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Anti Viral and Misc Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following Antifungal drugs would be only given orally for the treatment of Dermatophytic infections in a 31 yr old man?

A. Amphotericin 
B. Fluconazole
C. Flucytocine
D. Griseofulvin
E. Ketaconazole
A

D. Griseofulvin

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2
Q

A 35-year-old woman complains of itching in the vulval area. Hanging-drop examination of the urine reveals trichomonads. Which of the following is the preferred treatment for the trichomoniasis?

A. Doxycycline
B. Emetine
C. Metronidazole
D. Pentamidine
E. Pyrimethamine
A

C. Metronidazole

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3
Q

A 24-year-old street person, who is a known user of injection drugs, complains of a series of opportunistic infections that have recently affected him. His community health program tests him for HIV and finds him positive in the screening and confirmatory tests. He is to start on a highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) program, which became available in 1996, utilizing azidothymidine (AZT), dideoxyinosine (DDI), and saquinavir or similar agents. By 1997, HIV/AIDS dropped from the first to the second leading cause of death in young adults in the United States. By 2000, it was not even one of the top 10 causes of death in this group. Use of these three drugs inhibits which of the following viral processes?

A. All membrane synthesis
B. Glycoprotein (gp) 120 formation
C. Protein (p) 24 antibody expression
D. Reverse transcriptase, protease
E. RNase, DNase
A

D. Reverse transcriptase, protease

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4
Q

The mechanism of action of this antihelminthic is due to inhibition of microtubule synthesis and resultant glucose uptake by the worm

A. Metrinadazole
B. Mebendazole
C. Pyrantal pamoate
D. Piperizine
E. Praziquantel
A

B. Mebendazole

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5
Q

The Drug of choice for Leishmaniasis is

A. Nifurtimox
B. Arsenicals
C. Stibogluconate
D. Metronidazole
E. Pentamidine
A

C. Stibogluconate

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6
Q

A 34-year-old man is taking antiretroviral agents for the treatment of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. He is also started on prophylaxis therapy with ganciclovir. Which of the following infections will ganciclovir be most effective in preventing in this patient?

A.Candida sp.
B.Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
C.Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
D.Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)
E.Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP)
A

B.Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

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7
Q

Antiviral compounds are well known for herpes viruses and some retroviruses, but direct, specific antiviral chemotherapy for many human viruses is still being sought. Which of the following antiviral agents is a purine nucleoside analogue that has shown promise with Lassa fever, influenza A and B, and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)?

A. Amantadine
B. Acyclovir
C. Ribavirin
D. Rimantadine
E. Vidarabine
A

C. Ribavirin

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8
Q

A 48-year-old woman who recently underwent an allograft renal transplant begins lifelong immunosuppressive therapy with cyclosporine. The patient has a history of stomatitis caused by herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1). Which of the following drugs can be prescribed once a day to prevent recurrent attacks of stomatitis in this patient?

A.Acyclovir
B.Amantadine
C.Ritonavir
D.Valacyclovir
E.Zidovudine
A

D.Valacyclovir

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9
Q

Which of the following Anti viral drugs inhibits Viral RNA Polymerase?

A. Ribavirin
B. Amantadine
C. Acyclovir
D. Indinavir
E. All of the above
A

A. Ribavirin

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10
Q

Which of the following Anti viral drugs inhibits viral Aspartate protease?

A. Ritonavir
B. Oseltamivir
C. Nevirapine
D. Foscarnet
E. Didanosine
A

A. Ritonavir

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11
Q

Which one of the following Anti viral drugs causes Pancreatitis, hyperuricemia and peripheral neuropathy?

A. Zalcitabine
B. Didanosine
C. Stavudine
D. Lamuvudine
E. Zidovudine
A

B. Didanosine

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12
Q

A young boy presents with an infestation of Taenia saginata (tapeworm). Which of the following is the most appropriate drug to administer for treating this helminth problem?

A. Ceftriaxone
B. Chloroquine
C. Mebendazole
D.Niclosamide
E. Primaquine
A

D.Niclosamide

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13
Q

Which of the following drugs is the drug of choice for cryptococcal meningitis, which interferes with the synthesis of ergosterol?

