in many chemical reactions
Chemical Reactions
279
Function of Body water:
- Polar solvent properties: dissolves ionic substances, forms hydration layers around large charged molecules, and serves as the body’s major transport medium
Transport
280
* Potassium (K+)
* Sodium (Na+)
* Calcium (Ca++)
* Phosphorus (PO4---)
* Chloride (Cl -)
* Magnesium (Mg++)
Electrolytes
281
Type of Fluid:
- a substance capable of dissolving a solute
- dissolving medium - h20 most common
- may be in form of gas or liquid
Solvet
282
Type of Fluid:
- substance that is dissolved in a solvent
- may be in the form of gas, liquid, or solid
- eg salt and sugar
Solute
283
Type of Fluid Mixture:
mixture of 2 or more particles that are exceedingly SMALL
Solutions
284
Type of Fluid Mixture:
mixture of 2 or more components; particles are fairly LARGE
Suspensions
285
Type of Fluid Mixture:
Translucent mixtures with solute particles of INTERMEDIATE SIZE
Colloids
286
Mechanisms controlling FLUID and electrolyte movement:
Movement of solute and
water across a semipermeable membrane
Filtration
287
Mechanisms controlling FLUID and electrolyte movement:
use of a machine and a filtration membrane
Dialysis
288
Mechanisms controlling FLUID and electrolyte movement:
The movement of a solute from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration within a solvent nor a
membrane
* at equilibrium, there is a uniform distribution of molecules
Diffusion
289
Mechanisms controlling fluid and ELECTROLYTE movement:
- stores and provides energy
- source of immediately usable energy for the cell
- Facilitated transport through sodium-potassium pump
ATP "battery"
290
Mechanisms controlling fluid and ELECTROLYTE movement:
- the diffusion of a solvent across a selectively semi-permeable membrane
- measurement of fluid osmolality and osmotic pressure of fluids
Osmosis
291
Used to describe the tonicity of the blood plasma/ serum
Osmolality
292
Normal value of osmolality
275-300 umol/L
293
Higher than normal value of osmolality
Hyperosmolality
294
Lower than normal value of osmolality
Hypoosmolality
295
Used to describe all other fluids
based on content of Sugar and Salt in a “solution”
Osmolarity
296
Type of Fluid shift where:
- shifts of plasma fluid to interstitial space compartment
- elevation of venous hydrostatic pressure
- decrease in plasma oncotic pressure
- elevation of interstitial oncotic pressure
Edema
297
An increase in extracellular fluid osmolality _____ and ADH secretion
while
A decrease in extracellular osmolality ______ and _____ ADH secretion
Stimulates thirst
Inhibits thirst, decreases
298
* Produced by the heart when blood pressure
increases
* Inhibits Na+ reabsorption in the kidneys,
resulting in increased urine volume and
decreased blood volume and blood pressure
* Inhibits ADH secretion and dilates arteries
and veins
Atrial Natriuretic Hormone (ANH)
299
RAAS
Renal Regulation
300
ANH
Cardiac Regulation
301
Gastrointestinal Regulation:
___ intake; ___ metabolism
90%, 10%
302
Dehydration/ Hyperosmolality process
1. Stimulation of Thirst
2. Brain ADH release
3. H2O reabsorption in Collecting ducts
4. Decrease in Urination
5. Conservation of Body Water
6. Result in an Increase in Plasma Volume
or
1. Kidney Stimulation of Renin in JGA
2. Angiotensin I to angiotensin II
3. Release of Aldosterone by the adrenal cortex
4. Conservation of Na+ and H2O
5. Result in an Increase in Plasma Volume
303
Average volume loss/day
600 mL
304
Electrolytes and Acid-base
305
Normal value of Sodium
135-145 mEq/L
306
- increased intake of salty food
- near drowning in ocean
Hypernatremia
307
Critical value of Hypernatremia
CNS changes > 155 mEq/L
308
Opposite of hypernatremia
Hyponatremia
309
Normal values of Potassium
3.5-4.5 mEq/L
310
Increased intake of:
- medication error
- wrong dose
-wrong patient
Hyperkalemia
311
- associated with metabolic alkalosis
- diarrhea
Hypokalemia
312
In Hypokalemia, what can be noticed in their eeg changes
Flattened T wave and presence of U wave
313
Normal range of Calcium
9-11 mg/dL
314
Helps increase calcium resorption into the bones with by the mobilization of osteoclast
PTH
315
Produced by the thyroid gland helps in bone deposition to resolve too much calcium in the bloodstream by using osteoblasts
Calcitonin
316
- gastrointestinal tract
- calcium is poorly absorbed in the gut
