Anatomy and physiology Flashcards

(55 cards)

1
Q

what are normal BP readings, elevated BP, high BP etc?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In congenital heart defects, what are cyanotic defects?

A

When the blood travels from the body to the lungs.

The 5 Ts are examples (don’t have to know!)

Tetralogy of Fallot, Truncus arteriosus, Transposition of great vessels, Tricuspid atresia, Total anomalour pulmonary vascular return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In congenital heart defects, what are Acyonotic?

A

When the blood returns from the lungs to the body.

5 defects that have 3 letter abbreviations (don’t have to remember).

Atrial septal defect, Ventricular septal defect, Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, Patent ductus arteriosus, Coarctation of arota

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is systolic pressure?

A

Pressure against the vessel walls when the heart beats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Diastolic pressure?

A

Pressure against vessel walls when the heart relaxes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is acute hypertension?

A

Occurs on physical exertion, anxiety and stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is chronic hypertension?

A

Remains higher than normal with or without stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do SDCEP guidelines recommend on the use of antibiotic prophylaxis?

A

Antibiotic prophylaxis is not recommended routinely for people undergoing dental procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What prescription should be given to patients requiring antibiotic prophylaxis?

A

Amoxicillin 3g oral powder sachet one hour before procedure.

In patients who are allergic to penicillin, 600mg clindamycin capsules one hour before procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is considered normal blood pressure?

A

Systolic <120, diastolic <80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is considered elevated blood pressure?

A

Systolic 120-129, diastolic <80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is considered high blood pressure?

A

Systolic 130-139, diastolic 80-89

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some causative factors in high blood pressure?

A

Obesity, smoking, lack of physical activity, diet/alcohol, age, familial history/genetics, pain, medications (stimulants, decongestants, immunosuppressants), diseases (chronic kidney disease, hyperthyroid, acromegaly, sleep apneoa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are some oral side effects caused by HPB medication?

A

Dry mouth, taste changes, and ulcerations. Gingival hyperplasia related to calcium channel blockers. Angioedema related to ACE inhibitors and renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system blockers.

Gingival bleeding related to direct vasodialators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A 68 year old female with a history of a fractured neck of femur has been given medication to prevent her getting another fracture.

What two drugs is she likely to be taking?

A

Bisphosphonates

Calcium and vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What oral condition may arise from a patient taking bisphosphonates?

A

Osteonecrosis of the jaw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How can MRONJ be managed?

A

*Conservative approach

* Antiseptic mouthwash

* Antibiotics

* Surgical debridement

* Primary closure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How can MRONJ best be avoided in the first place?

A

* Avoid extractions

* Avoid trauma

* Good OH

* Aid healing by packing/suturing post ext

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Briefly explain the main features of Stage 1 oral transportation in the context of food ingestion and mastication

A

Food gathered on tongue tip. Tongue retracts taking food back to the level of the posterior teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Briefly explain the main features of stage 2 oral transport in the context of food ingestion and mastication

A

Sufficiently masticated food is transferred to the oropharynx by a squeeze back mechanism in which the bolus is squeezed between the tongue and the palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 4 stages of swallowing?

A
  1. Oral phase; move food posteriorly. Some can pass onto pharyngeal surface of tongue. Liquid remains in the mouth in front of pillars.
  2. Pharyngeal phase. Bolus passes into pharynx. Misdirection of bolus is prevented by tongue blocking oral cavity, soft palate blocking nasal cavity and epiglottis blocking larynx.
  3. Oesophageal phase. Upper oesophageal sphincter constricts and bolus passes downwards.
  4. Lower oesophageal sphincter relaxes to admit bolus to stomach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Name two biological factors that can affect masticatory performance of a human being?

A

Number of occluding teeth.

Biting force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

To which group of chemicals does chlorhexidine digluconate belong?

A

Bisbiguanides

25
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of chlorhexidine digluconate

A

Chlorhexidine binds to the microbial cell walls causing cell wall damage and interfering with cell wall permiability. Leakage of cel contents leads to cell death. Dicationic; one ion binds to the oral surfaces and one ion to the bacterial cell membrane

