APK6320 - Corrective Exercise Flashcards by Megan Hely

Which of the following terms describes the concept that the site of a person’s pain may not be the same as the source of the person’s pain?

a.) scope of practice
b.) corrective exercise continuum
c.) regional interdependence

c.) regional interdependence

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Corrective exercise prescriptions fit into a contemporary fitness and strength and conditioning program due to their emphasis on which of the following?

a.) removing muscle imbalances impacting regularly performed activities
b.) enhancing muscular power
c.) optimizing body composition

a.) removing muscle imbalances impacting regularly performed activities

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Muscles that connect directly to the spine and are predominantly involved in LPHC stabilization are classified as…

a.) local musculature system
b.) deep longitudinal system
c.) global musculature system

a.) local musculature system

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What muscle changes may occur as a result of a chronically inhibited neural drive?

a.) the muscle on the opposing side of the joint would pull the inhibited muscle into a shortened state
b.) force production is reduced as a result of the inhibited muscle being overactive
c.) the muscle on the opposing side of the joint would pull the inhibited muscle into a lengthened state
d.) force production is increased as a result of the inhibited muscle being overactive

c.) the muscle on the opposing side of the joint would pull the inhibited muscle into a lengthened state

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___________ describes an athlete’s elite ability to produce force, reduce force, and dynamically stabilize the human movement system in all 3 planes of motion?

a.) structural efficiency
b.) neuromuscular efficiency
c.) neural drive

b.) neuromuscular efficiency

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You witness your client make minor adjustments to their body’s position without any feedback from you, after teaching them a series of yoga poses. Which of the following terms describes what you are witnessing?

a.) knowledge of results
b.) internal (sensory) feedback
c.) external (augmented feedback)

b.) internal (sensory) feedback

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Which of the following contractions prevents a weight from uncontrolled descent?

a.) isokinetic
b.) eccentric
c.) isometric
d.) concentric

b.) eccentric

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____________ describes how CNS integrates sensory information with previous experiences?

a.) motor development
b.) motor learning
c.) motor behavior
d.) motor control

d.) motor control

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What is the greatest risk factor for developing a musculoskeletal injury to a particular area of the body?

a.) previous musculoskeletal injury in that area
b.) BMI
c.) physical activity level

a.) previous musculoskeletal injury in that area

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Which of the following deviations occurs in lower crossed syndrome?

a.) kyphotic posturing
b.) lateral pelvic tilt
c.) anterior pelvic tilt
d.) decreased lordotic curvature

c.) anterior pelvic tilt

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What are the key components of the cumulative injury cycle?

a.) synergistic dominance and movement impairments
b.) muscle spasms, compensation and injury
c.) adhesion, dysfunction and surgery
d.) tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasms and adhesions

d.) tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasms and adhesions

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Which of the following muscles are typically overactive in an individual with upper crossed syndrome?

a.) serratus anterior
b.) pectorals
c.) rhomboids

b.) pectorals

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Which term describes a state of overactivity occurring when a segment of the body is repeatedly moved or chronically held in the same way?

a.) pattern overload
b.) arthrokinematic dysfunction
c.) synergistic dominance

a.) pattern overload

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What assessment collects valuable subjective information and identifies “red flags” that may be the first glimpse at potential movement impairments?

a.) client intake screen
b.) mobility assessment
c.) static posture assessment
d.) overhead squat assessment

a.) client intake screen

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What is the position of the hip joint of the leg you are testing during an active knee extension test?

a.) neutral
b.) extended
c.) flexed

c.) flexed

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Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to scapular wining during the Davies test?

a.) lower trapezius
b.) infraspinatus
c.) serratus anterior
d.) pectoralis minor

d.) pectoralis minor

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How should the results of mobility assessments be recorded by a CES?

a.) record the ROM from a goniometer
b.) record yes/no regarding any mobility restrictions
c.) record a score of 0-3 based on pre-determined criteria for each joint

b.) record yes/no regarding any mobility restrictions

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Mobility assessments contain which of the following categories of joint motion?

a.) passive motions only
b.) active motions only
c.) both active and passive motions

c.) both active and passive motions

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A client’s shoulders elevate and their head migrates forward when performing a standing row movement assessment. Which of the following muscles is probably overactive?

a.) lower trapezius
b.) deep cervical flexors
c.) upper trapezius

c.) upper trapezius

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Which of the following compensations during an overhead squat assessment will you likely be able to identify from the lateral view only?

a.) knees moving inward
b.) asymmetric weight shift
c.) low back arching

c.) low back arching

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The overhead squat assessment does not involve a change in the base of support of the individual, and is therefore classified as…

a.) dynamic movement assessment
b.) transitional movement assessment
c.) static posture assessment

b.) transitional movement assessment

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What is one potential limitation to using a handheld myofascial roller?