Calcium absorption
317
Increased level of calcium in the blood
Hypercalcemia
318
Decreased pH increase ionized Ca
Acidosis
319
EKG changes in Hypercalcemia
Shortened ST segment, shortened QT
320
Major symptom of hypocalcemia
Hyperreflexia or muscle cramps
321
Hypocalcemia manifestation signs
Chvostek's sign and Trousseau's sign
322
Normal value of Phosphates
2.8-4.5 mg/dL
323
Has a reciprocal relationship with Ca
Phosphates
324
Hyperphosphatemia has accompanying
hypocalcemia
325
Normal Chloride levels
97-107 mEq/L
326
Major ECF anion and assist in determining osmotic pressure
Chloride
327
Bicarbonate has an _____ relationship with Cl
Inverse
328
- Most abundant ICF cation
-acts directly on myoneural junction
- produces a sedative effect
Magnesium
329
- weak bonds
- forms a bridge between nitrogen or oxygen atom
Hydrogen
330
- sour taste
- can release H ions in detectable amounts
- proton donors
Acids
331
- bitter taste
- proton acceptors
Base
332
Prevents major change in pH by removing or releasing H ion
Buffer systems
333
Increase in H ion leads to
Acidity
334
Decrease in H ion leads to
Alkalinity
335
Principal buffer in kidney from hydrolysis reaction
Bicarbonate (H3CO3)
336
Principal buffer in kidney that combines with h to form non-reabsorbable NH4
Ammonia (NH3)
337
Principal buffer in kidney present in the filtrate, exchanges H ion for Na
Phosphate (PO4)
338
What is the ratio of CO2 to HCO3
1:20
339
The lungs as a buffer system eliminates
CO2
340
The kidney as a buffer system eliminates and reabsorbs
H+ and reabsorbs HCO3
341
Affect carbonic acid concentration
Respiratory
342
Affect bicarbonate
Metabolic
343
Is caused by either Hypoventilation or Respiratory failure
Carbonic acid excess
344
Is caused by hyperventilation or hypoxemia from acute pulmonary disorders
Carbonic acid deficit
345
Is caused by:
- ketoacidosis
- lactic acid accumulation
- severe diarrhea
- kidney disease
Base bicarbonate deficit
346
Is caused by:
- prolonged vomiting
- gain of HCO3
Base bicarbonate excess
347
Provide information about:
- acid-base status
- underlying cause of imbalance
- body's ability to regulate pH
- overall oxygen status
ABG's or Arterial blood gas
348
ABG interpretation cue code ROME meaning
Respiratory
Opposite direction
Metabolic
Equal direction
349
Cardiovascular System
350
The heart is located in the ____ of the thorax and if flanked laterally by the lungs and enclosed in a multilayered ____
Mediastinum, pericardium
351
Layer of the pericardium that protects and anchors the heart
Fibrous pericardium
352
Layer of the pericardium lines the fibrous pericardium; part of serous membrane pair
Parietal pericardium
353
Heart wall layer also called the visceral pericardium
Epicardium
354
Heart wall layer known as the cardiac muscle
Myocardium
355
Heart wall layer known as the endothelium
Endocardium
356
The heart is divided longitudinally by a septum, referred to as the
Interatrial septum
357
Divides the ventricles
Interventricular septum
358
The right ventricle drains into the ________, which splits into the ________________; the left ventricle drains
into the_____
Pulmonary trunk, right and left pulmonary arteries, aorta
359
Returns blood from the body to the right atrium
Superior and inferior vena cava
360
Return blood from the lungs to the left atrium
Pulmonary veins
361
What are the 4 heart valves that maintain one-way flow and prevent backflow of blood in the heart
1. Atrioventricular valve
2. Bicuspid valve
3. Tricuspid valve
prevent backflow into the atria when the ventricles are contracting
4. Semilunar valves
prevent backflow into the ventricles when the heart is relaxing
362
The myocardium is nourished by ________, which branch off the aorta; are
drained by the _______ and the ______
coronary arteries, cardiac veins, coronary
sinus
363
Sets the basic rhythm
Intrinsic conduction system
364
The pacemaker that sets a heart rete of about 75 beats per minute
Sinoatrial node
365
Name the components of the nodal system
1. Atrioventricular node
2. Atrioventricular AV bundle
3. Bundle branches
4. Purkinje fibers
366
A series of events in one complete heartbeat
Cardiac cycle
367
Result from the closing of the valves
Heart sounds
368
The amount of blood pumped out by each ventricle in 1 minute
Cardiac output
369
What is the equation of cardiac output
Heart rate x stroke volume
370