26
The activity of an oral antiseptic depends on its substantivity. How is substantivity defined and provide two examples of factors that may influence the substantivity of chlorhexidine in the oral cavity
\* Defined as the capacity of a chemical agent to continue its therapeutic effect for a prolonged period after its initial application. \* Adsorption to the oral surfaces \* Maintenence of antimicrobial activity \* Slow neutralisation of antimicrobial activity \* Concentration of chlorhexidine \* Presence/levels of anionic neutralising agents
27
What is the general advice for all patients taking an anticoagulant/antiplatelet?
\* Plan treatment early in the day and early in the week. \* Provide pre treatment instructions \* Treat atraumatically, only discharge when haemostasis is achieved. \* If travel time to emergency care is a concern, place emphasis on preventive measures \* Provide patient with post op advice and emergency contact details
28
Name 2 DOACs and the advice on dental procedures
Direct oral anticoagulants. Apixaban, Dabigatran, Rivaroxaban, Edoxaban. Low bleeding risk procedure; treat without interrupting medication. Higher risk procedure; advise patient to delay or miss morning dose. Treat patient early in the day, limit treatment area and assess bleeding. Consider sutures and packing
29
Name a vitamin k antagonist and the advice on dental treatment
Warfarin, Acenocolimarol, Phenindione Check INR ideally not more than 24 hours before dental treatment (up to 72 hours if patient is stable) INR \< 4 treat without interrupting medication INR of 4 or over delay treatment or refer if urgent
30
Name an injectable anticoagulant and the advice on dental treatment
Dalteparin, enoxaparin, tinzaparin. If low (prophylactic dose) treat without interrupting medication (consider sutrures and packing) If higher dose or uncertain, consult prescribing clinician
31
What classification of drug is aspirin and what is the advice regarding dental treatment?
Antiplatelet drug. Treat without interrupting medication. Use local haemostatic measures
32
Besides aspirin, name another antiplatelet drug and the advice regarding dental treatment
Clopidogrel, dipyridamole, prasligrel, ticagrelor (taken on its own or with aspirin) Treat without interrupting medication. Expect prolonged bleeding. Limit initial treatment and consider staging treatment. Strongly consider suturing and packing
33
What is the advice regarding dental treatment for a patient who is on a combination of anticoagulant and antiplatelet therapy
Consult with patients prescribing clinician
34
For what patients should anticoagulant/antiplatelet therapy not be stopped?
\* Patients with prosthetic metal heart valves or coronary stents \* Patients who have had a pulmanory embolism or DVT in the past 3 months \* Patients on anticoagulant therapy for cardioversion
35
Name some bisphosphonate drugs
Alendronic acid Risedronate sodium Ibandronic acid
36
Name a RANKL inhibitor
Denosumab
37
Name an anti-angiogenic
Bevacizumab Sunitinib
38
What 3 factors put a patient at high risk of developing MRONJ?
\* Previous diagnosis of MRONJ \* Pt is taking anti-resorptive or anti-angiogenic drugs for management of cancer \* Pt has taken bisphosphonate drug for more than 5 years
39
What foramen does the opthalamic branch of the trigeminal nerve pass through?
Superior orbital fissure
40
What foramen does the maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve pass through
Foramen rotundum
41
What foramen does the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve pass through
Foramen ovale
42
List the cranial nerves and how you would test each one
Olfactory - can patient smell, ie hand sanitiser Optic - check field of vision with fingers, left to right up and down Occulomotor - ask pt to follow finger with eyes Trochlear - ask pt to follow finger with eyes Trigeminal - light touch to both sides, forehead, cheeks, chin Abducense - ask pt to follow fingers with eyes Facial - ask patient to smile, wiggle eyebrows, blow out cheeks, scrunch eyelids and try to open against resistance Vestibulocochlear - hearing both sides, observe pts balance Glossopharyngeal - ask pt to say 'ahhh' and observe soft tissues moving equally both sides Vagus - ask pt to say 'ahh and observe soft tissues moving equally both sides. Ask pt to shrug shoulders Accessory - ask pt to say 'ahh' and observe soft tissues moving equally both sides. Hypoglossal - ask pt to stick out tongue, wiggle from side to side
43
What is the nerve supply for the submandibular glad?
Chorda tympani and submandibular ganglion
44
What is the secretion of the submandibular gland?
Mixed serous and mucous
45
What is the nerve supply for the parotid gland?
Glossopharyngeal nerve
46
What is the secretion of the parotid gland?
Serous
47
What is the nerve supply for the sublingual gland?
Chorda typani
48
What is the secretion of the sublingual gland?
mixed but mostly mucous
49
What are the intrinsic muscles of the tongue?
Transverse Vertical Superior longditudinal Inferior longditudinal
50
What are the extrinsic muscles of the tongue?
Palatoglossus Genioglossus Hyoglossus Styloglossus
51
What is the motor nerve supply to the muscles of the tongue?
Hypoglossal except the palatoglossus which is supplied by the vagus
52
What is the sensory nerve supply to the tongue?
Anterior two thirds taste; chorda tympani Posterior third glossopharyngeal
53
What is the origin insertion innervation function the masseter
Inferior border of zygomatic arch Angle of mandible Masseteric branch of V3 Elevate and protrude the mandible
54
What is the origin insertion innervation function of the temporalis
Temporal fossa Coronoid process and anterior border of ramus Temporal branch of v3 Elevate and retrude the mandible
55
What is the origin insertion innervation function of the lateral pterygoid
Superior head; greater wing of spenoid Inferior head; lateral surface of lateral pterygoid plate Insertion; anterior surface of neck of mandibular condyle Lateral pterygoid branch of V3 Depress, protrude and lateral deviation of mandible
56
What is the origin insertion innervation function of the medial pterygoid muscle
Deep; medial surface of lateral pterygoid plate Superficial; Maxillary tuberosity Insertion; angle of mandible Medial pterygoid branch of v3 Elevate and protrude the mandible