Antipsych/epileptic/depressant Flashcards

(79 cards)

1
Q

What is the focus of neuropharmacology of antiepileptic drugs?

A

Study of how antiepileptic drugs affect the nervous system and control seizures.

This includes understanding drug mechanisms, interactions, and pharmacokinetics.

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2
Q

What are the first-generation or traditional AEDs?

A

Older antiepileptic drugs that have been in use for many years.

Examples include phenytoin, carbamazepine, and phenobarbital.

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3
Q

What characterizes second- and third-generation AEDs?

A

Newer antiepileptic drugs that often have fewer side effects and better tolerability.

Examples include lamotrigine, levetiracetam, and oxcarbazepine.

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4
Q

What are the goals of pharmacotherapy in epilepsy?

A

Control seizures, minimize side effects, and improve quality of life.

This includes achieving seizure freedom with the least amount of medication.

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5
Q

What factors influence antiepileptic drug choice?

A

Seizure type, patient characteristics, side effect profiles, and drug interactions.

Individualized treatment plans are essential.

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6
Q

What are desirable properties of AEDs?

A

Efficacy, safety, tolerability, and minimal drug interactions.

These properties are crucial for effective management of epilepsy.

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7
Q

What are the targets for controlling seizures?

A

Ion channels, neurotransmitter systems, and neuroinflammatory pathways.

These targets help in designing effective AEDs.

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8
Q

True or False: Antiepileptic drug interactions can affect the efficacy and safety of treatment.

A

True

Drug interactions can lead to increased toxicity or decreased therapeutic effects.

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9
Q

What does displacement from plasma proteins refer to?

A

The process where one drug displaces another from its binding sites on plasma proteins.

This can increase the free concentration of the displaced drug, potentially leading to toxicity.

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10
Q

What is the role of the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme system in drug metabolism?

A

It is involved in the metabolism of many drugs, including AEDs.

This system can be induced or inhibited by various substances.

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11
Q

What are AED inducers?

A

Drugs that increase the metabolism of other drugs, often leading to reduced effectiveness.

Carbamazepine is a common example of an AED inducer.

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12
Q

What is UDP-Glucuronyltransferase (UGT)?

A

An enzyme involved in the metabolism of certain AEDs and other drugs.

Variability in UGT activity can affect drug clearance.

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13
Q

What are AED inhibitors?

A

Drugs that decrease the metabolism of other drugs, potentially increasing their levels in the body.

This can lead to toxicity if not monitored.

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14
Q

Fill in the blank: AEDs that are primarily _______ cleared are eliminated through the kidneys.

A

renally

This includes drugs like gabapentin and pregabalin.

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15
Q

What are pharmacodynamic interactions?

A

Interactions that occur when drugs influence each other’s effects at the site of action.

These can enhance or diminish therapeutic effects.

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16
Q

What are potential target ranges of AED serum concentrations?

A

Ranges that indicate the effectiveness and safety of AEDs in treating epilepsy.

Monitoring serum levels helps in adjusting dosages.

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17
Q

What health considerations are important for people with epilepsy?

A

Bone health, mental health, and medication adherence.

These factors can significantly impact overall well-being.

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18
Q

What is a special consideration for women with epilepsy?

A

The potential impact of AEDs on pregnancy and hormonal changes.

Treatment plans may need adjustments during pregnancy.

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19
Q

What are treatment recommendations for the elderly with epilepsy?

A

Consideration of comorbidities, polypharmacy, and tolerance to medications.

Older adults may respond differently to AEDs.

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20
Q

What is a summary of first-generation AEDs?

A

These drugs include classic medications that have been used for decades.

They often have well-established efficacy but may have more side effects.

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21
Q

What is a summary of second-generation AEDs?

A

These newer medications offer improved safety and fewer interactions compared to first-generation AEDs.

They are often preferred in modern treatment approaches.

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22
Q

What are the objectives of studying psychotic disorders?

A

To understand the nature, treatment, and management of psychotic conditions

This includes identifying symptoms, understanding pathophysiology, and evaluating treatment options.

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23
Q

What role do dopamine receptors play in psychotic disorders?

A

Dopamine receptors are implicated in the pathophysiology of psychotic disorders, particularly schizophrenia

Dysregulation of dopamine signaling is a key factor in the development of psychotic symptoms.

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24
Q

What are positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thinking

These symptoms represent an excess or distortion of normal functions.

