Antibiotics Flashcards

(110 cards)

1
Q

Which type of bacteria have a thick cell wall?

A

Gram positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What separates the outer membrane from the cell wall of gram negative bacteria?

A

Periplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do bactericidal agents achieve sterilisation?

A

By directly killing bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do bacteriostatic act?

A

Suppress growth but do not directly sterilise the infected site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the issue with the lysis of bacteria by bactericidal agents?

A

This can lead to the release of toxins and inflammatory material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is meant by the ‘spectrum’ of an antibiotic?

A

This refers to the range of bacterial species which are effectively treated by the antibiotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

All antibiotics within an antibiotic class will have a similar spectrum. T/F?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the difference between broad and narrow spectrum antibiotics?

A

Broad spectrum antibiotics are active against a wide range of bacteria
Narrow spectrum antibiotics are active against a limited range of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the guided therapy strategy for the use of antibiotics?

A

This depends on identifying the cause of infection, an agent is then selected for use based on sensitivity testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What spectrum of antibiotics are used for guided therapy?

A

Narrow spectrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In guided therapy there is as little impact on colonisation and resistance as possible. What is the pay off for this?

A

The antibiotic often has limited action on the bacteria causing the infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In empirical therapy there is extensive action against the bacteria which might be causing the infection. What is the pay off for this?

A

There is a large impact on colonisation and resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What spectrum of antibiotics are used for empirical therapy?

A

Broad spectrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the empirical therapy strategy for the use of antibiotics?

A

Used when the initiation of therapy cannot wait for culture results. A best guess therapy is used based on clinical and epidemiological acumen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is prophylactic therapy?

A

Used to prevent infection before it begins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the result of overgrowth of yeasts which can occur with the use of antibiotics?

A

Thrush

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the result of overgrowth of the bowel which can occur with the use of antibiotics?

A

Diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which antibiotics are particularly associated with the development of c.difficile?

A

Clindamycin
Co-amoxiclav
Cephalosporins
Ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

C.difficile forms spores which can be difficult to eradicate from hospitals. T/F?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

C.difficile can be difficult to treat as it has developed resistance to common antibiotic classes. T/F?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How is an uncomplicated UTI defined?

A

A common condition where there are lower urinary tract symptoms without sepsis of evidence of upper tract involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In uncomplicated UTI, you need to use an antibiotic with systemic activity. T/F?

A

False - the antibiotic only needs to sterilise the urine so there is no need for systemic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the first line agent used to treat uncomplicated UTI?

A

Trimethoprim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why is trimethoprim a good choice of antibiotic for uncomplicated UTI in men?

