Animal Care and Nursing Flashcards

1
Q

4 types of hyper sensitivity

A

Type I: Atopy & Anaphylaxis
Type II: Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Type II: Glomerulonephritis
Type IV: Certain contact allergies, plastic food bowls.

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2
Q

How many blood types do cats have

A

3
A (98% of cats)
B (rare, often seen in exotic breeds)
AB (rare in all breeds)

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3
Q

Summer Sores

A

GI Parasites

Habronema spp & Draschia spp

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4
Q

What is a Chelonia

A

Turtle/ tortoise

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5
Q

Pyuria

A

WBC in urine

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6
Q

What muscles extend the elbow?

A

Triceps

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7
Q

Cholestasis

A

Poor flow of bile from the liver to the GI tract

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8
Q

What should all puppies be treated for?

A

Toxocara canis

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9
Q

Hock Joint

A

Tarsocrurual Joint

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10
Q

Normal Horse HB

A

25-50 BPM

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11
Q

Perihilar Lymphnodes

A

ARE NOT palpated peripherally

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12
Q
# of Cervical Vertebrae in: 
Cows, dogs, cats, sheep, goats, horses and humans?
A

7

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13
Q

Normal temp for a week old puppy

A

94-99 degrees

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14
Q

Which muscle should you not give an IM injection in in Horses?

A

Epaxial

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15
Q

How does Feline Toxoplasmosis present and what is it treated with?

A

Presents neuro; treated with clindamycin

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16
Q

Dysphagia

A

difficulty swallowing

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17
Q

Paratenic

A

transport host; does not undergo development on the animal

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18
Q

cerumen

A

earwax

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19
Q

90% of mammary gland tumors in cats are:

A

Malignant

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20
Q

NAVTAs Code of Ethics

A

Vets are not accountable for techs actions

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21
Q

Psittacosis

A

Parrot fever

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22
Q

How far is a nasal oxygen tube advanced?

A

To the level of the carnassial tooth to medical canthus of the eye

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23
Q

Trichomoniasis

A

causes infertility and abortions

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24
Q

What are toxic food for birds

A

Avocado, chocolate, comfrey

Avoid High sugar and salt

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25
Q

order of intestines in birds

A

Crop, esophagus, proventriculus, ventriculus, intestines, cloaca

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26
Q

What structure do birds not have?

A

Diaphrams

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27
Q

Chordae Tendinae

A

tendons which link papillary muscles to the valves and aid in opening and closing of the valves.

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28
Q

Systole

A

Ventricles are contracting

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29
Q

diastole

A

ventricles are relaxed, ventricles are filling with blood

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30
Q

Summary of cardiac circulation

A

Deoxygenated blood goes from body to heart via vena cava, empties into right atrium, through tricuspid valve into right ventricle, through pulmonic valve into pulmonary artery, to the lungs through the pulmonary circulation, gas exchange occurs in the lungs to oxygenate blood, to the pulmonary vein, into the left atrium through the mitral valve into left ventricle, through the aortic valve into the aorta, then to the body where gas exchange occurs in the capillaries.

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31
Q

Mitral Valve

A

separates left atrium from left ventricle

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32
Q

Tricuspid Valve

A

separates right atrium from right ventricle

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33
Q

Pulmonary Valve

A

separates right ventricle from the pulmonary artery.

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34
Q

Aortic Valve

A

separates left ventricle from the aorta

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35
Q

Papillary muscles

A

contract to open the valves. Connected to chordae tendinae.

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36
Q

Sinoatrial Node (SA Node)

A

Natural Pace Maker of the heart

It starts the electrical impulses to the heart

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37
Q

Atrioventricular node (AV node)

A

located at lower R atrium
spread through nerves in the ventricles and stimulate a wave of contractions. The AV node delays the impulse until the ventricles are completely filled

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38
Q

Bundle of His

A

send impulses to cause cardiac contraction.

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39
Q

Purkinje fibers

A

specialized cardiac muscle cells that conduct impulses deep within the myocardium assisting to transmit impulses from the AV node to the ventricles

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40
Q

Preload

A

stretching of the cardiac cells prior to contraction, most related to right atrial pressure

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41
Q

Contractility

A

intrinsic ability of the heart to contract independent of preload and afterload

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42
Q

Afterload

A

tension against which the ventricles contract. Left ventricular afterload determined by the aortic pressure. Right ventricular afterload is determined by the pulmonary artery pressure.

