Anesthesia Adjuncts (Exam IV) Flashcards

(85 cards)

1
Q

β agonism results in activation of _____ which then produces _______.

A

Adenylyl Cyclase (AC)

cAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does cAMP enhance?

A

Calcium influx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Does Ca⁺⁺ influx or efflux during β agonism?

A

Influx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What type of receptors are β receptors?

A

GPCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What types of β receptors are there and where are they primarily located?

A
  • β1 - Heart
  • β2 - Lungs
  • β3 - Fat/Muscle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Chronic administration of β blockers results in what effect on receptors?

A

Receptor upregulation (aka ↑ # of receptors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

After β receptor desensitization from prolonged catecholamine exposure, what drug class can restore receptor responsiveness?

A

β-blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How do β blockers protect myocytes from perioperative ischemia?

A

By ↓O₂ demand on the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T/F. β blockers will potentiate renin release.

A

false. β blockers will inhibit renin release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How will β blockers affect the cardiac foci action potential?

A

Prolong Phase 4

-↓ rate of spontaneous depolarization
-↓ dysrhythmias during ischemia and reperfusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How will β blockers affect diastolic perfusion time?

A

β blockers will increase diastolic perfusion time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What type of HTN is a possible indication for β blocker therapy?

A

Essential Hypertension (HTN not a result of medical condition)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is SCIP?
Describe the protocol and its goals pertaining to betablockers

A
  • Surgical Care Improvement Protocol
  • β-blockers must be given within 24 hrs of surgery for patients at risk for cardiac ischemia and ones already on β-blocker therapy.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What were the three β1 selective agents discussed in lecture?

A
  • Atenolol (tenormin)
  • Metoprolol (lopressor)
  • Esmolol (brevibloc)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What percentage of β₁ receptors are in the myocardium?

A

75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Do cardio-selective β-blockers cause vasodilation?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What non-selective β-blocker has active metabolites and is generally not used for anesthesia?

A

Propanolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Differentiate the clearance mechanisms of metoprolol, esmolol and atenolol.

A
  • Metoprolol: Hepatic
  • Esmolol: Plasma hydrolysis
  • Atenolol: Renal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Differentiate the E½ of metoprolol, atenolol and esmolol.

A

Metoprolol E½ = 3-4 hours
Atenolol E½ = 6-7 hours
Esmolol E½ = 0.15hr (9min)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When propanolol is given, what effect lasts longer, negative inotropy or negative chronotropy?

A

Negative chronotropy (bradycardia) lasts longer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a possible reason why the heart rate slowing effects of propanolol last longer than the negative inotropic effects?

A

Possible β1 sub-receptor types (ex. β1A, β1B, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Propanolol will decrease the clearance of which two important anesthetic drug classes?

A
  • Opioids
  • Amide LA’s

(due to lower CO and slower HR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What drug is the most selective β1 antagonist?

A

Atenolol (tenormin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the three benefits of Atenolol?