a.) most require the use of both hands and rolling is limited to lower extremities
b.) most require the use of one hand and generating sufficient pressure is difficult
c.) most are constructed of material that is too soft to use on muscles
d.) most are constructed of material that is too dense to use on muscles

a.) most require the use of both hands and rolling is limited to lower extremities

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Current research suggests that myofascial release be changed to myofascial rolling due to…

a.) tissue rolling is better than release
b.) myofascial release is an old intervention and needs a name change
c.) current evidence needs to be updated to a new contemporary name
d.) there is no evidence that a “release” occurs in the myofascia after rolling

d.) there is no evidence that a “release” occurs in the myofascia after rolling

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Myofascial rolling is classified as what type of intervention?

a.) strengthening
b.) compression
c.) therapeutic modality
d.) stretching

b.) compression

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Which of the following falls within the scope of practice of a personal trainer with a CES certification? a.) vibration b.) cupping c.) IASTM

a.) vibration

What should be recommended to a client you observe rolling out his lumbar spine with a hard density foam roller? a.) recommend a moderate-density roller b.) demonstrate the proper method of rolling on the lumbar spine to help the client avoid injury c.) recommend a soft-density roller for the lumbar spine d.) rolling the lumbar spine is a contraindication and should be avoided

d.) rolling the lumbar spine is a contraindication and should be avoided

What type of stretching can lead to decreased incidences of muscle and tendon injury? a.) short-term static stretching b.) long-term static stretching c.) short-term neuromuscular stretching d.) long-term dynamic stretching

b.) long-term static stretching

Which movement compensation may improve following the completion of myofascial rolling the latissimus dorsi? a.) excessive trunk lean in an overhead squat b.) arms falling forward in an overhead squat c.) posterior pelvic tilt during an overhead squat

b.) arms falling forward in an overhead squat

The short foot exercise is appropriate as a means of targeting an underactive muscle when which of the following movement compensations is observed? a.) excessive foot pronation (flat feet) b.) feet turn out c.) heel rise

a.) excessive foot pronation (flat feet)

Your client reaches the level of progression demonstrated in a one-leg deadlift to shoulder press. You are ready to begin working through a progression in another plane of motion. Which of the following exercises would be most appropriate? a.) lateral lunge to press b.) 180 degree jump c.) squat to row

a.) lateral lunge to press

Isolated strengthening is a technique used to increase... a.) extensibility b.) synergistic dominance c.) activation d.) intramuscular coordination

d.) intramuscular coordination

The theoretical basis that attempting to strengthen muscles when joint motion restriction is present will provide less-than-optimal results and limited joint ROM comes in part from... a.) Janda's syndromes b.) Clark's models c.) Mennell's truisms d.) Kendall's postures

c.) Mennell's truisms

What is the most appropriate next progression to a squat to shoulder press? a.) lunge to press b.) step up to press c.) single leg squat to press

b.) step up to press

During which phase of the muscle action spectrum are most strength gains developed? a.) concentric acceleration b.) the amortization phase c.) isometric stabilization d.) eccentric deceleration

d.) eccentric deceleration

How long or short could an effective corrective exercise program be to get results? a.) 5 mins b.) 10-15 mins c.) 30 mins

b.) 10-15 mins

What is the system referred to in the NASM Pyramid of Success? a.) NMS stretching b.) corrective exercise continuum c.) overhead squat assessment

b.) corrective exercise continuum

What scenario might influence corrective exercise as the entire workout? a.) pain b.) injury c.) deconditioned clients

c.) deconditioned clients

Which of the following is the best definition for the term recovery? a.) between-exercise process where the body and brain require adequate rest in order to prepare for next day of training b.) post-exercise process where the brain and body require replenishment and rejuvenation in order to prepare for upcoming training c.) post-exercise process where the brain requires additional glucose to regenerate in order to prepare for same-day training

b.) post-exercise process where the brain and body require replenishment and rejuvenation in order to prepare for upcoming training

Location and equipment are related to what factors? a.) environment-related b.) training-related c.) client-related

a.) environment-related

What are the two principles within the refuel recovery strategy? a.) adequate muscle strength and cardiovascular endurance b.) proper balance and muscle strength c.) proper hydration and nutrition d.) proper flexibility and muscle endurance

c.) proper hydration and nutrition

What is the concentric action of the anterior deltoid? a.) stabilizes shoulder girdle b.) shoulder flexion and internal rotation c.) shoulder extension and external rotation

b.) shoulder flexion and internal rotation

What is the proximal attachment of the sternocleidomastoid? a.) mastoid process and occiput b.) medial one-third of the clavicle c.) top of manubrium

