Pharmacology Flashcards

(109 cards)

1
Q

Penicillins

A

Inhibits formation of petidoglycan cross-links of bacterial cell wall; bacteriacidal; beta lactams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cephalosporins

A

Inhibits formation of petidoglycan cross-links of bacterial cell wall; bactericidal;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Gentamicin

A

Binds to 30s ribosomal subunit thereby; bactericidal; Nephrotoxic; Caution in animals with renal dz or hypovolemia; ototoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Enrofloxacin

A

Inhibits DNA gyrase necessary for bacterial DNA replication; bactericidal; Can damage cartilage in young animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Tetracycline & Doxycycline

A

Binds to 30s ribosomal subunit thereby interfering with protein synthesis, bactericidal; Nephrotoxic Discoloration of teeth GI upset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Metronidazole

A

breakage in dna, bactericidal; can have neuro side effects, anorexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Clostridium haemolyticum

A

Affects: cattle and sheep
Pedisposing factors: Damage to liver by the fluke Fasciola hepatica
Features and facts: Hemoglobinuria, icterus, anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Clostridium chauvoei

A

Affects: mainly sheep, also cattle
Predisposing Factors: Damage or bruising to muscles from transport, injections, rough handling
Features/ Facts: Crackling of swollen lesion when touched, rancid butter odor on postmortem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Clostridium septicum

A

Affects: Mainly sheep; cattle and goats
Predisposing Factors: Deep wounds such as bites, surgical sites, parturition injuries
Facts/Features: Open wound with swelling and without gas accumulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Clostridium perfringens type D

A

Affects: sheep, cattle, goats
Predisposing Factors: Increased dietary intake
Facts/ Features: Associated with overeating. “Pulpy kidneys” due to rapid postmortem decomposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Clostridium perfringens type C

A

Affects: Mainly cattle
Predisposing Factors: Increased dietary intake
Facts/ Features: “Purple gut” with sections of extremely reddened small bowel that is filled with hemorrhagic fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Clostridium novyi

type B

A

Affects: Mainly sheep; cattle
Predisposing Factors: Damage to liver by the Fluke Fasciola Hepatica
Facts/ Features: Large necrotic black lesions in liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Clostridium tetani

A

Affects: Mainly horsed and cattle; all animals
Predisposing Factors: Puncture wounds
Facts/ Features: General body stiffness; sensitivity ti noise, sound and movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Clostridium botulinum

A

Affects: Uncommon in animals
Predisposing Factors: Ingestion of preformed toxin in feed
Facts/ Features: Ascending paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Clostridium sordellii

A

Affects: mainly cattle
Predisposing Factors: Unknown
Facts/ Features: Sudden death syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Ctenocephalides Felis or Canis

A

dog/ cat fleas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Xenopsylla Cheopis

A

Oriental rat flea; plague

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Dipylidium Caninum

A

Tapeworms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Ixodes

A

Deer tick; transmits Borrelia Burgdorferi (lyme dz)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Dermacentor

A

American Dog tick; Rocky Mountain spotted fever (Rickettsia rickerrsii)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Rhipicephalus

A

Brown Dog tick; Ehrlichia spp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Otobius megnini

A

Ear Tick; most commonly in livestock; body is covered in spines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Demodex

A

Not pruritic; not contagious; located in hair follicle; treated with oral ivermectin or lyme sulfur dip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Scabies