A. Flucytosine
B. Fluconazole
C. Ketoconazole
D. Amphotericin-B
E. Nystatin
A

B. Fluconazole

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14
Q

The Drug that is used for both HIV infection and Hepatitis infection is

A. Zidovidine
B. Lamivudine
C. Zalcitabine
D. Stavudine
E. Didanosine
A

B. Lamivudine

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15
Q

A 25 year-old male AIDS patient has a fever of 102°F and complains of severe headaches during the past week. Staining of his CSF with India ink reveals Crvptococcus neoformans. The patient is admitted to the hospital and is treated with:

A. intravenous amphotericin B plus flucytosine.
B. oral ketoconazole.
C. intravenous miconazole
D. oral Itraconazole
E. intravenous amphotericin B plus ketoconazole

A

A. intravenous amphotericin B plus flucytosine.

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16
Q

A 30-year-old male has had a heart transplant and is being maintained on the immunosuppressant, cyclosporine. He develops a Candida infection and is treated with ketoconazole. Why is this poor therapy?

A. Ketoconazole is not effective against Candida.
B. Ketoconazole reacts with cyclosporine to inactivate it.
C. Ketoconazole has a potential for cardiotoxicity.
D. Ketoconazole inhibits cytochrome P450 enzymes that inactivate cyclosporine.
E. Ketoconazole causes gynecomastia and decreased libido in the male.

A

D. Ketoconazole inhibits cytochrome P450 enzymes that inactivate cyclosporine.

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17
Q

A 22-year-old male has been treating his “athlete’s foot” with an over-the-counter drug without much success. Upon examination, it is found the nail bed of both great toes is infected. Which one of the following antifungal agents would be most appropriate for this patient?

A. Miconazole
B. Fluconazole
C. Flucytocine
D. Nystatin
E. Terbinafine
A

E. Terbinafine

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18
Q

A 36-year-old male of Lebanese ancestry is being treated for vivax malaria. He experiences severe fatigue, back pain, and darkened urine. Which one of the following antimalarial drugs is most likely to have caused his symptoms?

A. Pyrimethamine
B. Artemisinin
C. Chloroquine
D. Quinine
E. Primaquine
A

E. Primaquine

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19
Q

Tinnitus, dizziness, blurred vision, and headache are indicative of toxicity to which one of the following antimalarial drugs?

A. Primaquine
B. Quinine
C. Pyrimethamine
D. Chloroquine
E. Sulfadoxine
A

B. Quinine

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20
Q

Which of the following drugs is recommended for the treatment of severe, multidrug-resistant falciparum malaria?

A. Artemisinin
B. Chloroquine
C. Quinine
D. Sodium stibogluconate
E. Primaquine
A

A. Artemisinin

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21
Q

A 22-year-old man, who frequently back-packs, complains of diarrhea and fatigue. Examination of stool specimens shows binucleate organisms with four flagellae. Which one of the following drugs would be effective in treating this patient’s infestation?

A Metronidazole
B. Quinidine
C. Pentamidine
D. Sulfadoxine
E. Stibogluconate
A

A. Metronidazole

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22
Q

A 48-year-old immigrant from Mexico presents with seizures and other neurologic symptoms. Eggs of Taenia solium are found upon examination of a stool specimen. A magnetic resonance image of the brain shows many cysts, some of which are calcified. Which one of the following drugs would be of benefit to this individual?

A. Ivermectin
B. Pyrantel pamoate
C. Albendazole
D. Diethylcarbamazine
E. Niclosamide
A

C. Albendazole

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23
Q

A 56-year-old man from South America is found to be parasitized by both schistosomes and Taenia solium—the pork tapeworm. Which of the following antihelmintic drugs would be effective for both infestations?

A. Albendazole
B. Ivermectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Niclosamide
E. Praziquantel
A

E. Praziquantel

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24
Q

A 30-year-old male patient with an HIV infection is being treated with a HAART regimen. Four weeks after initiating therapy, he comes to the emergency department complaining of severe flank pain, nausea, and frequent urination. Which one of the following drugs is most likely the cause of his symptoms?

A. Zidovudine
B. Nelfinavir
C. Indinavir
D. Efavirenz
E. Nevirapine
A

C. Indinavir

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25
Q

Which of the following is the Piperazine mechanism of action?

A. Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and death of helminthes
B. Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes
C. Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose uptake
D. Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes

A

B. Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes

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26
Q

An HIV-positive woman is diagnosed with CMV retinitis. She has been on a HAART regimen containing zidovudine. Which of the following anti-CMV drugs is likely to cause additive myelosuppression with zidovudine?

A. Acyclovir
B. Ganciclovir
C. Amantadine
D. Foscarnet
E. Ribavirin
A

B. Ganciclovir

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27
Q

A 25-year-old man is diagnosed with HIV, and therapy is initiated. After the first week of therapy, the patient complains of headaches, irritability, vivid dreams, Insomnia and nightmares. Which one of the following antiretroviral drugs is most likely to be causing these symptoms?