a.) mastoid process and occiput

What is the concentric action of the internal oblique? a.) bilateral spinal flexion, ipsilateral flexion and ipsilateral rotation b.) stabilizes the LPHC c.) bilateral spinal extension, contralateral flexion and contralateral rotation

a.) bilateral spinal flexion, ipsilateral flexion and ipsilateral rotation

What is the eccentric action of the rectus abdominus? a.) spinal flexion b.) stabilizes the LPHC c.) spinal extension

c.) spinal extension

What is the eccentric action of the upper trapezius? a.) stabilizes the cervical spine and scapula b.) cervical flexion, lateral flexion and rotation; scapular depression c.) cervical extension, lateral flexion and rotation; scapular elevation

b.) cervical flexion, lateral flexion and rotation; scapular depression

Which of the following describes the rationale for incorporating corrective exercise into an individual's physical activity habits? a.) application of appropriate movement technique may improve force absorption and reduce the incidence of injury b.) musculoskeletal pain is less common now compared to 50 years ago due to the rise of corrective exercise principles c.) the rise in daily technology use has led to higher activity rates in people outside their profession

a.) application of appropriate movement technique may improve force absorption and reduce the incidence of injury

When standing up from a seated position, what type of contraction is occurring in the lower extremity to create motion at the knee (knee extension)? a.) concentric b.) isometric c.) eccentric d.) isokeinetic

a.) concentric

_____________ describes corrective exercise techniques used to retrain the collective synergistic function of all muscles through functionally progressive movements? a.) activation techniques b.) integration techniques c.) lengthening techniques d.) inhibitory techniques

b.) integration techniques

Place in order the steps that lead to an increase in the risk of initiating the cumulative injury cycle: 1. Altered Movement 2. Altered Force-Couple Relationships 3. Structural and Functional Inefficiency 4. Altered Length-Tension Relationships 5. Joint Dysfunction a.) 4,3,5,2,1 b.) 5,4,2,1,3 c.) 3,1,2,5,4

b.) 5,4,2,1,3

Which of the following is NOT a component of the human movement system? a.) skeletal system b.) muscular system c.) endocrine system d.) nervous system

c.) endocrine system

Your client sits for prolonged periods of time while working on a computer each work day. Which of the following will you suspect is a problem in this individual? a.) forward head and rounded shoulders b.) overly tight hip extenders c.) overly lengthened hip flexors d.) none of the above

a.) forward head and rounded shoulders

Which of the following individuals would you suspect to have an overly-shortened gastrocnemius muscles? a.) male business professional who sits and works on a laptop computer for prolonged periods of time b.) painter who reaches overhead throughout the work day c.) female business professional who wears 3-6" heels daily

c.) female business professional who wears 3-6" heels daily

Which of the following represents ideal posture when observing the five kinetic chain checkpoints? a.) knees in line with 2nd and 3rd toes b.) hips level in frontal plane with a posterior pelvic tilt c.) knees in line with the 4th and 5th toes d.) shoulder positioned anterior to ears

a.) knees in line with 2nd and 3rd toes

Pes Planus Distortion Syndrome may lead to... a.) plantar fasciitis, medial tibial stress syndrome (shin splints), patellar tendonitis, and low back pain b.) metatarsal stress fractures, femur fractures and quadricep strains c.) hip bursitis, hamstring strains, Achilles tendonitis and ankle arthritis d.) hip flexor strain, IT band friction syndrome, hamstring strains and Achilles tendonitis

a.) plantar fasciitis, medial tibial stress syndrome (shin splints), patellar tendonitis, and low back pain

Your client shows up to session with visible swelling in his left knee. What is the appropriate action to take? a.) recommend icing knee and take NSAIDS b.) continue the session as normal c.) provide manual therapy to reduce swelling d.) refer client to qualified medical professional

d.) refer client to qualified medical professional

What type of movement assessment should always be performed first? a.) transitional b.) static c.) dynamic d.) loaded

a.) transitional

Assessments that involve movement with a change in the base of support are known as... a.) loaded movement assessments b.) dynamic movement assessments c.) transitional movement assessments

b.) dynamic movement assessments

What is considered normal mobility in the cervical side bending test? a.) head can tilt to 45 degree angle b.) head should remain neutral c.) head can tilt to 90 degree angle d.) head can tilt to 25 degree angle

a.) head can tilt to 45 degree angle

Place the following NASM movement assessments in the most appropriate order: 1. Single Leg Squat 2. Depth Jump 3. Overhead Squat 4. Loaded Squat a.) 2,3,1,4 b.) 1,3,2,4 c.) 3,1,4,2

c.) 3,1,4,2

A client demonstrates an arms excessive lumbar lordosis compensation during an overhead squat assessment that is resolved when placing hands on hips. Which of the following mobility assessments should be used in the follow up? a.) supine shoulder extension b.) supine shoulder external rotation c.) shoulder flexion