Factor that influence stroke volume which is the amount of stretch of cardiac muscle cells
Preload
371
Factor that influence stroke volume which is the ability of cardiac muscle to generate force
Contractility
372
Factor that influence stroke volume which is the force of blood pressing back on the SL values the ventricles must overcome in order to pump blood
Afterload
373
Transport blood away form the heart
Arteries
374
Carry blood back to the heart
Veins
375
Are exchange vessels
Capillaries
376
Tunic endothelium which reduces friction
Tunica intima
377
Tunic middle layer of muscle and elastic tissue
Tunica media
378
Tunic which is protective, outermost connective tissue layer
Tunica externa
379
Capillaries have a ______ that branches into capillaries and drain into a ______
terminal arteriole, postcapillary venule
380
Special capillary beds have two types of vessels
Vascular shunt and capillaries
381
Blood flow into capillaries is controlled by
Precapillary sphincters
382
A structural defect due to incompetent veins
Varicose veins
383
Inflammation of a vein resulting in clot formation due to poor circulation
Thrombophlebitis
384
Special circulation of the brain is formed by branches of paired
Vertebral arteries and internal carotid arteries
385
Provides alternate routes for blood flow in case of a blockage in the brain's arterial supply
The circle of Willis
386
Is formed by veins draining the digestive organs which empty into the hepatic portal vein
Hepatic portal circulation
387
Alternating expansion and recoil of a blood vessel wall that occurs as the heart beats
Pulse
388
Pressure exerted by blood on the walls of the blood vessels
Blood pressure
389
What is recorded when blood pressure is measured
Systolic pressure and diastolic pressure
390
High resistance reduces blood flow
Peripheral resistance
391
Reflects an increase in peripheral resistance, stains the heart, and damages blood vessels
Hypertension (High blood pressure)
392
Diffusion can occur through the endothelial cell plasma membranes through
Intercellular clefts or fenestrated capillaries
393
Carries nutrients and oxygen to the fetus from the placenta
Single Umbilical vein
394
Carry carbon dioxide and waste from the fetus to the placenta
Two Umbilical arteries
395
involves gradual loss of elasticity in the arteries and buildup of fatty plaques
Arteriosclerosis
396
Results when artery walls thicken and develop scar tissue
Atherosclerosis
397
Respiratory System
398
Body system responsible for gas exchange
Respiratory system
399
Air enters the ____ through the ____ which are divided by the ______
Nasal cavity, nostrils, nasal septum
400
Surround the nasal cavity and act as a resonance chambers for speech
Paranasal sinuses
401
The nose is separated from the mouth by this which is a genetic defect resulting in breathing difficulty and problems with speaking and breastfeeding
Palate or cleft palate
402
The through, a muscular common passageway for food and air connected the the nasal cavity via the posterior nasal aperture
Pharynx
403
The 3 regions of the pharynx
1. Nasopharynx
2. Oropharynx
3. Laryngopharynx
404
Are clusters of lymphatic tissue that surrounds the pharynx
Tonsils
405
______ ___ high in the nasopharynx
Single Pharyngeal tonsil
406
_____ ____ at the end of the soft palate in the oropharynx
Paired palatine tonsils
407
____ ____ at the base of the tongue
Single lingual tonsil
408
____ ___ protect the openings to the pharyngotympanic tubes
Tubal tonsils
409
The voice box which routes air and plays a role in speech
Larynx
410
____ is responsible for speech and between this is an opening called the ____
Vocal folds, glottis
411
The windpipe connecting the larynx and bronchi is lined with ciliated mucosa and contains rings of hyaline cartilage to keep it open
Trachea
412
Formed by division of the trachea which connect to each lung at the hilum
Main (primary) bronchi
413
Organs of breathing flanking the mediastinum and composed mainly of elastic connective tissue
Lungs
414
Each lung is covered with a serous membrane layer called the
Visceral pleura or pulmonary pleura
415
Is the inflammation of the pleurae resulting either in dry membranes and increased friction or in increased fluid production that causes pressure on the lungs
Pleurisy
416
The smallest conducting passages
Bronchioles
417