A. Efavirenz
B. Indinavir
C. Lamivudine
D. Nevirapine
E. Stavudine
A

A. Efavirenz

28
Q

The selectivity of acyclovir for certain Herpes viruses is due primarily to:

A. Its selectivity for the viral reverse transcriptase enzyme
B. Its irreversible inhibition of Herpes DNA polymerase
C. Its structural similarity to the nucleoside thymidine
D. Its selectivity for Herpes DNA polymerase
E. Inhibition of translation of viral proteins

A

D. Its selectivity for Herpes DNA polymerase

29
Q

A 42-year-old woman with AIDS complains of impaired vision in both eyes. Ophthalmoscopic examination shows perivascular hemorrhage and retinal scarring. Laboratory studies show a white blood cell count of 1300/mm3, with a differential of 26% neutrophils. Renal function is within normal limits. The patient’s records indicate that she is seropositive for cytomegalovirus (CMV) and her last CD4+ count was 85 cells/mm3. She has been unable to tolerate the hematologic manifestations of zidovudine or trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and is currently taking lamivudine, zalcitabine, indinavir, and atovaquone. Which drug would be preferred for the management of this patient’s ophthalmologic problems?

A. Acyclovir
B.Amantadine
C.Foscarnet
D.Ganciclovir
E.Pentamidine
A

C.Foscarnet

30
Q

A 60-year-old female referred to a dermatologist by her primary care physician because of a pain-less, infamed, erupting ulcer that has been on her right hand for two months. This patient works in her vegetable and herb garden daily and states that the lesion began as a small red papule. Despite 10 days of treatment with cephalexin, the papule has con-tinued to enlarge. The dermatologist cultured the ulcer and the results demonstrated the patient has sporotrichosis, an infection caused by Sporothrix schenckii. What is the most appropriate therapy that should be recommended to treat the infection?

A. Flucytosine.
B. Amphotericin B.
C. Itraconazole.
D. Micafungin.
E. All of the above
A

C. Itraconazole.

31
Q

A 5-year-old is picked up early from preschool and taken to her pediatrician because of abdominal pain and perianal pruritis. The pediatrician used a cello-phane tape swab over the perianal skin that demon-strated translucent eggs of Enterobius vermicularis. For this infection, what is the most appropriate therapy?

A. Fluconazole.
B. Itraconazole.
C. Ketoconazole.
D. Mebendazole.
E. Terbinafine
A

D. Mebendazole.

32
Q

A patient presents with malaise and skin and mucous membranes appear pale. Among the key findings from blood work are hypochromic, microcytic red cells, and reduced red cell count; reduced hematocrit; reduced reticulocyte count; and reduced total hemoglobin content. Assuming the most likely diagnosis is correct, which of the following drugs would be most proper to administer?

A. Cyanocobalamin (B12)
B. Folic acid
C. Iron
D. Vitamin C
E. Vitamin D
A

C. Iron

33
Q

Which of the following statements of Acyclovir is accurate ?

A. is a neurotoxic drug
B. is active against all viruses within the herpes family
C. inhibits RNA gyrase
D. is activated by thymidine kinase of the host cells
E. is more effective against herpes simplex keratitisif given orally than topically

A

A. is a neurotoxic drug

34
Q

A patient with leukemia has a chest CT finding that suggests aspergillosis. Which of the following antimicrobial binds sterols and alters membrane permeability, and would most likely be used in this patient’s treatment?

A. Amdinocillin
B. Amphotericin
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Penicillin
E. Trimethoprim
A

B. Amphotericin

35
Q

Which of the following agents is thought to act by increasing membrane permeability to calcium in trematode and cestode muscles?

A. Atovaquone
B. Praziquantel
C. Pyrantel pamoate
D. Sulfadoxine
E. Metronidazole
A

B. Praziquantel

36
Q

Which of the following drugs enhances GABA actions on the NMJ of nematodes and arthropodes?

A. Glutamic acid
B. Ivermectin
C. Pyrantel pamoate
D. Pyrimethamine
E. All of the above
A

B. Ivermectin

37
Q

Which of the following drugs can clear trypanosomes from the blood and lymph nodes and is active in the late CNS stages of African Sleeping sickness?