c.) shoulder flexion

Which view allows for the optimal assessment of frontal plane movements (adduction and abduction)? a.) lateral b.) top c.) posterior d.) anterior

d.) anterior

What is the position of the hip joint of the leg you are testing during an active knee extension test? a.) extended b.) flexed c.) neutral

b.) flexed

Your client cannot safely maintain the position during the single-leg squat assessment. What is your next step? a.) stop the assessment and refer client to medical provider b.) move on to the next assessment c.) attempt a split squat stance assessment instead

c.) attempt a split squat stance assessment instead

Which of the following best describes how to introduce tissue movement with the myofascial roller? a.) perform active movements such as flexion/extension while maintaining pressure b.) roll in a slow continuous motion for 60 seconds c.) perform quick active movements while continuously rolling back and forth on the target tissue d.) perform passive movements such as trainer-assisted flexion/extension while maintaining pressure

a.) perform active movements such as flexion/extension while maintaining pressure

Which of the following is an adequate intensity of isometric contraction for a neuromuscular stretch? a.) 100% maximal isometric contraction b.) 20% maximal isometric contraction c.) 50% maximal isometric contraction

b.) 20% maximal isometric contraction

How long would you instruct a client age 65 and older to hold a stretch? a.) 60 secs b.) 15 secs c.) 30 secs

a.) 60 secs

What modification is suggested by NASM if a client does not feel comfortable performing myofascial rolling with active movement of the targeted limb? a.) continuation rolling for 90-120 secs of the target tissue b.) isometrically contract the target muscle, then proceed with the active movement c.) decrease the pressure, then proceed with the active movement.

a.) continuation rolling for 90-120 secs of the target tissue

What is recommended number of active movements to include in Step 2 of the myofascial rolling program? a.) 1-3 reps b.) 2-3 reps c.) 4-6 reps d.) 7-10 reps

c.) 4-6 reps

Which of the following statements is true regarding the intensity of the isometric contraction that is used during NMS? a.) near maximal intensity contractions are necessary to produce significant improvements in ROM b.) moderate (50%) or higher intensities are necessary to produce increases in ROM c.) even light contractions of 20% can produce significant improvements in ROM

c.) even light contractions of 20% can produce significant improvements in ROM

What should the fitness professional do when they first observe movement compensations during integrated movement, in order to allow the athlete to cognitively process proper form? a.) stop the exercise b.) decrease the load to require less from the muscles c.) increase the load to demand more from the muscles d.) make the client aware of the compensation and give verbal cues

d.) make the client aware of the compensation and give verbal cues

The isometric tempo for activation exercise should last approximately how long? a.) 1 second b.) 2 seconds c.) 3 seconds d.) 4 seconds

b.) 2 seconds

What phase of the muscle action spectrum leads to the most muscle damage, inflammation, impaired muscle function and muscle soreness, providing a good reason to limit the number of sets for the initial exercise? a.) isometric stabilization b.) concentric acceleration c.) the amortization phase d.) eccentric deceleration

d.) eccentric deceleration

The combination of enhanced motor unit activation, synchronization and firing rate is known to increase ________ at that specific muscle? a.) tenacity b.) intramuscular coordination c.) ROM

b.) intramuscular coordination

What is the most appropriate verbal cue to use if a client demonstrates knee valgus on landing? a.) Keep your knees in line with your 2nd and 3rd toes. b.) Keep you knees behind your toes. c.) Keep your knees out wider than your 5th toe. d.) Keep your knees directly over your ankles.

a.) Keep your knees in line with your 2nd and 3rd toes.

Research has shown that resistance training stimulates synthesis of which macronutrient substrate to repair and build muscle? a.) fats b.) carbs c.) proteins

c.) proteins

For optimal sleep, what temperature should the room be? a.) 45 F b.) 60 F c.) 72 F d.) 95 F

c.) 72 F

Research has shown a correlation between which two specific sleep variables that result in optimizing next-day performance? a.) duration of deep sleep and nighttime anabolic hormone release b.) using a weighted blanket and black out drapes c.) the specific foods and drinks that are consumed at dinner time d.) the brand of bed and pillow the client owns

a.) duration of deep sleep and nighttime anabolic hormone release

Which of the following categories of recovery does corrective exercise fall into? a.) refuel b.) regenerate c.) rest

b.) regenerate

What is an example of a client-related factor? a.) where the client will be training primarily b.) how much time the client has to commit to their program c.) what neuromuscular and physiological adaptations are necessary to achieve training objective d.) specific goals expressed by the client

d.) specific goals expressed by the client

How many minutes per day in accumulated relaxation does NASM recommend as part of a recovery strategy? a.) 60+ mins b.) 15+ mins c.) 30+ mins

