Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Western Classes > Patho I > Flashcards

Patho I Flashcards

(75 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Codon

A

genetic code that is determined by a sequence of three consecutive bases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

DNA is composed of

A

of a double stranded, helical structure of nucleotides
ATGC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what codons signals STOP

A

UGA (Uracil-Guanine-Adenine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

t/f: A gene typically codes for one specific protein or functional RNA, not multiple types

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

t/f: Each daughter cell has the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell in mitosis

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describes cell division that gives rise to reproductive cells with half the number of chromosomes of the mother

A

Meiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

cell division that creates two daughter cells

A

Mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

t/f: Mitosis occurs in somatic (body) cells, not germ cells

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

t/f: Anticodon of tRNA aligns with an mRNA codon to properly sequence amino acids and chemically bond them

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

t/f: DNA is transcribed into mRNA, which exits the nucleus and is translated into protein in the cytoplasm

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

t/f: anticodon of tRNA aligns with the codon on mRNA

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

t/f: Thymine (T) in DNA is replaced by Uracil (U) in RNA

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

locus

A

physical location of a gene on a chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Punnett Square

A

diagram used to predict the genotypes of offspring from parent allele combinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Phenotype

A

observable characteristics or traits of an organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cystic fibrosis

A
  • autosomal recessive disorder, requiring two defective copies of the gene
  • result of an autosomal recessive disorder, meaning that the child must inherit two defective copies of the gene from each parent
  • The disease is present at the time of birth
  • May result in poor nutrition and liver disease, due to mucus clogging
  • Susceptibility to lung infection increases due to mucus clogging
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

t/f: A carrier mother has a 50% chance of passing the defective gene to sons (who would be affected) and a 50% chance of passing it to daughters (who would become carriers)

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

t/f: Fathers cannot pass X-linked traits to sons, since sons inherit their X chromosome from their mother

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

t/f: An affected father will always pass the X-linked gene to all daughters; if dominant, all daughters will be affected

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Trisomy 21 (Down Syndrome)

A
  • Excess skin at the nape of the neck is a common symptom
  • There is a long-term risk of leukemia and Alzheimer’s
  • Decrease in muscle tone at birth (hypotonia) is common
  • Cardiovascular and gastrointestinal defects are frequently present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Teratogenic Agents

A
  • Irradiation may damage cells and result in microcephaly
  • The most vulnerable time is during organogenesis
  • Teratogenic agents are substances that cause malformations
  • Drugs that cross the placenta can damage the embryo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Essential to prevent Spina Bifida

A

Folic Acid (B9)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Prenatal Screening

A

Second trimester blood work can screen for genetic or birth defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cellular Metaplasia