A. Emetine
B. Melarsoprol
C. Nifurtimox
D. Pentamidine
E. Ivermectin
A

B. Melarsoprol

38
Q

A 2-month-old infant was admitted to the medical center for treatment of bronchiolitis. A virus was isolated and identified by the clinical laboratory. Ribavirin treatment was started immediately and is a purine nucleoside analog with a relatively broad antiviral spectrum in cell culture, possibly using several different mechanisms. Original FDA approval for ribavirin use was against which virus listed below?

A. Group A coxsackievirus
B. Hepatitis B virus
C. Herpes simplex virus
D. Parvovirus
E. Respiratory syncytial virus
A

E. Respiratory syncytial virus

39
Q

A 19-year-old man complains of a severe pain in his right eye accompanied by a watery discharge. The eyelid shows swelling and vesicles, and the conjunctiva is red. Fluorescein staining of the cornea shows a typical picture of dendritic keratitis. Which of the following drugs is used topically for the treatment of herpes simplex virus keratitis?

A.Acyclovir
B.Bacitracin
C.Chloramphenicol
D.Natamycin
E.Trifluridine
A

E.Trifluridine

40
Q

Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause additive anemia and neutropenia if administered to an AIDS patient taking Zidovudine?

A. Acyclovir
B. Amantadine
C. Gancyclovir
D. Pentamidine
E. Stavudine
A

C. Gancyclovir

41
Q

Interactions between this drug and cell membrane components can result in the formation of pores lined by hydrophilic groups present in the drug molecule.

(A) Flucytosine
(B) Fluconazole
(C) Griseofulvin
(D) Nystatin
(E) Terbinafìne
A

(D) Nystatin

42
Q

A 20-year-old woman with leukemia was undergoing chemotherapy with intravenous antineoplastic drugs. During treatment she developed a systemic infection from an opportunistic pathogen. There was no erythema or edema at the cαtheter insertion site. A white vaginal discharge was observed. After appropriate specimens were obtained for culture empiric antibiotic therapy was started with gentamicin, nafcillin, and ticarcillin intravenously. This regimen was maintained for 72 h, during which time the patient’s condition did not improve significantly. Her throat was sore, and white plaques had appeared in her pharynx. On day 4, none of the cultures had shown any bacterial growth, but both the blood and urine cultures grew our Candida albicans. At this point, the best course of action is to

(A) Continue current antibiotics and start amphotericin B
(B) Continue current antibiotics and start flucytosine
(C) Continue current antibiotics and start griseofulvin
(D) Stop current antibiotics and start amphotericin B
(E) Stop current antibiotics and start ketoconazole

A

(D) Stop current antibiotics and start amphotericin B

43
Q

A 20-year-old woman with leukemia was undergoing chemotherapy with intravenous antineoplastic drugs. During treatment she developed a systemic infection from an opportunistic pathogen. There was no erythema or edema at the cαtheter insertion site. A white vaginal discharge was observed. After appropriate specimens were obtained for culture empiric antibiotic therapy was started with gentamicin, nafcillin, and ticarcillin intravenously. This regimen was maintained for 72 h, during which time the patient’s condition did not improve significantly. Her throat was sore, and white plaques had appeared in her pharynx. On day 4, none of the cultures had shown any bacterial growth, but both the blood and urine cultures grew our Candida albicans. If amphotericin B is administered, The dose-limiting toxicity of amphotericin B is

(A) Hepatitis
(B) Hypotension
(C) Infusion-related adverse effects
(D) Myelosuppression
(E) Renal tubular acidosis
A

(E) Renal tubular acidosis

44
Q

A 20-year-old woman with leukemia was undergoing chemotherapy with intravenous antineoplastic drugs. During treatment she developed a systemic infection from an opportunistic pathogen. There was no erythema or edema at the cαtheter insertion site. A white vaginal discharge was observed. After appropriate specimens were obtained for culture empiric antibiotic therapy was started with gentamicin, nafcillin, and ticarcillin intravenously. This regimen was maintained for 72 h, during which time the patient’s condition did not improve significantly. Her throat was sore, and white plaques had appeared in her pharynx. On day 4, none of the cultures had shown any bacterial growth, but both the blood and urine cultures grew our Candida albicans. If amphotericin B is administered, the patient should be premedicated with

(A) Diphenhydramine
(B) Ibuprofen
(C) Prednisone
(D) Any of the above
(E) None of the above
A

(D) Any of the above

45
Q

Which statement about flucytosine is accurate?