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43
Q

Stroke volume (SV)

A

the amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle per contraction.

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44
Q

Cardiac output (CO)

A

SV X HR

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45
Q

Central Venous Pressure (CVP)

A

pressure of blood in the thoracic vena cava, a good way to monitor hydration status in patients.

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46
Q

Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM)

A

weakened and enlarged heart; may be associated with taurine deficiency in some cases

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47
Q

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)

A

hypertrophy or thickening of the myocardium (heart muscle); sometimes associated with hyperthyroidism in cats

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48
Q

Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)

A

heart can no longer pump blood efficiently and leads to pulmonary edema (fluid in the lungs)

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49
Q

Second-degree AV block (common in horses)

A

arrhythmia causing delay at the AV node, often caused by high vagal tone in athletically fit horses, may resolve with exercise. May see a p wave with no QRS on an ECG.

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50
Q

Ventricular fibrillation (V-fib)

A

uncoordinated contraction of the cardiac muscle in the ventricles.

51
Q

What is required for muscle contraction?

A

ATP(energy) and calcium

52
Q

Are skeletal muscles voluntary or involuntary?

A

Voluntary

53
Q

What striated muscle fibers create the striped appearance?

A

Actin and myosin

54
Q

What is the neurotransmitter for skeletal muscles?

A

Acetylcholine, Ach

55
Q

Where is Ach located?

A

At the ends of motor neuron (neuromuscular junction)

56
Q

What is muscle activity ceased by?

A

Acetylcholinesterase

57
Q

What nervous system is the skeletal muscles apart of?

A

Somatic nervous system (skeletal muscle (motor) and sensory nerves)

58
Q

What are skeletal muscle fibers?

A

Long and striated

59
Q

Where are smooth muscles found?

A

In walls of hallow organs, except the heart.

May also be called visceral muscles

60
Q

How are transmitters sent in smooth muscles?

A

Via interstitial fluid, no neuromuscular junction

61
Q

What is smooth mucsles neurotransmitter?

A

Acetylcholine (Excitatory- muscle contraction) or Norepinephrine (inhibits contractions)

62
Q

When does muscle relaxation occur in smooth muscles?

A

When calcium is moved out of the smooth muscle fibers

63
Q

What are smooth muscle fibers made of?

A

Fibers are spindle shaped with single nucleus

64
Q

Are smooth muscles voluntary or involuntary?

A

Involuntary. Contraction occurs without any thought

65
Q

What type of cells does cardiac muscles have?

A

Branching and striated

66
Q

Are cardiac muscles voluntary or involuntary?

A

Involuntary

67
Q

Sarcomere

A

Contractile unit of a muscle fiber

68
Q

Myofibril

A

Muscle fiber

69
Q

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

Endoplasmic reticulum that is needed for muscle contraction

70
Q

Z-line

A

Protein bands where actin filaments attach in a striated muscle fiber and mark the boundaries of adjoining contractile units

71
Q

Sarcolemma

A

Thin plasma cell membrane of a muscle cell

72
Q

What are skeletal muscles attached by?

A

Tendons

73
Q

What do skeletal muscles provide?

A

Motor to body

74
Q

What is the orbit?

A

The hole in which the eye sits surrounded and formed by the maxilla, zygomatic, frontal and ethmoid bones

75
Q

What is the proper term for eyelids?

A

Palpebrae

76
Q

What are eyelashes called?

A

Cilia (small hairs)

77
Q

What is the conjunctiva and what does it do?

A

It’s the membrane that lines the insides of the eyelids and it secretes mucus which helps lubricate the eye

78
Q

What does the lacrimal gland do?

A

Makes tears. They are secreted through the lacrimal duct. Also connected to the nasal passage via nasolacrimal duct

79
Q

What is the third eyelid? And where is it located?

A

It’s the nictitating membrane. Located near the medial canthus and it will sometimes protrude if the eye is painful, from trauma or if animal is sedated

80
Q

Dysecdysis

A

Abnormal shedding of the skin, snake

81
Q

Harderian glands are associated with which part of the anatomy?

A

Eyes. an accessory lacrimal gland in the inner side of the orbit in reptiles and birds. Present but usually degenerates in mammals

82
Q

In a fetus, blood is shunted from the pulmonary artery to the aorta via what structure?