A

Conversion of one adult cell to another type of cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Dysplasia
Deranged cell growth of a specific tissue that results in chaotic cells which vary in size, shape, and appearance
26
Hyperplasia
An increase in the number of cells that occurs in cells capable of mitotic division
27
Hypertrophy
An adaptive size increase in the size of the cell and is limited
28
Cellular adaptation
The normal cellular adaptation to physiological stress or pathological stimuli, for which homeostasis is retained by the cell resisting change
29
Davis’s Law
soft tissue adapts to stress by lengthening—not resisting it
30
Wolff’s Law
Bone remodels in response to loading
31
Lead Poisoning Sx
Decrease in libido Delirium Blue line along the gums Hearing loss
32
Cellular Death Mechanisms (NOT external)
Apoptosis is a process of eliminating cells that are worn out, produced in excess, or have developed abnormally and have genetic damage; by initiating their own death
33
Cellular Death Mechanisms (External)
- Ischemia, in which oxygen delivery is impaired - Hypoxic occurrence with insufficient oxygen - Free radicals result from metabolic pathways
34
Necrosis – Dry Gangrene
Involves tissue death and turns it dry, dark, and mummified, due to arterial occlusion
35
Necrosis-Wet Gangrene
Wet gangrene involves bacterial infection and moist tissue
36
Necrosis-Gas Gangrene
caused by Clostridium infection, not arterial occlusion
37
Phases of Wound Healing
- INFLAMMATORY RESPONSE to prevent infection - REMODELING PHASE where tissue function is restored - INITIAL RESPONSE to maintain homeostasis - REMODELING PHASE where tissue strength is restored.
38
t/f: Keeping a wound moist (not dry) is generally more beneficial for faster and more effective healing. Moisture supports cellular migration and reduces scarring.
true
39
wound contracture is due to
Myofibroblasts that contain actinomyosin and provide the ability to approximate the tissue edges to close the epithelial deficit
40
what plays the main role in wound contraction?
myofibroblasts
41
Basal Energy Expenditure (Order from Lowest to Highest)
Total starvation, Elective surgery, Skeletal trauma, Major burns
42
Hyperbaric Oxygen
- may be applied through a large pressurized chamber - applied at a pressure greater than 1 atm - promote revascularization of damaged tissue - may be applied topically
43
Benign Neoplasm examples
Hemangiomas Desmoid Tumor Uterine Fibroid Leiomyomas
44
Characteristics of a Malignant Tumor
Poorly differentiated Fast-growing Invades the surrounding tissue Has the ability to invade other parts of the body
45
Assessment for Melanoma
- larger than 6mm in diameter - variety of colors that progress from tan to black when viewing from the center to the outer border - asymmetrical - irregular, scalloped, or notched borders - typically change over time
46
process in which a tumor cell may arise out of the mutation of a normal cell is called
Oncogenesis
47
cell that does NOT eradicate cancerous cells
Erythrocytes
48
t/f: Tumor markers are NOT exact predictors and can be elevated in non-cancerous conditions
true
49
CA-125 elevation > 46 U/mL warrants further evaluation of these organs
Fallopian Tubes Ovaries Lung Pancreas (NOT testicles)
50
t/f: 44 year old male should have a PSA of below 2.5 ng/mL in most healthy cases
true
51
TNM system – most severe condition
M
52
what helps the white blood cells, organs, and tissues of the lymph system
immunotherapy
53
t/f: Acupuncture may help treat the symptoms associated with cancer
true
54
what kind of therapy utilizes monoclonal antibodies to mark cancer cells to make it make it easier for the immune system to recognize the cancerous cells
Target therapy
55
what kind of therapy blocks hormone receptors that would trigger growth of the cells
Hormone therapy
56
Bone marrow transplants are typically done before or after chemotherapy/radiation to replace destroyed marrow?
after
57
Which constituent has the greatest percentage in blood?
Blood Plasma
58
how long do WBC live?
typically live hours to days
59
how long to RBC live?
~120 days
60
Hematopoiesis is the formation of what
blood cells
61
In early development, RBCs from where?
yolk sac and liver before bone marrow takes over
62
Hematopoietic stem cells are the origin to all
cellular blood components
63
what lacks nucleus & mitochondria, are biconcave & 2.2–7.5 µm
Erythrocytes
64
Anemia
Hemoglobin, which binds to oxygen and carries it in erythrocytes, may not function properly and not carry adequate oxygen to the body’s tissue
65
Hemolytic Anemia
Erythrocytes undergo hemolysis faster than they can be made by the bone marrow
66
Thalassemia
Occurs from autosomal dominant hemoglobin gene expression
67
Transfusions add RBCs; hemolysis involves their
destruction
68
Sickle Cell Anemia
- commonly results in spleen damage - lose their shape and cannot pass easily through capillaries - autosomal recessive disorder affecting the beta chain of hemoglobin - Not enough healthy blood cells are present to carry oxygen - Highest risk group is African-Americans; 1 in 12 are carriers
69
Beta Thalassemia is what kind of disorder?
autosomal recessive disorder
70
Iron deficiency anemia includes
- deficiency may cause small RBCs (microcytic) - 8% are diagnosed due to hemorrhoids - Common in pregnancy - More prevalent in vegetarians without proper iron intake
71
Coombs test is for
autoimmune hemolytic anemia
72
Aplastic Anemia - what makes the blood cells
bone marrow
73
Jaundice
- Pathological in infants if seen within 24 hours - Bilirubin > 5 mg/dL per day or > 17 mg/dL is concerning - Can result from poor breastfeeding and bilirubin reabsorption - liver conjugates bilirubin - Treated with 460–490 nm light at 10–30 µW/cm²/nm
74
Erythroblastosis Fetalis is a condition in which may result in the death of the fetus - which scenario would this occur?
Second pregnancy: Father is Rh+; mother is Rh-; Fetus is Rh+
75
Human blood types are determined by the antigens present on the erythrocytes. Which blood transfusion is incompatible?
Recipient blood type: B- / Transfusion blood type: B+

Western Classes (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions