AP 1 Flashcards
1
Q
The ability to maintain a relatively stable internal environment in an ever-changing outside world?
A
Homeostasis
2
Q
The system in which the output shuts off the original stimulus and causes a variable to change in the opposite direction of the initial change?
A
Negative Feedback
3
Q
The regional term for the head, neck, and trunk?
A
Axial
4
Q
The lining that covers internal organs?
A
Visceral Serosa
5
Q
The system in which the output enhances or exaggerates the original stimulus so that results proceed in the same direction as the initial change?
A
Positive Feedback
6
Q
The total of all chemical reactions that occur in the body?
A
Metabolism
7
Q
The basic structural and functional unit of life?
A
Cell
8
Q
One of the necessary components for integrity of the cell plasma membrane?
A
Cholesterol
9
Q
Used to create/provide energy for active transport across the cell membrane?
A
ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate)
10
Q
Describes the structural arrangement of the cell membrane?
A
Bilayer of phospholipids w/ embedded proteins
11
Q
Body system that picks up “leaked’ fluids from blood vessels?
A
Lymphatic
12
Q
Gene-containing control center of the cell?
A
Nucleus
13
Q
Membranous sacs that contain a liquid or solid material?
A
Vesicles
14
Q
Organelles that digest bacteria, viruses, toxins, degrade nonfunctional organelles?
A
Lysosomes
15
Q
Organelle that functions in the modification, concentration, and packaging of proteins?
A
Golgi apparatus
16
Q
Organelles that organize the mitotic spindle during mitosis, form the bases of cilia and flagella?
A
Centrioles
17
Q
Division of body cells?
A
Mitosis
18
Q
Programmed cell death?
A
Apoptosis
19
Q
Epithelial tissue that stretches to permit distension of the urinary bladder?
A
Transitional epithelium
20
Q
Example of a unicellular gland?
A
Goblet Cells
21
Q
Ductless glands that produce hormones?
A
Endocrine Glands
22
Q
Glands that secrete their products onto body surfaces?
A
Exocrine Glands
23
Q
Organelle that meets the energy demands of the cell
A
Mitochondria
24
Q
Connective tissue that forms a fiber network, like a soft internal skeleton to support other cell types, and is found in lymph nodes, bone marrow, the spleen?
A
Reticular
25
Assessment of burns?
Rule of Nines
26
Secondary lesion from scratching?
Excoriation
27
Proper term for “bruising”?
Ecchymosis
28
Second layer of skin?
Dermis
29
Layer of the epidermis found only in thick skin like the soles of the feet?
Stratum Lucidum
30
Fine, downy hair covering the skin of a fetus or newborn?
Lanugo
31
Muscles responsible for raised hairs, “goosebumps”?
Arrector Pili
32
Ceruminous glands secrete?
Ear wax
33
Glands that become active at puberty?
Apocrine
34
Spinal curvature that develops when infant learns to walk?
Cervical Spine
35
Inner gelatinous portion of a vertebral disc?
Nucleus Pulposus
36
Growth in bone length?
Interstitial
37
Central canal of an osteon, containing blood vessel?
Haversian
38
Soft, weakened bones in children due to inadequate mineralization?
Rickets
39
Double-layered protective membrane that covers bone?
Periosteum
40
A sesamoid bone?
Patella + Pisiform
41
Growth in bone thickness?
Appositional
42
Spongy bone?
Trabeculae
43
Osteoporosis
Group of diseases in which bone reabsorption outpaces bone deposition
44
Osteopenia
Reduced bone density as seen on imaging
45
Osteon
Structural unit of compact bone
46
Immovable articulation/joint
Synarthroses
47
Slightly moveable joint/articulation
Amphiarthroses
48
Freely moveable joint/articulation
Diarthroses
49
Flattened, fibrous sacs lined with synovial membranes, containing synovial fluid?
Bursae
50
Movement in which angle of a joint is increased?
Extension
51
Movement away from the midline?
Abduction
52
Movement toward the midline?
Adduction
53
Movement of the foot upward?
Dorsiflexion
54
Movement of the foot inward?
Inversion
55
Type of joint in which movement is along a plane only, such as the elbow?
Hinge
56
Most of a cell’s energy in the form of ATP via aerobic cellular respiration is produced by the?
Mitochondria
57
What is NOT a function of connective tissue?
vitamin D synthesis
*It does function to: bind, support, protect
58
The two bones of the forearm/antebrachium are?
radius and ulna
59
The outermost layer of the epidermis?
Stratum Corneum
60
Touch receptors found in the dermal papillae are called?
Meissner’s corpuscles
61
Carpal bones are examples of?
Short Bones
62
What is responsible for the brown color of skin?
melanin
63
A bone that articulates with all the other cranial bones?
Sphenoid Bone
64
Manufactures all secreted proteins of a cell?
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
65
Are mitochondria responsible for destroying damaged organelles in the cell?
No, the organelle that does this are lysosomes.
Mitochondria generate energy (ATP) through cellular respiration.
66
Is flexion a bending movement that decreases the angle of the joint?
Yes, it typically brings two body parts closer together.
E.g. bending your elbow or knee reduces the angle between the bones at those joints.
67
The study of body parts and their relationship to one another is the study of?
Anatomy
68
Is the principle of complementarity the term that refers to the fact that function always reflects structure, and what a structure can do depends on its specific form?
Yes
69
What is the correct order in the levels of structural organization of the body?
chemical
cellular
tissue
organ
organ system
organism
70
What system is the main site of blood cell formation in adults?
Skeletal
71
This directional term means that you are moving closer to the origin of a body part
Proximal
72
Which directional term means that you are moving toward the head?
Cranial
73
The sagittal plane divides the body into?
right and left parts
74
The heart is found in which body cavity
pericardial
75
Is a tight junction is an impermeable junction that encircles the cell?
Yes
76
A cell that has a lower solute concentration than its environment is said to be in what type of solution?
Hypertonic solution
77
The general term for moving substances into the cell?
Endocytosis
78
Which organelle is the gene-containing control center of the cell?
Nucleus
79
If a cell lacked ribosomes, it would not be able to?
Synthesize proteins
80
The metabolic or growth phase of a cell is called
Interphase
81
The type of epithelial tissue that stretches to permit distention of the urinary bladder is?
Transitional
82
What describes reticular connective tissue?
forms a soft internal skeleton, or stroma, that supports other cell types; found in lymph nodes, bone marrow, the spleen
83
The most common cells found in connective tissue proper are?
Fibroblasts
84
Connective tissue in which parallel collagen fibers withstand tension in one direction, found in tendons and ligaments?
Dense regular
85
Does the integumentary system helps in regulating body temperature?
Yes
86
What cells types are the most abundant cells in the epidermis?
Keratinocytes
87
What are types of exocrine gland?
Sweat gland, oil gland, salivary gland
88
The deepest layer of the epidermis, which is firmly attached to the dermis, is the?
Stratum Basale
89
Hair is composed of?
Dead Keratinized cells
90
What is a chemical barrier created by the skin's low pH secretions?
acid mantle
91
Related to the assessment of melanoma?
ABCDE
92
Is bone resorption accomplished by osteoclasts?
Yes
93
The bones of the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage make up the ______________ skeleton.
Axial
94
Sharpey's fibers function to:
secure the periosteum to underlying bone
95
What is an example of a bone projection that serves as a site for the attachment of ligaments and muscles?
Tuberosity
96
The area of the sphenoid bone that contains the pituitary gland is the?
Sella Turnica
97
The foramen magnum is found in which bone?
Occipital
98
How many thoracic vertebrae are there in the human spine?
12
99
The tubular shaft that forms the axis of long bones is the?
Diaphysis
100
Mandible is:
- largest, strongest bone of the face
- articulates with the temporal bone at the temporomandibular joint
- lower jawbone
101
examples of flat bones?
sternum and scapula
102
In endochondral ossification, do bone forms as it replaces hyaline cartilage?
Yes
103
The nucleus pulposus is the?
inner gelatinous portion of a vertebral disc
104
Humerus is?
bone of brachium
105
Which pairs of ribs are true, vertebrosternal ribs?
ribs 1-7
106
The pectoral girdle consists of which bones?
the anterior clavicles and posterior scapulae
107
Differences between the male and female pelvis include:
- a broad, shallow pelvic cavity in women; a more narrow and deep pelvic cavity in men
- a more forward tilted pelvis in women
- bone thickness is greater in men than in women
108
The medial malleolus is a feature of which bone?
Tibia
109
The bones of the wrist are the
carpal bones
110
Two bones of the lower leg:
tibia and fibula
111
example of a synovial joint?
knee
112
Which feature(s) is (are) common to synovial joints?
- joint cavity
- reinforcing ligaments
- articular hyaline cartilage
113
Examples of Carpal Bones:
- scaphoid
- lunate
-hamate
*NOT calcaneous
114
Example of tarsal bone?
- lateral, medial, intermediate cuneiform
- cuboid
-navicular
*NOT triquetral
115
Do smooth muscle cells have T-Tubules?
No
116
The connective tissue investment found around each muscle fiber?
Endomysium
117
Which type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of hollow, visceral organs, such as the stomach?
Smooth
118
Which protein is most closely associated with thin filaments?
Actin
119
A discrete bundle of muscle cells is?
Fascicle
120
Characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue?
- its contractions occur all at one time
- it is found only in the heart
- striated
*NOT under conscious (voluntary) control
121
Smooth muscle functions:
- regulates organ volumes
- propels substances through the body
- helps to maintain blood pressure
122
When skeletal muscle intracellular calcium ion concentrations is low,
a relaxed state of muscle is enforced
123
T-tubules function in muscle cells to?
allow action potentials to penetrate quickly into the cell interior
124
The contractile unit of skeletal muscle tissue is?
sarcomere
125
Intracellular calcium levels in muscle cells is regulated by the?
sarcoplasmic reticulum
126
Thick myofilaments are composed of which protein?
myosin
127
The neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular junction responsible for exciting the skeletal muscle fiber is?
acetylcholine
128
oxygen binding/carrying pigment in muscle
myoglobin
129
surrounds fascicles
perimysium
130
muscle cell cytoplasm
sarcoplasm
131
meeting of motor nerve axonal ending and muscle fiber
neuromuscular junction
132
muscle cell plasma membrane
sarcolemma
133
surrounds entire muscle organ
epimysium
134
Does fast glycolytic muscle fibers contain relatively high amounts of glycogen?
Yes
135
An isometric contraction is?
when muscle tension increases, but the length of the muscle does not change
136
The two types of isotonic contractions are?
concentric and eccentric
137
What constitutes a motor unit?
a lower motor neuron and the muscle fibers it supplies
138
According to the size principle in the muscle recruitment process, what is correct?
motor units with the smallest muscle fibers are activated first
139
Which type of skeletal muscle fibers are the most fatigue resistant?
slow oxidative
140
Which type of skeletal muscle fibers are engaged primarily for short-term intense or powerful movements, such as hitting a baseball?
Fast glycolytic
141
What is a true of aerobic exercise?
- increases the amount of myoglobin synthesized by muscle fiber
- increases the number of mitochondria within muscle fibers
- increases the number of capillaries surround muscle fibers
*does NOT promotes significant skeletal muscle hypertrophy
142
The muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific joint movement is called the ______________, while the muscle that opposes a specific joint movement is called the _________________.
prime mover (or agonist) ; antagonist
143
A muscle twitch is defined as?
the response of a muscle to a single, brief threshold stimulus
144
An action that provides an example of a "third class lever" in the body would be?
flexing the biceps to lift a hand weight
145
Is the stimulus at which first observable muscle contraction occurs is the threshold stimulus?
Yes
146
Creatine phosphate is?
a nitrogenous organic acid stored in muscles; it supplies a phosphate group to ADP to regenerate ATP
147
The muscle which compresses the cheek, is responsible for whistling and sucking, and is highly developed in nursing infants is the?
Buccinator
148
The muscles of mastication work to?
move the mandible for chewing and speech
149
The muscle the elevates and protracts the mandible, and is the strongest muscle of the jaw, is the?
masseter
150
Which group of muscles serve to anchor and move the tongue?
genioglossus, styloglossus, hypoglossus
151
The “anterior triangle” of the neck houses what?
common carotid artery & internal jugular vein
152
Which muscle group is the prime mover of back extension?
erector spinae
153
What are the muscles of the erector spinae muscle group?
spinalis
iliocostalis
longissimus
*NOT latissimus dorsi
154
The structure which connects the vertebrae of both the neck and back, provides protection to the neural elements of the spine, and provides stability by preventing excess motion between the vertebrae is the?
ligamentum flavum
155
The Facial Nerve (CN VII) innervates which of the following muscles:
orbicularis oculi, zygomaticus, levator labii superioris, depressor labii inferioris
156
What muscle is a main flexor of the head when both muscles contract, and laterally rotates the head to one side only when only one of the muscles contracts?
sternocleidomastoid
157
Does the scm and the scalene muscles serve to act as accessory muscles of inspiration when additional power is needed, or in cases of airway/lung pathologies such as COPD?
Yes
158
The internal and external oblique muscles serve to
flex the vertebral column, compress abdominal contents, aid muscles of the back in rotating the trunk and flexing laterally
159
The masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid, and lateral pterygoid are all innervated by which cranial nerve?
Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
160
Does the diaphragm contracted voluntarily to increase pressure in the abdominal cavity?
Yes
161
When it contracts during inspiration, the diaphragm moves inferiorly and flattens?
Yes
162
Does the phrenic nerve innervates the diaphragm?
Yes
163
The band of connective tissue running from the xyphoid process to the symphysis pubis that serves as an attachment for some abdominal muscles is the?
Linea alba
164
Is the sartorius muscle called the tailor's muscle because it allows for flexion of the leg, abduction and lateral rotation of the thigh for cross-legged sitting?
Yes
165
Does fast glycolytic muscle fibers contain relatively high amounts of glycogen?
Yes
166
The rotator cuff muscle group includes which muscles?
supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis
167
The levator scapula does what?
elevates the scapula
168
The trapezius is innervated by the:
accessory nerve
169
The rhomboid major does what?
raises and adducts the scapula
170
Which muscle extends the forearm at the elbow?
triceps brachii
171
Which of the following flexes the arm at the elbow?
brachialis
172
Gluteus maximus does what?
- it functions to extend the thigh, helps to straighten the lower limb at the hip when a person runs, walks or climbs
- it is the largest muscle in the body
- it is activated when moving from a sitting to a standing position
173
The psoas major and the ilacus (iliopsoas) are what?
are the primary flexors of the thigh
174
Which muscles are responsible for plantar flexion of the foot?
gastrocnemius, soleus
175
The extensors pollicis longus and pollicis brevis form an area known as the ?
anatomical snuffbox
176
A "strain" is ?
torn muscle fibers
177
What movement is associated with the trapezius muscle?
Shoulder shrug
178
The biceps femoris is one of the muscles in of which group of muscles?
hamstrings