A
  • Good for non-cardiac sx CAD patients (↓ complications for 2 years)
  • No insulin-induced hypoglycemia
  • Does not cross the BBB (no fatigue)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the dose for Atenolol?
5mg q10min IV
26
What is the dose of metoprolol?
1mg q5min (Given in 5mg "blocks")
27
What two PO formulations of metoprolol are there? What are their E½?
- Metoprolol Tartate = E½: 2-3 hr (bid-qid) - Metoprolol Succinate = E½: 5-7hr (qd)
28
What β blocker would be used to treat intubation stimuli?
Esmolol
29
What are the onset and offset of esmolol?
Onset: 5 min Offset: 10-30min
30
What is the initial dose for esmolol?
20-30mg IV
31
Caution should be taken when giving esmolol with which two conditions? Why?
- Cocaine and/or epinephrine - Can cause pulmonary edema and cardiac collapse
32
Are the effects of CCBs and β-blockers additive?
No, synergistic
33
What two scenarios were given in class for a β1 indication over a non-selective β blocker?
- DM: β2 can cause hypoglycemia by insulin potentiation - Airway: blocking β2 potentiates bronchospasm
34
What volatile anesthetic will cause the greatest additive depression when combined with a β blocker? The least? Why does this not matter?
- Enflurane = greatest additive depression - Isoflurane = least additive depression - Not significant between 1-2 MAC
35
What 2ⁿᵈ messengers are potentiated by ⍺₁ agonism? What are the effects?
IP₃ → Ca⁺⁺ release from SR affecting vascular smooth muscle
36
What occurs with ⍺₂ agonism?
↓ release of NE in the brainstem
37
Is phenylephrine primarily a venoconstrictor or an arterioconstrictor?
Venous constriction > arterial constriction
38
Phenylephrine clinically mimics norepinephrine but is....
less potent and longer lasting
39
What is the normal dosing of phenylephrine?
50-100mcg IV push
40
What cardiovascular adverse effect results from phenylephrine? How is it resolved?
- Reflex bradycardia - Stopping the drug
41
What is the ratio of β to ⍺ blockade for Labetalol?
7:1 (more beta effect than alpha)
42
Is Labetalol a selective β antagonist?
No: non-selective β and selective α1 antagonist
43
Which of the following receptors does Labetalol antagonize? A. α1 B. α2 C. β1 D. β2
A, C, and D
44
What is the dose for labetalol? How long would it take to see max effect from IV dose?
2.5 - 5mg IV; 10mg max IV max effect 5-10 min
45
How does labetalol lower systemic BP?
lowers systemic BP by ↓SVR, reflex tachycardia attenuated by beta blockade
46
What is the single IV dose for vasopressin?
1-2 units IV
47
Which of the following drugs would you utilize for a post-carotid endarterectomy with a BP of 214/62 ? Labetalol Esmolol
Esmolol- quick on and off *Labetolol could drop the DBP further*.
48
Which drug is an indirect acting sympathomimetic?
Ephedrine *Releases NE*
49
What is the IV push dose of epinephrine? How long does it last?
- 2-8mcg IVpush - 1-5 min
50
What is the infusion dose of epinephrine for β2 effects?
1-2 mcg/min
51
What is the infusion dose of epinephrine for β1 effects?
4 mcg/min
52
What is the infusion dose of epinephrine for predominantly α effects?
10-20 mcg/min
53
What catecholamine will have the greatest effect on heart rate and cardiac output?
Epinephrine
54
What catecholamine will have the greatest effect on PVR?
Phenylephrine
55
What is the single IV push dose for ephedrine?
5-10mg IV
56
Which SNS agonist can be given IM? What dose? Why would this be done?
- Ephedrine IM 50mg - Long lasting increase in BP for OB patients.
57
Why does tachyphylaxis occur with ephedrine?
depleted NE stores
58
What is the preferred sympathomimetic for parturient patients? Why?
Ephedrine (It doesn't affect uterine blood flow)
59
How does phenylephrine compare to ephedrine in parturient patients?
Phenylephrine has similar effects but some data shows additional benefit of a higher umbilical pH in neonates.
60
What is the mechanism of action of vasopressin?
Stimulation of vascular V1 receptors → arterial vasoconstriction Also increases renal water reabsorption
61
What drug would be utilized for catecholamine-resistant hypotension?
Vasopressin
62
What drug would be used for ACE-Inhibitor induced resistant hypotension?
Vasopressin *Resistant hypotension can occur with both ACEi and ARBs*.
63
How does Nitric Oxide cause vasodilation? *In broad terms*.
NO → GC → cGMP → inhibits Ca⁺⁺ entry and increased uptake by ER.
64
How can vasodilators alleviate pulmonary congestion?
By decreasing venous return via venodilation
65
What does Nitroprusside dissociate on contact with? What is the result?
Dissociates on contact with oxyhemoglobin → methemoglobin, NO, and cyanide released.
66
What does Sodium nitroprusside vasodilate?
Arterial **and** venous vasculature (more arterial)
67
What vasodilator absolutely requires arterial line monitoring?
Nitroprusside.
68
What is the dose of Nitroprusside?
Initial: 0.3 mcg/kg/min Tritrate slowly to 2 mcg/kg/min
69
When is nitroprusside used?
- Controlled Hypotensive necessary surgeries (aortic, spine, etc.) - Hypertensive emergencies (post CEA's)
70
What signs would tip you off to possible cyanide toxicity secondary to nitroprusside administration?
- ↑ need for SNP - ↑ SvO₂ - Metabolic acidosis - LOC changes
71
Where does nitroglycerin work?
- large Coronary arteries - Venous capacitance vessels
72
Would nitroglycerin increase or decrease preload?
↓ preload
73
How is tachyphylaxis reversed for nitroglycerin?
drug free intervals (12-15 hr)
74
What is the nitroglycerin dose?
Initial: 5 - 10 mcg/min
75
What is the firstline treatment for sphincter of Oddi spasm? What is second?
- Glucagon - Nitroglycerin
76
What are the indications for nitroglycerin?
- Acute MI - Controlled Hypotension - Sphincter of Oddi spasm - Retained placenta
77
How does hydralazine work?
↓ Ca⁺⁺ release and systemic arterial vasodilation
78
When does hydralazine peak? What is it's half-life?
- Peak: 1 hour - ½-life: 3-7 hours
79
What is the initial dose of hydralazine?
2.5mg IV
80
What are the three categories of CCBs? Where do each interact?
-Phenylalkylamines & Benzothiazepines: AV node -Dihydropyridines: arteriolar beds
81
How do CCBs generally work?
Bind and block L-type VG-Ca⁺⁺ channels thus ↓ Ca⁺⁺ influx.
82
CCBs will ______ blood pressure and ________ coronary blood flow.
decrease; increase
83
Which CCB has the greatest coronary artery dilation and least myocardial depression?
Nicardipine
84
What is the dose of nicardipine?
5mg/hr (↑2.5mg x4hr) max 15mg/hr
85
What is the formula for MAP?
[DBP + 1/3(SBP-DBP)] or [(2DBP+SBP)/3]