(A) It is bioactivated by fungal cytosine deaminase
(B) It does not cross the blood-brain barrier
(C) It inhibits cytochrome P450
(D) It is useful in esophageal candidiasis
(E) It has a wide spectrum of antifungal activity

A

(A) It is bioactivated by fungal cytosine deaminase

46
Q

A 29-year-old man with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection complains of severe headaches over the past several days. There is no evidence of focal neurologic deficits, and blood tests and chest radiographs are unremarkable. A cerebrospinal fluid sample shows a cryptococcal antigen titer of 1:28. The treatment for this patient’s infection leads to the accumulation of 14-α-methylsterols in cryptococcal cell membranes. Which drug was used to treat this patient?

A. Amphotericin B
B. Nystatin
C. Fluconazole
D. Flucytosine
E. Terbinafine
A

C. Fluconazole

47
Q

A patient with AlDS has a CD4 count of 45/μL. He is being maintained on a 3-drug regimen of indinavir, didanosine, and zidovudine. For prophylaxis against opportunistic infections, he is also receiving fluconazole, rifabutin, trimethoprim+sulfamethoxazole, and valganciclovir. The dose of indinavir in this patient may need to be increased above normal. This is because

A. Fluconazole slows gastric emptying
B. Indinavir has to be taken with meals
C. Rifabutin increases liver drug-metabolizing enzymes
D. Sulfamethoxazole displaces indinavir from plasma proteins
E. Valganciclovir increases the renal clearance of indinavir

A

C. Rifabutin increases liver drug-metabolizing enzymes

48
Q

A malnourished 12-year-old child who lives in a rural area of the southern United States presents with weakness, fever, cough, abdominal pain, and eosinophilia. His mother tells you that she has seen long, thin worms in the child’s stools, sometimes with blood. A presumptive diagnosis of ascariasis is confìrmed by the presence of the ova of Ascaris lumbricoids in the stools. However, microscopy also reveals that the stools contain the eggs of Necator americanus. The drug most likely to be effective in the treatment of this child is

A. Albendazole
B. Diethylcarbamazine
C. Ivermectin
D. Niclosamide
E. Praziquantel
A

A. Albendazole

49
Q

A 30-yr-old male patient who is HIV-positive and symptomatic has a CD4 Count of 250/μL and a viral RNA load of 15,000 copies/mL. His treatment involves a 3-drug antiviral regimen consisting of zidovudine, didanosine, and ritonavir. In addi tion, the patient is taking oral acyclovir for a herpes infection and ketoconazole for oral candidiasis. Because of weight loss, he is taking dronabinol, and verapamil has been prescribed because he suffers from angina. He now complains of anorexia, nausea and vomiting and abdominal pain. His abdomen is tender in the epigastric area. Laboratory results reveal an amylase activity of220 units/L, and a preliminary diagnosis is made of acute pancreatitis. If this patient has acute pancreatitis, the drug most likely to be responsible is

A. Acyclovir
B. Didanosine
C. Keroconazole
D. Verapamil
E. Zidovudine
A

B. Didanosine

50
Q

This drug can clear trypanosomes from the blood and lymph nodes and is active in Chagas disease

A. Emetine
B. Melarsoprol
C. Nifurtimox
D. Pentamidine
E. Suramin
A

C. Nifurtimox

51
Q

After a backpacking trip in the mountains, a 24-year-old man develops diarrhea. He acknowledges drinking stream water without purification, and you suspect he is showing symptoms of Giardiasis. Because you know that laboratory detection of cysts or trophozoites in the feces can be difficult, you decide to treat the patient empirically with

(A) Chloroquine
(B) Emetine
(C) Pentamidine
(D) Metronidazole
(E) TMP-SMZ
A

(D) Metronidazole

52
Q

A 27-year-old woman has just returned from a trip to Southeast Asia. Over the past 24 h she has developed shaking, chills, and a temperature of 104°F. A blood smear reveals Plasmodium vivax. Which of the following agents should be used to eradicate the exoerythrocytic phase of the organism?