a.) 60+ mins

Which of the following is the BEST progression to use regarding performing a pattern in multiple planes of motion? a.) sagittal to frontal to transverse b.) frontal to transverse to sagittal c.) transverse to sagittal to frontal

a.) sagittal to frontal to transverse

Which of these ankle positions are a proper description of pronation, as seen in a squat loading/lowering phase? a.) plantar flexion, food adduction and inversion b.) dorsiflexion, foot abduction and eversion c.) dorsiflexion, food adduction and eversion d.) plantar flexion, food abduction and inversion

b.) dorsiflexion, foot abduction and eversion

If your client is in the inhibition phase for the foot and ankle, which of the following muscles will most likely be involved? a.) anterior tibialis b.) gastrocnemius c.) posterior tibialis d.) medial hamstrings

b.) gastrocnemius

What is the most appropriate muscle to static stretch for a client who demonstrates over-pronation in the overhead squat? a.) gluteus medius b.) gastrocnemius c.) anterior tibialis d.) rectus femoris

b.) gastrocnemius

What two bones comprise the subtalar joint? a.) calcaneus and tarsals b.) talus and calcaneus c.) fibula and talus d.) tibia and fibula

b.) talus and calcaneus

Susie has pain and inflammation at the ankle joint, especially in the morning or after long periods of sitting. In her static assessment, you note her feet turn out and excessive pronation; in her OHSA she showed and excessive forward lean as well as the same compensations from the static assessment. What would you expect to find after further testing? a.) toes moving away from the midline of the foot b.) insufficient elasticity or stretch within the plantar fascia c.) chronic ankle instability d.) high arch in foot

b.) insufficient elasticity or stretch within the plantar fascia

Performing a gait assessment can be great technique for observing dynamic range of motion. During which phase of gait is ankle mobility assessed? a.) midstance b.) late midstance c.) initial contact d.) propulsion

b.) late midstance

Rearfoot pronation, or sub-talar eversion, and ankle dorsiflexion are associated with what coupled motion? a.) tibial internal rotation b.) ankle plantarflexion c.) subtalar joint inversion d.) external fibula rotation

a.) tibial internal rotation

Matt presented with a knee valgus compensation that did not improved with a heel lift on the OHSA. What two muscles should be addressed as a key part of the activation exercises of Matt's corrective exercise program? a.) TFL/IT band b.) gastrocnemius and soleus c.) gluteus medius and gluteus maximus d.) biceps femoris

c.) gluteus medius and gluteus maximus

According to the Screw-Home Mechanism, in an open-chain position and as the knee extends, which action best describes the motion of the tibia on the femur during the last 30 degrees? a.) internal rotation b.) abduction c.) external rotation d.) flexion

c.) external rotation

What is the key compensation to look for during a single-leg squat assessment? a.) knee varus b.) knee valgus c.) hyperextension d.) knee dominance

b.) knee valgus

Which muscles are overactive when the client shows knee valgus during the OHSA? a.) quadriceps and gastrocnemius b.) adductor complex and biceps femoris c.) gluteus complex d.) hamstring and anterior tibialis

b.) adductor complex and biceps femoris

What should an individual do with the stance leg during the Hurdle Step movement? a.) flex the knee b.) relax the knee c.) lock the knee

b.) relax the knee

A client demonstrates a knee dominance compensation, that did not improve with OHSA with heel lift. What mobility test will the fitness professional use to test the hip flexors? a.) seated hip external rotation test b.) modified Thomas test c.) weight bearing lunge test

b.) modified Thomas test

Foam rolling the hamstring complex helps to reduce tension in the tissues allowing for appropriate levels of which joint action to be achieved? a.) hip extension b.) hip flexion c.) hip adduction d.) knee flexion

b.) hip flexion

Which of the following issues have been reported to demonstrate impaired postural control, delayed muscle relaxation, abnormal muscle recruitment patterns, and notably diminished transverse abdominis and multifidus activiation? a.) herniated disc b.) anterior pelvic tilt c.) posterior pelvic tilt d.) low back pain

d.) low back pain

Your client does well on the OHSA and single-leg squat assessment, but demonstrates and anterior pelvic tilt during a loaded squat assessment. Which of the following should be prioritized in his training program? a.) mastering the squat pattern and total body conditioning b.) hip flexor stretching and rotation mobility c.) LPHC stabilization and hip extensor activation d.) spinal mobility and hamstring stretching

c.) LPHC stabilization and hip extensor activation

Beth presents limited ROM at the ankles, an anteriorly tilted pelvis and an excessive forward lean of her trunk. What best describes the regional interdependence model in her situation? a.) excessive neural drive received via the CNS and directed to the soleus and gastrocnemius has limited the ROM at her ankles b.) the myosin and actin filaments located within her gastrocnemius and soleus are gliding across one another to shorten the muscle as tension increases c.) if there is a lack of dorsiflexion in the sagittal plane at the ankle caused by tight posterior calf muscles, the LPHC will have to increase forward flexion, causing the trunk to lean forward so she can stay balanced upright

c.) if there is a lack of dorsiflexion in the sagittal plane at the ankle caused by tight posterior calf muscles, the LPHC will have to increase forward flexion, causing the trunk to lean forward so she can stay balanced upright

Which internal tissue or structure can get irritated and lead to pain when herniated discs press against it? a.) spine b.) foramen c.) nerve d.) intervertebral disc

c.) nerve

The glenohumeral joint is what type of joint? a.) synovial b.) fused c.) fibrous d.) cartilaginous

a.) synovial

The thoracic spine has how many vertebrae? a.) 5 b.) 7 c.) 12

c.) 12

Consider the following results of an FCS upper extremity motor control screen: Foot length: 12.5" Left arm screen: 19" 20" 21" 23" 25" Right arm screen: 20" 22" 25" 22" What is the final interpretation of this screen? a.) pass both greatest reach and symmetry b.) fail greatest reach, pass symmetry c.) pass greatest reach, fail symmetry

b.) fail greatest reach, pass symmetry

During transitional and loaded movement assessments, if the shoulders start to elevate, then the ________ and ________ need to be inhibited and lengthened. a.) middle and lower traps b.) serratus anterior and upper traps c.) upper traps and levator scapulae d.) none of the above

c.) upper traps and levator scapulae

How many reps are performed of the FCS lower extremity motor control screen on an individual side? a.) as many times as needed to reach 2x foot length b.) minimum 3 attempts, continue until next reach does not improve c.) 3 attempts

b.) minimum 3 attempts, continue until next reach does not improve

Which FCS upper extremity clearing test screens for both mobility and pain? a.) wrist extension clearing test b.) horizontal adduction clearing c.) both of these

c.) both of these

Hanging effectively from a tree branch with an outstretched hand requires which full range of motion? a.) extension b.) horizontal abduction c.) flexion d.) 360-degree circumduction

c.) flexion

Consider the following scores for an FCS upper extremity motor control screen: 20", unsuccessful, unsuccessful, 22", 23", 21" What is the final score of this screen? a.) 23" b.) 21" c.) 22"

a.) 23"

What is the name of the upper arm bone? a.) ulna b.) humerus c.) hamate d.) radius

b.) humerus

A client has shown dysfunction on a static assessment of the elbow. What would the next step in the corrective exercise assessment flow process be? a.) shoulder press b.) overhead squat assessment c.) mobility assessment of the elbow and wrist d.) loaded movement assessment of the elbow and wrist

b.) overhead squat assessment

From the anatomical position, rotation of the forearm such that the palm faces downwards is known as.... a.) ulnar deviation b.) forearm pronation c.) radial deviation d.) forearm supination

b.) forearm pronation

During the OHSA, a client demonstrates a lack of elbow extension. What is this often attributed to? a.) poor shoulder mobility b.) underactive/lengthened biceps brachii c.) poor elbow stability d.) overactive/shortened biceps brachii

d.) overactive/shortened biceps brachii

During the transitional and loaded movement of the elbow and wrist assessment, what is the corrective exercise specialist looking for? a.) arms falling forward b.) limited wrist flexion ROM c.) limited elbow flexion ROM

a.) arms falling forward

Loaded movement assessments reveal non-neutral wrists and mobility assessments reveal restricted wrist flexion motion. What muscle group should be activated? a.) wrist flexors b.) elbow extensors c.) wrist extensors d.) elbow flexors

c.) wrist extensors

To help correct a client's forward head posture, the CES recommends that the client perform the chin tuck exercise. What primary muscles are targeted when performing this exercise? a.) sternocleidomastoid b.) deep cervical flexors c.) upper trapezius d.) scalenes

b.) deep cervical flexors

The upper traps and levator scapulae should focus on what types of inhibition tools? a.) hook or cane-type tools b.) foam rollers c.) fingers

a.) hook or cane-type tools

A condition that typically effects older adults but can appear in middle aged individuals with a genetic predisposition that is characterized by narrowing of the spinal canal that causes compression on the spinal cord is called... a.) degenerative disc disease b.) bulging disc c.) spinal stenosis

c.) spinal stenosis

Larry cannot fully extend his elbow in the overhead squat assessment and his arms fall forward. When he stands, he demonstrates upper crossed syndrome. What mobility assessment should be included for the upper body? a.) wrist and elbow flexion and extension b.) cervical flexion and extension c.) de Quervain's Tenosynovitis Assessment

b.) cervical flexion and extension

What muscle or region is the use of the foam roller contraindicated due to high risk for causing pain or injury? a.) cervical spine b.) middle trapezius c.) latissimus dorsi d.) thoracic spine