A

It penetrates well into the prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Nitrofuratoin is an excellent broad spectrum antibiotic which is concentrated in the urine so has no effect on other tissues. In what cases should it not be used?
In renal failure nitrofurantoin will fail to concentrate in the urine so should not be used in this case
26
Nitrofuratoin is relatively non-toxic in short courses. What can be caused with long term use?
Pulmonary fibrosis
27
What bacteria commonly cause uncomplicated UTIs?
``` E.coli Other coliforms Pseudeomonas Staphylococcus Enterococcus ```
28
If there is a complicated UTI what is the best choice of antibiotic?
Ciprofloxacin
29
If a patient is severely unwell with a UTI then what antibiotics should be used?
Amoxicillin | Gentamicin
30
Beta lactase are safe for use in pregnancy. However, what is the risk of the use of broad spectrum beta-lactam agents in pregnancy?
These are associated with necrotising enterocolitis in premature infants
31
Why should tetracyclines should not be used in pregnancy?
These can cause bone and tooth abnormalities
32
Why should trimethoprim not be used in pregnancy?
Can cause neural tube defects in the first trimester
33
Why should nitrofurantoin not be used in pregnancy?
Can cause haemolytic anaemia in the third trimester of pregnancy
34
Why should aminoglycosides not be used in pregnancy?
Can cause ototoxicity in the second and third trimesters
35
Why should quinolones not be used in pregnancy?
Can cause bone and joint abnormalities
36
What are the four subclassifications of beta lactase antibiotics?
Penicillins Cephalosporins Carbapenems monobactans
37
What is the brand name for the combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid?
Augmentin
38
What is the brand name for the combination of piperacillin and tazobactam
Tazocin
39
What is the mechanism of action of beta lactam antibiotics?
Inhibit the cross linking of cell wall peptidoglycan to cause lysis of the bacteria
40
Beta lactams are bacteriostatic antibiotics. T/F?
False - these are bactericidal
41
What kind of organisms typically secrete beta lactamases?
Gram negative organisms | S.aureus
42
Total antibiotic failure is likely with beta lactamases. T/F?
True
43
By which route are beta lactams usually given?
IV
44
When beta lactam antibiotics are given orally, what usually limits the dose?
Vomiting
45
What are the possible adverse effects of beta lactams?
``` Nausea and vomiting Diarrhoea Cholestasis Type 1 hypersensitivity Type 4 hypersensitivity Interstitial nephritis Candidiasis (oral or vulvovaginal) C.difficile infection Selection of resistance bacteria Seizure Haemolysis Leukopaenia ```
46
What is the most common presentation of type one hypersensitivity in patients on beta lactams?
Urticarial rash
47
Patients who are allergic to a penicillin will usually be allergic to other penicillins. T/F?
True
48
What organisms is Benzylpenicillin effective against?
Streptococcus Clostridium Neisseria
49
What organisms is amoxicillin effective against?
``` Streptococcus Enterococcus Neisseria Haemophilus Clostridium ```
50
What organisms is flucloxacillin effective against?
Streptococcus | Staphylococcus (not MRSA)
51
How is Benzylpenicillin administered?
IV
52
Flucloxacillin can be given orally. T/F?
True
53
What organisms are cephalosporins effective against?
``` Streptococcus Staphylococcus (not MRSA) E.coli Neisseria Haemophilus Bacterioles Clostridium Other coliform ```
54
How does the spectrum of cephalosporins change with each generation?
With each generation of cephalosporins the gram negative spectrum increases with some loss of gram positive activity
55
Give an example of a cephalosporin antibiotic?
Ceftriaxone
56
What organisms are carbapenems active against?
Ultra-broad spectrum antibiotics active against most bacteria expect MRSA
57
Carbapenems are resistant to beta lactamases. T/F?
True
58
Give an example of carbapenem.
Meropenem
59
What is the only monobactam currently in use?
Aztreonam
60
Aztreonams can be given to those with a penicillin allergy. T/F?
True
61
How is aztreonam administered?
IV
62
What class of bacteria is vancomycin active against?
Gram positive organisms
63
How is vancomycin administered?
IV
64
Why is vancomycin effective against resistant organisms such as MRSA?
It is not dependent on penicillin binding proteins
65
A loading dose of vancomycin is usually given. T/F?
True
66
Drug monitoring is required for vancomycin. T/F?
True - it has a narrow TI
67
What are the possible toxicities of vancomycin?
Nephrotoxicity | Ototoxicity
68
What happens when vancomycin is injected too rapidly?
red man syndrome - anaphylactoid reaction
69
What classes of protein synthesis inhibitors target the 50S ribosomes?
Macrolides Clindamycin Chloramphenicol
70
What classes of protein synthesis inhibitors target the 30S ribosomes?
Aminoglycosides | Tetracyclines
71