A

Very Pruritic; can be zoonotic but species specific; superficial dweller- multiple scrapes; treated with selamectin, lime sulfur dip, or milbemycin.
Scarcoptes scabies- Canine
Notoedres Cati- feline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Cheyletiella
Very Pruritic; walking dandruff; superficial
26
Ear Mites
Very pruritic; mineral oil swab; treated with topical ivermectin; dark coffee ground look in ears Otodectes Cynotis- Dog and cat
27
Lice
Pediculosis; pruritic; host specific; transmitted via direct contact; biting or sucking; seen with naked eye; 6 legs and wingless; treated with Fipronil or Selamectin. Hematopinus- sucking cattle Trichodectes Canis- Chewing Linognathus- Sucking
28
Cyrstalloids
Isotonic with plasma; LRS, 0.9% Sodium Chloride, and Normosol-R; used for maintenance of normal hydration deficits. NEVER bolus a crystalloid that has an additive- especially KCL-> arrhythmias and death.
29
Maintenance rate
Dog: (KgxKgxKg)√√ x 132 ÷ 24= ml/hr Cat: (KgxKgxKg)√√ x 70 ÷ 24= ml/hr
30
Anesthetic Rate
dog: 5 ml/kg/hour cat: 3ml/kg/hr
31
Shock Dose
Dogs: 90 ml/kg Cats: 45 ml/kg Generally given in 1/4 boluses; Preferred Isotonic Crystalloids- LRS & Normosol- R
32
Dextrose Solutions
When Dextrose is added to a crystalloid; should not be given as maintenance fluid- will lead to dilution of electrolytes; SQ will cause tissue necrosis; solution is ideal for bacterial growth so aseptic technique must be used.
33
Synthetic Colloids
Hetastarch, Dextran 40, Dextran 70 Expands plasma volume, useful in resuscitative or replacement fluids; IV and IO only Hetastarch: 20 ml/kg/day Dextran: 2 ml/kg/ hr
34
Colloids
Albumin, fresh frozen plasma, whole blood Expansion of interstitial space in event of a plasma volume deficiency from traumatic or septic shock & for replacement of lost blood volume. IV, Can also be given IO
35
Signs of Dehydration
5%-6%: Dry or sticky mm 6%-8%: Above and mild/moderate decrease skin turgor, sunken eyes 10%-12%: Above and Dry mm, Weak&Rapid pulses, slow CRT, Mod/Marked mental depression
36
Signs of overhydration
``` Serous nasal discharge SubQ Edema Increase Urine Output Coughing/ Pulmonary edema Increased RR ```
37
HYPERadrenocorticism: Cushing DZ
Excessive circulating cortisol (produced by adrenal glands) Most cases are pituitary dependent. Pituitary secretes ACTH-> adrenal to produce cortisol. Will see PU/PD, Potbelly, hairless, panting. Horses will have abnormal long/wavy hair coat Elevated AlkPhos, +/- Proteinuria, dilute urine, +/- UTIs. ACTH Stem Test or Low Dose Dex test TREATMENT: Vetoryl (trilostane)
38
Feline Hyperthyroidism
Increased secretion of Thyroid Hormone. TEST: Serum Total T4 Level SIGNS: weight loss w/ rav. appetite, Thyroid Nodule Slip, Hyperactivity, vomiting and increased vocalization, Tachycardia, Heart Murmur or Gallop, Thyrotoxic cardiomyopathy. TREATMENT: oral/ transderm. meds (methimazole), SX- thyroidectomy, RADIOACTIVE IODINE
39
Thyroxine (T4) and Triiodothyronine (T3)
Increase metabolic rate, O2 consumption, HR, Erthopoiesis, catecholamine response.
40
HYPOadrenocorticism: Addison's DZ
Inability of the adrenal glands to produce cortisol
41
CAUSES of HYPOadrenocorticism
Autoimmune/idiopathic, granulomatous, distruction of the adrenal cortex, secondary to distrupt. of adren/pituit axis
42
HYPOadrenocorticism commonly affects
Standard Poodles, Port. Water dogs, Rotes, Westies
43
HYPOadrenocorticism Clinic signs
weakness, vomiting, diarrhea, finicky appetite, dehydration, bradycardia and low BP
44
HYPOadrenocorticism Labs
increased Potassium, low Sodium and Chloride, Hypoglycemia, Increased BUN & Creat.
45
HYPOadrenocorticism Tests!
ACTH Stem Test
46
HYPOadrenocorticism Treatment
Fluid Therapy and steroids