a.) cervical spine

What does it mean for a muscle to be "overactive"? a.) the muscle is experiencing chronically elevated levels of neural drive b.) the muscle is experiencing chronically inhibited levels of neural drive c.) neither of these

a.) the muscle is experiencing chronically elevated levels of neural drive

How does the neural drive to a muscle identified to be overactive compared to that of a muscle with a normal resting length-tension relationship? a.) neural drive is lower in the overactive muscle b.) neural drive is higher in the overactive muscle c.) neural drive is the same between the overactive muscle and the normal muscle

b.) neural drive is higher in the overactive muscle

When should the client intake assessment be conducted within the context of the NASM CES Assessment Flow? a.) first b.) second c.) third d.) fourth

a.) first

When should the static posture assessment be conducted within the context of the NASM CES Assessment Flow? a.) first b.) second c.) third d.) fourth

b.) second

What is the technical term of the natural curvature of the spine? a.) valgus b.) kyphosis c.) lordosis

b.) kyphosis

___________ is the region of the body most likely impacted by sitting most of the day. a.) shoulder b.) ankle c.) knee d.) LPHC

d.) LPHC

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to scapular elevation during a loaded pulling movement? a.) lower trapezius b.) cervical extensors c.) upper trapezius

a.) lower trapezius

A client demonstrates knee valgus during an OHSA. Have the client repeat the squat with heels elevated resolves the knee valgus. Which of the following muscles is likely overactive in this scenario? a.) latissimus dorsi b.) gastrocnemius c.) psoas

b.) gastrocnemius

Which muscle would you suspect as being overactive if there is restricted shoulder internal rotation? a.) latissimus dorsi b.) pec minor c.) teres minor

c.) teres minor

Knee valgus is noted in an OHSA. You suspect the hip adductors are overactive. Which of the following mobility assessments will you use to test your hypothesis? a.) modified Thomas test b.) seated hip internal rotation c.) hip abduction and external rotation

c.) hip abduction and external rotation

A client demonstrates movement compensations during the loaded horizontal pushing assessment, but not during the loaded squat assessment. Which dynamic movement assessments should NOT be included in the follow up assessments until the movement compensations are resolved? a.) depth jump b.) gait assessment c.) Davies test

c.) Davies test

The modified Thomas test assesses mobility in all of the following joint motions except... a.) knee flexion b.) hip extension c.) hip adduction d.) hip abduction

d.) hip abduction

What is considered normal mobility during the shoulder flexion test? a.) elbows flexed to a 90-degree angle and shoulders fully extended b.) elbows extended and arms in line with the lateral midline of the torso c.) elbows extended and shoulders fully extended d.) elbows flexed to a 90-degree angle and arms in line with the torso

b.) elbows extended and arms in line with the lateral midline of the torso

Which movement assessment is considered the best assessment of an individual's lower extremity balance a.) overhead squat b.) standing overhead dumbbell press c.) Davies test d.) single leg squat

d.) single leg squat

What best describes the psycho-physiological concept of stretch tolerance? a.) a client can tolerate the maximum amount of discomfort during a prolonged stretch b.) a client can only tolerate a short duration of stretching due to pain c.) a client can tolerate the level of discomfort during a prolonged stretch d.) a client can tolerate the maximum amount of pain during a dynamic stretching activity

c.) a client can tolerate the level of discomfort during a prolonged stretch

What is the best intensity prescription for a static hamstring stretch when a novice client is performing it? a.) extreme discomfort b.) mild discomfort c.) mild discomfort minus 10%

c.) mild discomfort minus 10%

What is the recommended length of time to hold direct pressure on a target tissue within a single rep of rolling for a myofascial roller (not the total length of time)? a.) 70-90 seconds b.) 2-5 minutes c.) 30-60 seconds d.) 90-120 seconds

c.) 30-60 seconds

Which step of the NASM Inhibitory Exercise process in involves joint movement while rolling? a.) step 1 b.) step 2 c.) step 3

b.) step 2

Using myofascial rolling to increase tissue relaxation due to afferent input from the golgi tendon reflex, modulating the gamma loop reflex arc, and increasing the mechanoreceptor signaling is classified as which of the following types of effects? a.) global muscular system effect b.) local mechanical effect c.) global neurophysiological effect

c.) global neurophysiological effect

Which statement most accurately defines an informed consent agreement with a corrective exercise client? a.) outlines general info and associated risks involved with the corrective exercise process b.) outlines the procedures and actions professionals are permitted to administer in accordance with the law c.) it is a questionnaire used to help determine if a person is ready to undertake an increase in physical activity

a.) outlines general info and associated risks involved with the corrective exercise process

