Antineoplastic drugs Flashcards

(48 cards)

1
Q

Alkylating Agents to know

A

Cy-clo-phos-pha-mide
if-os-fa-mide
pro-carb-az-ine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

antimetabolites are what specific or non specific

A

S phase specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Alkylating agents are specific or non specific

A

non specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the three antimetabolites to know

A

Folic acid antagonists
purine antagonists
pyrimidine antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is an example of a folic acid antagonist and what is its MOA

A

Meth-o-trex-ate, it ihibits DNA synthesis,

It blocks dyhydrofolate reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Purine antagonist MOA

A

inhibit enzymes that converts hypoxanthine ribonucleotide to, adenine and zanthine ribonucleotide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is an example of a purine antagonist and what is its MOA

A

Mercaptopurine (purinethol) Inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis cell specific to Sphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pyrimidine antagonists MOA is

A

inhibits pyrimidine synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pyrmidne antagonist include what 2 drugs and what do they specifically do

A

flurouricil-5-Fu, interferes with DNA synthesis or become incorporated into RNA
Cytarabine Ara-C (blood cancers) inhibits dNA and repair BOTH ARE cell S phase specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

flurouricil-5-Fu

A

interferes with DNA synthesis or become incorporated into RNA S phase specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cytarabine Ara-C

A

(blood cancers) inhibits dNA synthesis and repair S phase specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are platinum complexes

A

platinum surrounded by Cl that inhibit DNA synthesis and repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Carboplatin is a platinum complex what types of cancer usually require this drug

A

small cell lung cancer, ovarian cancer, head and neck cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cisplatin is a platinum complex what type of cancer usually require this durg

A

bladder, testicular, ovarian head and neck cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

oxaliplatin

A

used for colon and rectal cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are a few locations that platinum complex drugs are a good choice for cancer treatment

A

Gyenlicologic, bladder testicular lung CNS head and neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What toxicities are involved with platinum complexes

A
Myelosuppression
Nephrotoxicity
Neurotoxicity
Ototoxicity
Nausea/vomiting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Vinka alkyloids is a drug that targets what and is a good drug against what

A

Targets the M and S phase, cell cycle specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Vinblasitine and Vincristine are both what type of drug and what cancer do they affect the most

A

Vinka alkyloids, Hodgkins lymphoma

high incidences of side effects, may cause high incidences of nuerotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What drug has a side effect that can effect a persons hearing

A

Vinka drugs such as Vinblastine and Vincristine

21
Q

vinka alkaloids come from what plant and what type of cancers do vinka alkaloids work well for

A

the periwinkle plant

leukemias, lymphomas, testicular caner, breast cancer, kaposi sarcoma

22
Q

Hormone agents MOA is

A

hormones interupt the G phase in the cell cycle, and also reduce the amount of circulating hormones

23
Q
Estrogens = prostate and mammary CA
ethinyl estradiol (Estinyl, Feminone)
A
prostate and mammary CA
ethinyl estradiol (Estinyl, Feminone)
24
Q

Androgens = mammary CA in premenopausal women

A
testosterone proprionate (Testrx)
fluoxymesterone (Halotestin
25
Prpgestins are in what type of cancer and wha are two examples
renal and endometrial CA medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera) megestrol (Megace)
26
Glucocorticoids are hormones that
hematologic; lymphomas; bone metastases; immunosuppression for organ transplantation
27
What are some Glucocorticoid drugs
prednisone (Prednisone Intensol, Sterapred)
28
what are some glucocorticoid drugs such as prenisone MOA
Antitumor effects may be related to inhibition of glucose transport, phosphorylation, or induction of cell death in immature lymphocytes
29
tamoxifen (Nolvadex) = antiestrogen; breast CA treatment and prevention
Competitively binds to estrogen receptors on tumors and other target tissues Decreases DNA synthesis and inhibits estrogen effects G0 and G1 phases
30
tamoxifen is what rather than what
Cytostatic cytocidal
31
what drugs has many adverse effects: uterine cancer, stroke, pulmonary emboli, liver problems, osteoporosis
tamoxifen
32
Antibiotics are most effective against solid mass tumors because their MOA is
Cytotoxins bind with DNA to inhibit cell division | Attack cells in different phases 1st non-cell cycle specific 2nd cell cycle specific
33
3 major antibiodics to be aware of for cancer are
``` bleomycin (Blenoxane) doxorubicin (Adriamycin) daunorubicin citrate (DaunoXome) = HIV-associated Kaposi’s sarcoma ```
34
bleomycin is
cell cycle specific (G2, M) | squamous cell CA, testicular tumor, lymphomas
35
What drug is known to cause Increased risk for pneumonia, why
Bleomycin, pulmonary fibrosis = limit amounts of prolonged oxygen (leads to fibrosis, necrosis of lung)
36
doxorubicin main function is
Inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis; cell cycle specific (S phase) | Kaposi’s sarcoma, advanced breast and ovarian CA
37
Daunorubicin citrate is given for patients with
HIV-associated Kaposi’s sarcoma
38
what other antibiotics Inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis
dactinomycin (Cosmegen) – mitoxantrone (Novantrone) = mitomycin (Mutamycin) –
39
dectinomycin a antibiotic inhibiting dna and RNA synthesis also
``` binds with DNA and blocks RNA production Pediatric tumors, testicular tumors Oral mucosal lesions, diarrhea daunorubicin hydrochloride (Cerubidine) Acute lymphocytic leukemia Causes red color to urine ```
40
Mitozantrone
effects the entire cell cytle
41
mitomycin
alkylating antibiotic; cell-cycle nonspecific, although most effective in late G and S phases
42
thalidomide (Thalomid) MOA is
Angiogenesis inhibitor, immunosuppressant, TNF blocking agent Multiple mechanisms of action Drug from the 1950’s for morning sickness, sedation = all first generation offspring had major limb defects Classic model drug for teratogenesis
43
thalidomide is used in cases of
Indications: leprosy; investigational for: multiple myeloma, Crohn’s disease, graft versus host disease, AIDS-related aphthous lesions, others (autoimmune diseases)
44
what problems came with taking the thalidomide for a morning sickness pill
Drug from the 1950’s for morning sickness, sedation = all first generation offspring had major limb defects Classic model drug for teratogenesis
45
What are 8 major systems effected by chemotheropy
``` Suppression of bone marrow (blood dyscrasias) GI disturbances Dermatological reactions Hepatotoxicity Neurotoxicity nephrotoxicity immune deficiencies infertility infertility ```
46
What enzyme is usually inhibited by chemotheoropy due to hepatotoxicity
p450
47
Oral complications
pose great discomfort to the patient Interfere with eating, drinking, swallowing, talking, sleeping Many conditions are painful Concern is that complications pose secondary infection risk and/or may dictate the need to temporarily discontinue treatment May alter success of therapy
48
fixing oral complications
``` Good plaque control Pain control = topical anesthetics Salivary replacement for xerostomia artificial saliva for lubrication for eating, speaking and swallowing Fluorides due to caries risk Antifungals Antivirals Antimicrobial mouthrinses or dentifrices ```