A. Quinine
B. Chloroquine
C. Primaquine
D. Pyrimethamine
E. sulfadiazine
A

C. Primaquine

53
Q

In an accidental needle stick, an unknown quantity of blood from an AlDS patient is injected into a nurse. The most recent laboratory report on the AlDS patient shows a CD4 count of 20/μL and a viral RNA load of greater than 107copies/m. The most appropriate course of action regarding treatment of the nurse is to

A. Administer single doses of ritonavir and zidovudine
B. Administer full doses of zidovudine for 2 wk
C. Monitor the nurse’s blood to determine whether HIV transmission has occurred
D. Treat with full doses of zidovudine for 4 wk
E. Treat with zidovudine plus lamivudine plus a protease inhibitor for 4 wk

A

E. Treat with zidovudine plus lamivudine plus a protease inhibitor for 4 wk

54
Q

A 39-year old man volunteering his assistance in a refugee camp in central Africa was injured in an auto accident and received several units of blood as part of his medical treatment. Six months later, he experienced fatigue, nausea, and night sweats. Plasma HIV RNA tests were positive and appropriate anti-HIV treatment was started. Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme found in retroviruses and hepadnaviruses. Which of the following is a function of the enzyme reverse transcriptase?

A.DNAse activity
B.DNA-dependent RNA polymerase activity
C.RNA-dependent DNA polymerase activity
D.RNA-dependent RNA polymerase activity
E.RNA isomerase activity
A

C. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase activity

55
Q

A 35 year old HIV positive male patient comes to the OPD with complaint of anorexia, nausea and vomiting and abdominal pain. His abdomen is tender in the epigastric area. Laboratory results reveal a raised serum amylase activity and a preliminary diagnosis is made of acute pancreatitis. Which of the following anti-retroviral drugs has the patient most likely been taking?

A.Saquinavir
B. Zidovudine
C. Didanosine
D. Efavirenz
E. Enfuvirtide
A

C. Didanosine

56
Q

A 40 year old HIV positive patient is receiving a drug for AIDS. Which one of the following drugs acts by inhibiting the integrase?

A. Zidovudine
B. Indinavir
C. Efavirenz
D. Nevirapine
E. Raltigravir
A

E. Raltigravir

57
Q

A 35 year old woman is diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B infection and therapy is initiated. Just after a few hours she comes to the emergency department complaining of fever, chills and muscle aches. Which one of the following drugs most likely caused these symptoms?

A. Lamivudine
B. Adefovir
C. Entecavir
D. Interferon alfa
E. Ribavirin
A

D. Interferon alfa

58
Q

A 60 year old man with known history of Parkinson’s disease is to receive prophylaxis against Influenza A virus. He is given a drug that is useful against Parkinson’s disease as well for prophylaxis against influenza. The drug with which of the following mechanisms of action is most likely to have been given?

A. It inhibits reverse transcriptase enzyme
B. It prevents uncoating of the virus
C. It prevents replication of the virus
D. It prevents assembly of newly synthesized virus particles
E. It prevents release of the newly synthesized virus

A

B. It prevents uncoating of the virus

59
Q

A patient with watery stools is diagnosed as suffering from amebic dysentery. He is given a drug that causes a metallic taste in the mouth. Which drug may be given?

A. Iodoquinol
B. Diloxanide furate
C. Metronidazole
D. Pentamidine
E. Emetine.
A

C. Metronidazole

60
Q

Which of the following drugs alters permeability of Candida cell membranes?

A. Griseoulvin
B. Ketoconazole
C. Foscarnet
D. Nystatin
E. Terbinafine
A

D. Nystatin

61
Q

Amphotericin B has which of the following unwanted effects?

A. Psychosis
B. Renal impairment, anemia
C. Hypertension, cardiac arrhythmia
D. Bone marrow toxicity
E. All of the above
A

B. Renal impairment, anemia

62
Q

Which of the following is the Niclosamide mechanism of action?

A. Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and death of helminthes
B. Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes
C. Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose uptake
D. Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes

A

D. Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes

63
Q

Which of the following is the Praziquantel mechanism of action?

A. Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes
B. Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose uptake
C. Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and death of helminthes
D. Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes

A

C. Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and death of helminthes

64
Q

Which of the following is the Pyrantal pamoate mechanism of action?

A. Potentiating GABA
B. Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose uptake
C. Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and death of helminthes
D. Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes
E. It acts as a depolarizing neuromuscular agent by persistent activation of nicotinic receptors and paralyzing the worm

A

E. It acts as a depolarizing neuromuscular agent by persistent activation of nicotinic receptors and paralyzing the worm

65
Q

Which of the following is the Sodium Stibogluconate mechanism of action?

A. Potentiating GABA
B. Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose uptake
C. Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and death of helminthes
D. It acts by inhibiting the bioenergetics of parasite and block glycolytic and fatty acid oxidation
E. It acts as a depolarizing neuromuscular agent by persistent activation of nicotinic receptors and paralyzing the worm

A

D. It acts by inhibiting the bioenergetics of parasite and block glycolytic and fatty acid oxidation

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