Includes terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, and alveoli, the air sacs where gas exchange with blood occurs
Respiratory zone
418
Patrol and protect the alveoli from infection also called dust cells
Alveolar macrophages
419
Includes the alveolar and capillary walls fused to their basement membranes
Respiratory membrane
420
Includes four events to accomplish delivery of oxygen and disposal of carbon dioxide
Respiration
421
Is the movement of air into and out the lungs, providing a constant supply of oxygen commonly called breathing
Pulmonary ventilation
422
Is gas exchange between the blood and exterior of the body
External respiration
423
Is transport of gases around the body via blood
Respiratory gas transport
424
Is gas exchange inside the body between blood and tissues at capillaries
Internal respiration
425
Use of oxygen to produce ATP
Cellular respiration
426
True or False:
Respiration is the same as cellular respiration
False: Respiration is not the same as cellular respiration
427
Air is moved into the lungs during ____ and leaves the lungs during ____
Inspiration, expiration
428
Inspiratory muscles include the
Diaphragm and external intercostals
429
Intrapleural pressure is always
Negative
430
Occurs when injury allows air into the intrapleural space which can lead to atelectasis
Pneumothorax
431
Is the amount of air moved during normal quiet breathing
Tidal volume
432
Is the forcible inhalation beyond tidal volume is the
Inspiratory reserve volume
433
After normal exhalation, the amount forcibly exhaled is the
Expiratory reserve volume
434
The total amount of exchangeable air is the
Vital capacity
435
Is the amount of air that never reaches the alveoli
Dead space volume
436
Are heard when air rushed through large passages
Bronchial sounds
437
Are heard when alveoli inflate
Vesicular breathing sounds
438
Oxygen is transported in blood as ______ inside RBC;s and a small amount is dissolve in plasma
Oxyhemoglobin
439
Is inadequate oxygen supply which can cause patient to become cyanotic or slightly blue
Hypoxia
440
is a specific type of hypoxia caused when carbon monoxide binds more easily to hemoglobin
Carbon monoxide poisoning
441
In control of respiration impulses are sent to the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles by the
Phrenic nerves and intercostal nerves
442
Contains inspiratory and expiratory neurons that maintain eupnea
Ventral respiratory group
443
Integrates sensory information from chemoreceptors and stretch receptors to modify breathing rhythms
Dorsal respiratory group
444
Vigorous, deep breathing such as breathing during exercise
Hyperpnea
445
An increase in breathing rate and depth that results in exhaling more carbon dioxide than necessary
Hyperventilation
446
Cessation of breathing often brought on by hyperventilation
Apnea
447
Severe respiratory disease, such as
chronic bronchitis or emphysema, that usually
involves a history of smoking
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
447
Enlarged alveoli
Emphysema
448
Severe inflammation of lower respiratory passages
Chronic bronchitis
449
Endocrine System
450
A leading cause of death that is mostly preventable
Lung cancer
451
Begins as nodules in
peripheral areas of lungs
Adenocarcinoma
452
Begins in epithelium of large bronchi; masses tend to bleed
Squamous cell carcinoma
453
Begins with
lymphocyte-like cells from the main bronchi
that grow aggressively in the mediastinum
and metastasize rapidly
Small cell carcinoma
454
Is required to help fetal lungs transition from fluid filled to air filled at birth
Surfactant
455
Can occur in premature births when insufficient
surfactant is present
Infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS)
456
A lethal genetic disease
that interferes with normal chloride ion and
water movements, resulting in over secretion of thick mucus that clogs passages and increases
infection risk
Cystic fibrosis
457
Occurs when infants spontaneously stop breathing and
die in their sleep
Sudden infant death syndrome
458
Chronic inflammation and hypersensitivity of bronchial passages that respond to irritants such as allergens
Asthma
459
Endocrine System
460
A major control system of the body composed of a series of ductless glands that secrete their products directly into the blood
Endocrine system
461
Nearly all hormones are _____