47
CANINE HYPOTHYROIDISM
Insufficient levels of Thyroid, Common in older dogs SIGNS: Weight Gain, Obesity, Lethargy, Alopecia, Heat Seaking, Muscle Weakness, Skin DZ DIAGNOSIS: Serum T4 Levels TREATMENT: Oral Levothyroxine (Synthyroid, Soloxine). T4 levels should be monitored after starting and during treatment.
48
OPIODS
``` mu agonists or partial mu agonists, reversed with naloxone • Fentanyl • Morphine • Hydromorphone • Buprenorphine • Butorphanol • Tramadol ```
49
Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatories
all NSAIDS cause increased risk of GI ulceration and may have effects on the liver and kidneys, labwork should be monitored
50
Ketamine
dissociative anesthetic, causes muscle rigidity (used with diazepam because of this)
51
Tiletamine
dissociative anesthetic, part of Telazol (along with zolazepam)
52
Valium
benzodiazepine (end in the suffix –pam), causes skeletal muscle relaxation and sedation by enhancing GABA
53
Propofol
short acting hypnotic agent/injectable anesthetic, given slowly, may cause apnea and hypotension, white opaque in color
54
Lidocaine/ Bupivacaine
local anesthetics | Lidocaine also given as anti-arrhythmic
55
Dexmedatomadine
(Dexdomitor)- alpha-2 adrenergic agonist, reversed with atipamezole (Antesedan-an alpha-2 adrenergic antagonist), should not be used in pets with cardiac disease or that are debilitated
56
Xylazine
alpha-2 adrenergic agonist, reversed with yohimbine-an alpha-2 adrenergic antagonist)
57
Acepromazine
phenothiazine tranquilizer, may lower seizure threshold (this is controversial but could be asked on boards)
58
Apomorphine
used to cause vomiting (emetic), injectable or comes in a tablet which can be placed in the conjunctival sac in the eye, opioid
59
Thiopental
short acting thiobarbiturate, not recommended for greyhounds or other sighthounds due to slow metabolism of this drug
60
Furosemide ( Lasix)
Loop diuretic most often used in congestive heart failure
61
Enalapril/Benazapril
ace-inhibitors (end in suffix –pril), used in treating heart failure and hypertension, sometimes used in chronic renal failure, causes vasodilation
62
Pimobendan (Vetmedin)
inodilator, used in treating congestive heart failure
63
Atropine
anticholinergic, used to increase heart rate; used in CPCR and also during anesthesia to treat bradycardia
64
Fenbendazole (Panacur)
general anthelmentic, also commonly used to treat Giardia
65
Sulfadimethoxine (Albon)
treats coccidia
66
Pyrantel
used primarily for ascarids
67
Emodepside and Praziquantel (Profender)
Topical dewormer for felines (Praziquantel is the treatment for tapeworms)
68
Praziquantel, Pyrantel, and Febantel (Drontal plus)
dewormer for canine or feline
69
Selamectin (Revolution)
topical parasite prevention (ear mite tx, flea control, hooks, rounds, heartworm prevention), treatment for Sarcoptes
70
Ivermectin (Heartgard or injectable)
heartworm prevention, hooks, rounds, demodex treatment with injectable, contraindicated in Collie type breeds
71
Milbemycin (Interceptor)
(dogs or cats) heartworm prevention, hooks, rounds, whips
72
Famotidine (Pepcid AC)
H2 receptor blocker
73
Carafate (Sucralfate)
gastroprotectant, also known as a “band-aid” for the GI tract, may impair absorption of some oral medications
74
Metoclopramide (Reglan)
Upper GI pro-kinetic agent, may cause excitement or hyperactivity in cats, anti-emetic: prevents nausea by blocking dopamine in the chemo-receptor trigger zone (CRTZ)
75
Maropitant (Cerenia)
anti-nausea/anti-vomiting agent
76
Cisapride
pro-motility agent for upper and lower GI, used in cats with megacolon (not commercially available, must get compounded)
77
Omeperazole (Prilosec)
proton pump inhibitor, used for treating and preventing GI ulcers