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25
What are negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
Affective flattening, avolition, anhedonia, alogia ## Footnote These symptoms reflect a decrease or loss of normal functions.
26
What are the treatment goals for psychotic disorders?
Reduce symptoms, improve functioning, prevent relapse ## Footnote Effective management also includes addressing psychosocial factors.
27
What factors are considered in the selection of an antipsychotic?
Efficacy, side effect profile, patient history, and preferences ## Footnote Individualized treatment is crucial for optimal outcomes.
28
What are the clinical effects of receptor antagonism by antipsychotics?
Reduction of psychotic symptoms, potential for adverse effects ## Footnote Antipsychotics primarily target dopamine receptors but can affect other neurotransmitter systems.
29
What is pharmacokinetics in the context of antipsychotics?
The study of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion ## Footnote Understanding pharmacokinetics helps inform dosing and potential drug interactions.
30
What are common adverse drug reactions associated with antipsychotics?
Sedation, weight gain, metabolic syndrome, extrapyramidal symptoms ## Footnote Monitoring for these reactions is essential for patient safety.
31
What are extrapyramidal adverse effects?
Symptoms such as tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia, tardive dyskinesia ## Footnote These effects result from dopamine receptor blockade in the nigrostriatal pathway.
32
What is tardive dyskinesia?
A late-onset movement disorder characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements ## Footnote It is often associated with long-term use of antipsychotic medications.
33
What are the metabolic effects of antipsychotics?
Weight gain, insulin resistance, dyslipidemia ## Footnote These effects can lead to increased risk of cardiovascular disease.
34
What is the metabolic monitoring protocol for antipsychotics?
Regular assessment of weight, blood glucose, and lipid levels ## Footnote Monitoring should occur at baseline and periodically thereafter.
35
What is Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?
A life-threatening condition characterized by severe muscle rigidity, fever, and autonomic instability ## Footnote NMS can occur after the initiation or dose increase of antipsychotic medication.
36
What considerations should be made regarding antipsychotic use in pregnancy?
Risk versus benefit assessment, potential effects on fetal development ## Footnote Certain antipsychotics may be safer than others during pregnancy.
37
What are the key characteristics of bipolar disorder?
Mood swings between manic and depressive episodes ## Footnote It requires careful management to stabilize mood and prevent episodes.
38
What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of lithium?
Modulation of neurotransmitter release and receptor sensitivity ## Footnote Lithium stabilizes mood and has neuroprotective effects.
39
What are the drugs that have clinical significance in interactions with lithium?
Diuretics, NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors ## Footnote These medications can increase lithium levels or toxicity.
40
What drugs increase lithium toxicity?
Thiazide diuretics, certain antidepressants, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs ## Footnote Monitoring for toxicity is essential when these drugs are co-administered.
41
What are the objectives of pharmacology of antidepressants?
Pathophysiology, Treatment Options, Case Studies
42
What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Fluoxetine?
Inhibits the reuptake of serotonin
43
What is Fluoxetine commonly known as?
Prozac
44
What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Citalopram?
Inhibits the reuptake of serotonin
45
What is Citalopram commonly known as?
Celexa
46
What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Venlafaxine?
Inhibits the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine
47
What is Venlafaxine commonly known as?
Effexor
48
What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Desvenlafaxine?
Inhibits the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine
49
What is Desvenlafaxine commonly known as?
Pristiq
50
What factors are considered when selecting the right antidepressant?
Patient history, side effects, drug interactions
51
What is the duration of treatment for antidepressants?
Varies based on patient response and specific medication
52
What are common receptor targets of antidepressant medications?
* Serotonin receptors * Norepinephrine receptors * Dopamine receptors
53
What is the role of the Cytochrome P-450 system in antidepressants?
Metabolism and drug interactions
54
What are the dosage ranges of commonly prescribed antidepressant medications?
Varies by medication and patient needs
55
What are common adverse effects of SSRIs?
* Nausea * Headache * Sexual dysfunction
56
What are common adverse effects of SNRIs?
* Increased blood pressure * Nausea * Dizziness
57
What is Serotonin Syndrome?
A potentially life-threatening condition caused by excessive serotonin
58
Name drugs with high susceptibility to serotonin syndrome.
* MAOIs * SSRIs * SNRIs
59
What is Discontinuation Syndrome?
Withdrawal symptoms after abrupt cessation of antidepressants
60
What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Bupropion?
Inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine
61
What is Bupropion commonly known as?
Wellbutrin
62
What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Mirtazapine?
Antagonizes central presynaptic alpha-2 adrenergic receptors
63
What is Mirtazapine commonly known as?
Remeron
64
What are Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors?
Medications that selectively inhibit the reuptake of serotonin
65
What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Vortioxetine?
Inhibits serotonin reuptake and modulates serotonin receptors
66
What is Vortioxetine commonly known as?
Trintellix
67
What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Escitalopram?
Inhibits the reuptake of serotonin
68
What is Escitalopram commonly known as?
Lexapro
69
What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Vilazodone?
Inhibits serotonin reuptake and acts as a partial agonist at serotonin receptors
70
What is Vilazodone commonly known as?
Viibryd
71
What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Duloxetine?
Inhibits the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine
72
What is Duloxetine commonly known as?
Cymbalta
73
What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Amitriptyline?
Inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin
74
What is Amitriptyline commonly known as?
Elavil
75
What are Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCA)?
A class of antidepressants that inhibit norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake
76
What is a concern with TCA overdose?
Potentially fatal cardiac and neurological effects
77
What are Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs)?
A class of antidepressants that inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase
78
What foods contain Tyramine that should be avoided with MAOIs?
* Aged cheeses * Fermented foods * Cured meats
79
What is the summary of the pharmacology of antidepressants?
Involves various classes, mechanisms, and considerations for treatment