Amino acid-based molecules or steroids
462
Are locally acting lipids
Prostaglandins
463
Amino acid-based hormones act through
Second messengers
464
A hormone stimulates
another organ to release its hormones
Hormonal stimulus
465
A blood level of something
stimulates a hormone to be released
Humoral stimulus
466
Direct stimulation by sympathetic neurons signal hormone release
Neural stimulus
467
Is important in regulating blood hormone levels
Negative feedback
468
Hangs from the hypothalamus of the brain by a stalk and is enclosed by bone
Pituitary gland
469
The hypothalamus also makes two hormones
that are transported along the axons of the
hypothalamic _____
Neurosecretory cells
470
Stimulates powerful uterine contractions and causes milk ejection in the nursing women
Oxytocin
471
Causes kidney
tubule cells to reabsorb and conserve body
water and increases blood pressure by constricting blood vessel
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
472
Hyposecretion of ADH leads to
Diabetes insipidus
473
Except for growth hormone and prolactin, hormones of the anterior pituitary are all ____ which stimulate other glands to secrete hormones
Tropic hormones
474
An anabolic and
protein-conserving hormone that promotes
total body growth
Growth hormone
475
Stimulates production of
breast milk
Prolactin (PRL)
476
Stimulates the adrenal cortex to release its hormones, mainly glucocorticoids
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
477
Stimulates the thyroid gland to release thyroid
hormone
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
478
Include FSH and
LH; hyposecretion of either results in sterility
Gonadotropic hormones
479
Stimulates follicle development and estrogen
production by the female ovaries
Follicle- stimulating hormone (FSH)
480
Stimulates
ovulation (at puberty), causes the ruptured
ovarian follicle to produce progesterone;
stimulates testes to produce testosterone
Luteinizing hormone
481
Located posterior to the third
ventricle of the brain, releases melatonin, which
affects sleep-wake cycles
Pineal gland
482
located in the anterior
throat, makes two hormones: thyroid hormone and calcitonin
Thyroid gland
483
Lack of iodine leads to ____caused by a
buildup of inactive thyroid hormone
Goiter
484
Hyposecretion of thyroxine results in _____
in children and _____ in adults
cretinism, myxedema
485
Is released by parafollicular cells
surrounding the thyroid follicles in response to a
high blood calcium ion level
Calcitonin
486
Four small glands
located on the posterior aspect of the thyroid gland
Parathyroid glands
487
Parathyroid glands to release _______ in response to low blood calcium ion levels
Parathyroid hormone
(PTH)
488
Hyposecretion of PTH results in
Tetany
489
Located in the upper thorax;
secretes the hormone thymosin
Thymus
490
Paired glands perched
on the kidneys; each gland has two functional
endocrine portions, the cortex and the medulla
Adrenal glands
491
Produces steroid hormones, collectively called corticosteroids
Adrenal cortex
492
Regulates
sodium ion (Na+) reabsorption and potassium
ion (K+) secretion by the kidneys
Mineralocorticoids - aldosterone
493
Reduces blood volume and blood pressure
Atrial natriuretic peptide
494
Enable the body to resist
long-term stress by increasing the blood glucose
level and depressing the inflammatory response
Glucocorticoids
495
Major hormone of glucocorticoids
Cortisone and cortisol
496
Generalized hypoactivity of the adrenal cortex
results in
Addison's disease
497
The adrenal medulla produces
Catecholamines
498
Also called islets of
Langerhans—endocrine cells of the pancreas,
located in the abdomen close to the stomach
Pancreatic islets
499
Is released by beta cells in response to
high blood glucose levels
Insulin
500
Is released by alpha cells in response to low blood glucose levels
Glucagon
501
Released by ovarian follicles beginning at puberty, stimulated by FSH
Estrogen
502
Released from the ovary in response to a high blood level of LH
Progesterone
503
Is a temporary organ formed in the
uterus of pregnant women that produce estrogen and progesterone and maintain pregnancy and ready the breasts for lactation
Placenta
504
Placental hormone that relaxes pelvic
ligaments and pubic symphysis joint to ease
birthing pathway
Relaxin
505
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