What 'atypical' organisms is clarithromycin effective against?
``` Legionella Mycoplasma Coxiella Chlamydia Chlamydophila ```
72
What is the spectrum of action of calrithromycin?
Active against gram positive and respiratory gram negative bacteria as well as 'atypical' bacteria
73
Macrolides can be given orally even in severe infection T/F?
True
74
Give examples of macrolides?
Erythromycin Clarithromycin Azithromycin
75
What are the possible adverse effects of macrolides?
``` Diarrhoea and vomiting QT prolongation Hearing loss (in long term use) ```
76
Give examples of drugs which macrolides interact with?
Statins | Warfarin
77
Resistance to macrolides is common among 'atypical' pathogens' but uncommon among 'typical' pathogens. T/F?
False - the opposite is true
78
Clindamycin is given IV. T/F?
False - its has excellent oral absorption
79
What organisms is clindamycin effective against?
Bacterioles Clostridium Staphylococcus Streptococcus
80
Why is clindamycin notorious for causing c.difficile?
Its effective on anaerobes means that is is particularly effective at disrupting colonic flora
81
Clindamycin is highly effective at stopping exotoxin production. As such, what conditions is it used to treat?
Toxic shock syndrome Necrotising fascitis Other gram positive toxin mediated disease
82
What are the possible toxic effects of chloramphenicol?
Bone marrow suppression Aplastic anemia Optic neuritis
83
In what situations is chloramphenicol used?
Topical therapy to the eye | Bacterial meningitis with beta lactam allergy
84
What are the possible toxic effects of amnioglycosides?
Hearing loss, loss of balance and oscillopsia Neuromuscular blockade in patients with myasthenia gravis Nephrotoxicity
85
For how long is it appropriate to give a course of gentamicin?
3 days
86
Describe the rationale behind the dosing regimen for gentamicin?
A high initial dose is given to take advantage of the rapid killing seen at high doses A long dosing interval of 24-48 hours is left in order to minimise toxicity In this time there is a prolonged post-antibiotic bacteriostatic effect
87
What organisms are tetracyclines effective against?
``` Streptococcus Staphylococcus Neisseria Haemophilus Enterococcus Mycoplasma Coxiella Chlamydia Chlamydophila Rickettsia ```
88
Give examples of quinolones
Ciprofloxacin | Levofloxacin
89
Quinolones are always given by IV. T/F?
False - oral dosing can be used even in severe infection
90
What organisms is levofloxacin affective against?
Streptococcus Staphylococcus Also some activity against gram negative
91
What organisms is ciprofloxacin affective against?
Gram negative bacteria | Some action against streptococcus and staphylococcus
92
What type of infections is ciprofloxacin used to treat?
UTI | Abdominal infections
93
What type of infections is levofloxacin used to treat?
Respiratory tract infections
94
What are the possible toxicities associated with quinolones?
GI toxicity QT prolongation Tendonitis C.difficile infection
95
In what situations is rifampicin used?
Tuberculosis | Serious gram positive (especially S.aureus) infection
96
Why are drug interactions very important to consider when prescribing rifampicin?
Rifampicin is a potent CYP450 enzyme inducer
97
What four antibiotics are used in standard short course therapy against TB?
Isoniazid Rifampicin Pyrazamide Ethambutol
98
What is the mechanism of action fo quinolones and rifampicin?
DNA and RNA biosynthesis inhibitors
99
Trimethoprim causes an elevation inc creatine which doe not reflect a fall in GFR. T/F?
True
100
What are some of the problems associated with the use of trimethoprim?
Causes an elevation in serum potassium (problematic in patients with chronic renal impairment) Rash GO disturbance
101
Co-trimoxazole (a combination of trimethoprim and sulphamethoxazole) is commonly used. T/F?
False. - it is only used in specialist care due to its significant additional toxicity
102
What type of bacteria is emtronidazole effective against?
Most anaerobic bacteria
103
What type of infection is metronidazole used to treat?
Intra-adominal infections
104
Metronidazole causes an unpleasant reaction with alcohol. T/F?
True
105
Why folate synthesis inhibitor can cause peripheral neuropathy?
Metronidazole
106
Which antibiotic is used to treat mild c.difficile infection?
Oral metronidazole
107
Which antibiotic is used to treat severe c.difficile infection?
Oral vancomycin
108
What is sepsis six?
A range of medical therapies used in the investigation/treatment of possible sepsis. This includes: Titrate oxygen to sats >94% Administer IV empiric antibiotics Start IV fluid resuscitation Take blood cultures to investigate source of infection Measure serial serum lactases Urine output measurement
109
Lactate dehydrogenase is used as a generally marker of injury to cells. T/F?
True
110
What is the benefit of lactase blood tests?
Helps to assess levels of hypoxia and lactic acidosis