78
Misoprostol
Misoprostol- prostaglandin E1 analog, used to prevent gastric ulceration
79
Methocarbamol (Robaxin)
muscle relaxant
80
Fluconazole/ketoconazole/itraconazole
anti-fungals, potentially hepatotoxic
81
Trilostane (Vetoryl)
adrenal steroid synthesis inhibitor, used in treating hyperadrenocorticism
82
Levothyroxine
thyroid hormone, treats hypothyroidism
83
Methimazole (Tapazole)
inhibits synthesis of thyroid hormone, treatment for hyperthyroidism
84
Epinephrine
alpha and beta- adrenergic agonist, used mostly in anaphylaxis and cardiac resuscitation
85
Guafenisen
muscle relaxant/ oral expectorant used primarily in large animal anesthesia for the muscle relaxation
86
Pentobarbital* (Beuthanasia, Fatal Plus, others)
barbiturate, mostly used for euthanasia in vet med
87
Phenobarbital*
barbiturate, anti-seizure medication
88
Mirtazapine
tetracyclic antidepressant/ 5-HT3 antagonist- used as appetite stimulant in dogs and cats
89
Primary urethral sphincter mechanism incontinence
Also referred to as hormone (estrogen) responsive incontinence o Occurs most commonly in spayed female dogs
90
Ectopic Ureter
Ureters bypass the bladder and open directly into the urethra, distal to the internal sphincter Most commonly a continuous incontinence starting at a very young age
91
Patent urachus
Urine dripping from the ventral abdomen from the time of birth
92
Prostatic disease
The urethral sphincter is located within the prostatic urethra and can be affected with prostatic disease
93
Vaginal anomalies
Examples include vaginal bands, vestibulovaginal constrictions, and rectal- or vaginalurethral fistulas
94
Large Bladder Incontinence
``` Lower Motor Neuron DZ Upper Motor Neuron DZ Brainstem DZ Urethral Obstruction Dyssynergia Detrusor atony ```
95
Phenylpropanolamine (PPA)
o α-adrenergic agonist o Increases internal urethral sphincter tone o A drug of choice for treatment of urethral sphincter mechanism incontinence o Side effects- hypertension, hyperactivity
96
Ephedrine/pseudoephedrine
o Also α-adrenergic agonist | o Used as a substitute for PPA
97
Diethylstilbestrol (DES)
o Also used for treatment of urethral sphincter mechanism incontinence o No longer commercially available due to potential side effects of bone marrow suppression, specifically aplastic anemia
98
Propantheline (Probanthine)
o Anticholinergic | o Reduces muscle contractions allowing better bladder filling o Used to treat dogs with urge incontinence
99
Oxybutinin (Ditropan)
o Anticholinergic and antispasmodic | o Used to treat dogs with urge incontinence and occasionally cats with FLUTD
100
Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)
o α-adrenergic antagonist o Allows relaxation of internal urethral sphincter o Used in cases of urethral outflow obstruction (upper motor neuron disease, urethritis)
101
Bethanechol (Urecholine)
o Strong muscarinic agent that stimulates cholinergic receptors on detrusor o Used to treat bladder atony o Usually combined with phenoxybenzamine because it can increase urethrospasm due to weak nicotinic effect
102
What medication requires special handling because it can cause aplastic anemia in humans?
Chloramphenicol
103
What is used to treat coccidia in cats and dogs?
Sulfadimethoxine (Albon)
104
Tensilon test is used to diagnose?
Myasthenia gravis
105
Which of the following is expected from a positive inotropic drug?
Increase in cardiac contractility
106
what are Mirtazapine and Cyproheptadine commonly used for?
appetite stimulants
107
What is Spironolactone used for?
It is a diuretic for her pet's congestive
108
Parenteral means
intravenous
109
Which chemotherapy drug is contraindicated in cats?
Cisplatin cannot be used in cats as it causes pulmonary toxicity.