antimicrobial drugs Flashcards

(37 cards)

1
Q

What is the mechanism of action of rifampin?

A

Binds to the β-subunit of bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase → inhibits RNA synthesis.

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2
Q

What mutation causes resistance to rifampin?

A

Point mutations in the rpoB gene (coding for the β-subunit of RNA polymerase).

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3
Q

What are the adverse effects of rifampin?

A

Red-orange body fluids, renal effects, rashes, hepatotoxicity. CYP inducer. Safe in pregnancy.

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4
Q

What is the mechanism of action of isoniazid?

A

Inhibits synthesis of mycolic acids, disrupting the mycobacterial cell wall.

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5
Q

What causes high-level resistance to isoniazid?

A

Deletion of KatG gene.

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6
Q

What causes low-level resistance to isoniazid?

A

Overexpression of inhA and KasA.

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7
Q

What are the adverse effects of isoniazid?

A

Neurotoxicity (prevented by pyridoxine), hemolysis, lupus-like syndrome, hepatotoxicity. CYP inhibitor. Safe in pregnancy.

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8
Q

What is the role of pyridoxine in TB treatment?

A

Prevents isoniazid-induced neurotoxicity.

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9
Q

What activates pyrazinamide?

A

Hydrolyzed by pyrazinamidase (pncA gene) to active pyrazinoic acid.

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10
Q

What causes resistance to pyrazinamide?

A

Impaired uptake or mutations in the pncA gene.

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11
Q

What are the adverse effects of pyrazinamide?

A

Hyperuricemia, non-gouty polyarthralgia, hepatotoxicity, myalgia, porphyria, photosensitivity.

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12
Q

What is the mechanism of action of ethambutol?

A

Inhibits arabinosyltransferases (emb gene), reducing arabinogalactan polymerization in the cell wall.

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13
Q

What causes resistance to ethambutol?

A

Mutations or overexpression in the emb gene.

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14
Q

What are the adverse effects of ethambutol?

A

Visual disturbances (e.g., red-green color blindness, optic neuritis). Not used in very young children.

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15
Q

What is Direct Observation Therapy (DOT)?

A

A strategy to ensure adherence by observing patients take their TB medication, improving outcomes and reducing resistance.

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16
Q

What are first-line drugs for tuberculosis?

A

Rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol.

17
Q

What are second-line drugs for tuberculosis?

A

Streptomycin, amikacin, ethionamide, levofloxacin.

18
Q

What is the MOA of streptomycin and amikacin?

A

Aminoglycosides that inhibit protein synthesis by binding the 30S ribosomal subunit.

19
Q

What are the adverse effects of streptomycin and amikacin?

A

Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity. Not safe in pregnancy.

20
Q

What is the MOA of ethionamide?

A

Blocks mycolic acid synthesis (like isoniazid). Causes GI upset and neurotoxicity.

21
Q

What is the MOA of levofloxacin?

A

Fluoroquinolone that inhibits DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II), interfering with DNA replication.

22
Q

What are levofloxacin’s adverse effects?

A

Tendinopathy. Not safe in pregnancy.

23
Q

What is the advantage of rifabutin over rifampin?

A

Rifabutin has fewer drug interactions due to weaker CYP induction.

24
Q

What drugs are used to treat leprosy?

A

Dapsone, rifampin, clofazimine.

25
What is the MOA of dapsone?
Inhibits folate synthesis by targeting dihydropteroate synthetase.
26
What are adverse effects of dapsone?
Hemolysis in G6PD deficiency, methemoglobinemia, erythema nodosum leprosum.
27
What is the MOA of clofazimine?
Binds to bacterial DNA, inhibiting replication.
28
What are clofazimine's adverse effects?
Skin and conjunctival discoloration. Does not cause erythema nodosum leprosum.
29
What drugs are used to reverse erythema nodosum leprosum?
Corticosteroids and thalidomide.
30
What is the WHO regimen for leprosy?
Multidrug therapy with rifampin, dapsone, and clofazimine.
31
What are atypical mycobacteria?
Environmental organisms like M. avium and M. kansasii that are not communicable person-to-person.
32
How are atypical mycobacterial infections treated?
With combination drug therapy due to frequent resistance.
33
What is the goal of TB chemotherapy?
Eradicate bacilli, prevent transmission, prevent resistance, and eliminate persistent bacilli to prevent relapse.
34
When is latent TB treated?
If the patient is recently infected or immunocompromised.
35
What is commonly used to treat latent TB?
Isoniazid (monotherapy) or combination with rifapentine.
36
Who is at high risk for developing active TB?
Recently infected individuals, HIV patients, immunosuppressed, young children, and people in congregate settings.
37
What are key risk factors for TB reactivation?
HIV, diabetes, silicosis, low body weight, organ transplants, and immunosuppressive therapy.