Antiparasitics Flashcards

(52 cards)

1
Q

3 targets for antiparasitic chemotherapy

A
  1. Enzyme or processes found only in the parasite - few (PFOR; folate synthesis)
  2. Enzymes/processes found in both the host and parasite but indispensable only in the parasite - purine salvage pathway
  3. Common biochemical functions found in both parasite and host, but with different pharmacological properties (DHFR; microtubule disrupters)
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2
Q

waht parasites can metronidazole treat

A

Giardia

Entamoeba

Trichomonas

  • organisms possess PFOR (we don’t have this)
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3
Q

MOA of metronidazole

A

electron “sink”

inactivated under anaerobic conditions by PFOR - reactive intermediates form which bind to and disrupt protein and DNA structure/function

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4
Q

SE of metronidazole

A

GI

HA, dry mouth, metallic taste

Disulfiram-like effect - avoid alcohol consumption**

safe during pregnancy

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5
Q

what is the drug of choice for treating SYMPTOMATIC amebiasis

A

Metronidazole - follow with more potent luminal amebicide (idoquinol or paromycin) to eradicate non-invasive cyst forms

effective in treating invasive intestinal disease as well as extraintestinal amebiasis (liver and brain abscesses)

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6
Q

what is effective at eliminating trophozoite and cyst forms of E. histolytica from the LUMEN of the intestines?

no activity against trophozoidte forms in tissues

A

Idoquinolol

Paromomycin

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7
Q

what drug has been associated with optic atrophy and permanent vision loss in children who were administered high doses

A

idoquinolol

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8
Q

when is idoquinolol or paromomycin used

A

treats ASYMPTOMATIC or mild cases of amebiasis

in severe cases it should be used following metronidazole

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9
Q

MOA of paromomycin

A

aminoglycoside antibiotic

- inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria

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10
Q

idoquinolol and paromoycin

  1. oral or IV?
  2. absorbed well or poorly?
A
  1. oral

2. poorly

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11
Q

Adverse effects of paromycin

A

Abdominal discomfort and diarrhea

less toxic than idoquinolol

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12
Q

Like idoquinolol, ___ is used to treat asymptomatic or mild cases of amebiasis. Severe cases used follow mitronidazole

A

Paromomycin

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13
Q

wha tis used to treat C. parvum (OI)

A

Nitazoxanide

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14
Q

MOA of nitazoxamide

A

interferences with PFOR - disruption of anaerobic metabolism

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15
Q

Nitazoxanide:

1 (oral/IV/parenteral) suspension approved and indicated for tx of 2 and 3 in individuals 4 years of age

A
  1. oral
  2. Crptosporidiosis
  3. Giardiasis
  4. 1+
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16
Q

what folate synthesis inhibitor is used to treat Pneumocystic jirovecii (OI)

A

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

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17
Q

what folate synthesis inhibitior is used to treat toxoplasma gondii?

A

Pyrimethamine-sulfadiazine

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18
Q
  1. MOA of sulfonamides (sulfadiazine, sulfamethoxazole)

2. diaminopyrimidines (pyrimethamine, trimethoprim)

A

folate synthesis inhibitors

  1. PABA anolog; inhibits prodcution by dihydropteroate synthase
  2. inhibitor of DHFR - prevent THF formation = selective toxicity
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19
Q

adverse reactions for sulfonamides

A

rash

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20
Q

treatment of choice for toxoplasmosis

  • does not effect dormant tissue cyst
A

pyrimethamine-sulfadiazine

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21
Q

antimalarial:

  • oral administration
  • T1/2 ~4days
  • higher doses adminstered 4 times over 48 hours for clinical disease
22
Q