A

Ductus arteriosus

83
Q

Ductus venosus

A

Shunts some blood flow from the umbilical vein to the vena cava

84
Q

Foramen ovale

A

Allows blood to enter the left atrium from the right atrium

85
Q

What type of placenta does a ruminant have?

A

Cotyledonary, they have numerous smaller placentae instead of a single large contact area between the mother and fetus.

86
Q

What vitamins are fat soluble?

A

A, D, E, and K

87
Q

What two vitamins are water-soluble?

A

Vitamin c and b complex

88
Q

What is the white part of the eye?

A

Sclera

89
Q

Cornea

A

Clear and retracts light. Has no vessels. Made up of 10 layers and forms the anterior portion of the eye

90
Q

What is the Uvea?

A

Vascular tunic, made of the choroid, ciliary body, and iris.

91
Q

What does the culinary body do?

A

Helps focus the eye

92
Q

What does the choroid do?

A

Helps guard against glare

93
Q

Retina

A

Images are formed in the retina, it’s made up of rods and cones.
Mostly rods in dogs, which are best suited for night vision.

94
Q

What is the fundus?

A

Part of the posterior eye segment that is viewed with the ophthalmoscope. It’s made up of optic disc, the neurosensory retina, retinal pigment epithelium, and choroid.

95
Q

What is the lens?

A

A circular and transparent disc made of protein with no blood supply. The shape of the lens is moderated by the ciliary muscle which helps with focus and distance. Cataracts are deposits on the lens.

96
Q

What is the Anterior Chamber

A

It’s located between the front of the lens and cornea. It’s filled with aqueous humor (fluid) which is directly related to intraocukar pressure.

97
Q

Posterior chamber

A

Located between the iris, lens, and ciliary body

98
Q

Vitreous

A

Located between the retina and iris, it has vitreous humor which has more of a jelly like consistency instead of fluid to help keep the retina intact

99
Q

What is the normal tear production?

A

Greater than 15 mm in 60 seconds

100
Q

Miosis

A

A small or constricted pupil

101
Q

Mydriasis

A

A dilated pupil

102
Q

Anisocoria

A

Different sized pupil. May suggest trauma or neurological dz

103
Q

Pupillary light reflex (plr)

A

Pupils should construct in light and dilate in dark

104
Q

Hyphemia

A

Blood in the anterior chamber of the eye

105
Q

Hypopion

A

Pus in the anterior chamber of the eye

106
Q

Canthus

A

Refers to the corner of the eye. Medial canthus is the corner towards the nose; lateral canthus is the corner toward the ear

107
Q

How long will sperm be viable to fertilize an egg after dogs have mated?

A

7 days

108
Q

Which organism causes equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM) in the horse?

A

It’s caused by the aberrant migration of SARCOYSTIS NEURONA through the central nervous system if the horse.
Causes signs such as ataxia and muscle atrophy in the horse

109
Q

What condition in rats results from living in an area with the humidity too low?

A

Ringtail

110
Q

What causes red tears in rats?

A

Stress

111
Q

What anticoagulant is appropriate for the collection of blood from a donor horse for the purpose of blood transfusion to a recipient horse?

A

Citrate-phosphate-dextrose adenine (CPDA)

112
Q

What category of parasite for Dirofilaria immitis fall under?

A

Nematode

113
Q

How many thoracic vertebrae does a horse have?

A

18

114
Q

How can you differentiate a male tortoise from a female?

A

The plastron is concave in males

115
Q

Where is TB test administered in the bovine species?

A

Caudal tail fold

116
Q

Where is the carapace on a turtle

A

The top shell and the plastron is the bottom of the shell.

117
Q

if restrained in a stressful or frightening way what species if prone to seizures?

A

Gerbils

118
Q

The placenta supplies the fetus with oxygen via which structure

A

Umbilical Vein

119
Q

Fetlock Joint in a Horse

A

Metacarpophalangeal joint

120
Q

What is the earliest time you would expect to see fetal skeletons in a radiograph?

A

43 days gestation

121
Q

Life expectancy of a ferret

A

8-10 years

122
Q

Life expectancy of a rabbit

A

5-8 years

123
Q

Life expectancy of a chinchilla

A

10-15 years

124
Q

Life expectancy of a sugar glider

A

8-10 years