SE of chloroquine

A
HA
GI
Blurred vision
Dizzy
Fatigue
Confusion
23
Q

what stage will chloroquines and quinine eliminate

A

asexual erythrocytic stages of all species of plasmodium

24
Q

resistance against chloroquine

A

YES
- limited use

rapid export mechanism

25
which antimalarials has the poorest therapeutic:toxic ratio and is generally not used for chemoprophylaxis due to its toxicity
Quinine
26
SE of quinine
Cinchonism: tinnitus, temporary hearing loss, HA, nausea, vomiting, visual disturbance Hypoglycemia
27
toxicity of mefloquine?
Severe neuropsychiatric reactions in pts receiving TREATMENT
28
what is mefloquine effective against
all species of Plasmodium (no resistance)
29
what antimalarial should people be screened for G6PD? why?
Primaquine RBC lysis in persons with G6PD deficiency
30
Drug of choice for treating dormant liver (hypnozoite) forms of P. vivax and P. ovale or after prophylaxis with chlorquine in individuals who have substantial risk of exposure to these organisms
Primaquine
31
which antimalarial has a longer half life (14 days), better tissue distribution than primaquine, single dose as effective as 2 weeks of primaquine, but same problem with GP6PD?
Tafenoquine
32
Antimalarial - Malarone Combination of atovaquone (lipophilic, activity against all Plasmodium) and _1_ highly efficacious in tx of _2_ as well as prophylaxis no resistance
1. proguanil (inhibit DHFR - not used alone due to resistance) 2. P. flaciparum
33
what protein synthesis inhibitors can also be used for the treatment and prophylaxis of malaria? (effective against all species of plasmodium)
Doxycycline - primarily prophylaxis
34
SE of doxycycline
photosensitivity dermatitis staining of teeth in children ***contraindicated in children and pregnant women
35
In 2009 what drug combination therapy was approved by the FDA for the treatment of P. flaciparum infection
Artemether:lumefantrine
36
what drug can be used for all human malaria parasistes and multi-drug resistant strains of P. flaciparum
Artemisinin derivatives
37
MOA of antihelmintics
inhibit mitosis in parasites (benzimidazole cmpds) cause muscle paralysis of parasite (ivermectin, pyrantel, pamoate, prazinquantel)
38
of the benzimidazoles (albendazole, mebendazole, thiabendazole) whcih is more efficiently absorbed accounting for its greater toxicity
thiabendazole
39
Benzimidazoles: generally adminitered on an _1_ when used to treat luminal nematodes may be administered after a _2_ meal to increase absorption and act on tissue dwelling helminths
1. empty stomach | 2. fatty
40
1. toxicity of thiabendazole? | 2. albendazole and mebendazole?
1. GI and CNS disturbance (delirium, hallucination) | 2. GI
41
when is bezimidazoles contraindicated
pregnancy use in children under 2
42
what infections can albendazole and mebendazole treat
ascariasis pinworm whipworm hookworm single dose is efficient
43
Thiabendazole is the second line drug used in the treatment of _1_ Topical preparation is used in the treatment of _2_ caused by the larval forms of dog and cat hookworms
1. strongyloidiasis (intestinal and tissue infection) | 2. cutaneous larval migrans
44
MOA of ivermectin (antihelmintic)
hyperpolarization in muscle cells - paralysis used for intra and extraintestinal infections
45
what is the drug of choice for treating strongyloidiasis (inestinal and extrainstestinal)
Ivermectin
46
Ivermectin is used in treating ___ dwelling nematodes include what?
1. tissue - O. volvulus (river blindness) - L. Ioa (eye worm) - Filarial worms: W. bancrofti and B. malayi
47
MOA of pyrantel pamoate
activates cholinergic nictonic receptors in the somatic muscles of nematodes - depolarizing neuromuscular blockade
48
what does pyrantel pamoate have selective toxicity for
intestinal nematodes
49
what is the drug of choice for treating pinworms who else needs to be treated if someone has pinworms
Pyrantel pamoate - **treatment of entire household
50
what drug is used to treat tapeworm (cestode) and fluke (trematode) infection
Praziquantel
51
MOA of praziquantel
increase Ca2+ permeability of worms tegument -- depolarization, spastic paralysis and increase immue detection
52
tx of praziquantel in: 1. flukes 2. tapeworms 3. cysticercosis
1. 3 doses in a single day 2. single dose 3. 2 weeks