Integration techniques are used to reeducate the Human Movement System into what type of functional movement pattern? a.) cooperative b.) length-tension c.) synergistic d.) force-couple

c.) synergistic

Which of the following exercises is the most appropriate progression from a single leg hop exercise? a.) wall jump b.) step off a box and perform an unexpected cutting maneuver c.) bilateral long jump

b.) step off a box and perform an unexpected cutting maneuver

Why might it make sense to exercise the dominate limb first before the non-dominate limb for recruitment? a.) minimize injury to the non-dominate side b.) it is a primer to better prepare the non-dominate side c.) effectively perform the exercise prior to the challenge of the non-dominate side

b.) it is a primer to better prepare the non-dominate side

Which of these goals is most appropriate to provide to a client? a.) We will have you moving better in no time. b.) We are going to improve your overhead squat. c.) We are going to reduce the number of compensations in your overhead squat to zero by the end of the month.

c.) We are going to reduce the number of compensations in your overhead squat to zero by the end of the month.

What process describes the ability of the CNS to interpret sensory information as needed to execute the proper motor response? a.) muscle synergy b.) augmented feedback c.) knowledge of performance d.) sensorimotor integration

d.) sensorimotor integration

What can a fitness professional use to help understand a client's recovery habits? a.) recovery questionnaire b.) report from their psychologist c.) results from their fitness assessment d.) report from their medical doctor

a.) recovery questionnaire

As long as less than 3% of bodyweight is expected to be lost during exercise due to sweating, what hydration strategy should clients be instructed to follow? a.) drink 500mL of water every 15 mins b.) drink fluids as desired c.) drink a glass of water for every lb of bodyweight lost due to sweating

b.) drink fluids as desired

A client has been training with a fitness professional and independently consistently for over 6 months. What stage of change would he most likely be in? a.) contemplation b.) preparation c.) maintenance d.) termination

c.) maintenance

What scenario might influence corrective exercise as the entire workout? a.) pain b.) injury c.) deconditioned clients

c.) deconditioned clients

What are the recommended acute training variables for static stretching for those younger than 65? a.) 20-30 seconds for 4-6 reps twice a week b.) 1-2 mins for 4-6 reps every other day c.) 15-30 secs for 6-8 reps once a week d.) 20-30 secs for 1-4 reps daily

d.) 20-30 secs for 1-4 reps daily

Which of the following muscles is a good target for activation if a heel rise is noted on the OHSA that corrects with a heel elevated modification? a.) quadriceps b.) anterior tibialis c.) soleus d.) gastrocnemius

b.) anterior tibialis

Medial tibial stress syndrome typically presents on which aspect of the tibia? a.) upper 1/3 of medial tibia b.) lower 1/3 of medial tibial c.) lower 1/3 of lateral tibia d.) center of the medial tibial

b.) lower 1/3 of medial tibial

Once you have completed 3 successful trials in one of the directions in the YBT, what do you do with the 3 reach distances recorded for that direction? a.) find the mean b.) find the mean and divide by the length of the test leg, then multiply by 100 c.) add them together

b.) find the mean and divide by the length of the test leg, then multiply by 100

A client that presents with feet turning out, excessive pronation, and excessive forward lean in the OHSA is at risk for... a.) chronic ankle instability b.) over-pronation and limited ankle mobility are only linked to positions, not conditions or injuries c.) Achilles tendinopathy

c.) Achilles tendinopathy

The BESS is a common clinical assessment that consists of _____ tests lasting 20 secs each, performed on a _______, used by sports medicine professionals. a.) four; wobble board b.) five; firm and/or foam surface c.) three; Bosu

b.) five; firm and/or foam surface

If your client is in the inhibition phase for the foot and ankle, which of the following muscles will likely be involved? a.) posterior tibialis b.) gastrocnemius c.) anterior tibialis d.) medial hamstrings

b.) gastrocnemius

Which muscle is the most appropriate to static stretch for a client who demonstrates over-pronation in the overhead squat? a.) gluteus medius b.) gastrocnemius c.) rectus femoris d.) anterior tibialis

b.) gastrocnemius

When trying to choose between one score or another on the FMS, what is the rule of thumb? a.) when in doubt, score high b.) when in doubt, score low

b.) when in doubt, score low

What purpose do the 3 clearing tests that accompany the patterns of FMS serve? a.) identification of pain b.) identification of stability restriction c.) identification of mobility restriction

a.) identification of pain

During a depth jump assessment, most impairments will be observed during what phase? a.) jump/movement b.) start or take off c.) deceleration

c.) deceleration

According to Cook, if a person tests positive for pain on the clearance test that follows the trunk stability push up pattern, what will the final score be for the pattern? a.) 0 b.) 1 c.) 2 d.) 3

a.) 0

During a client's first attempt of completing the Deep Squat pattern of the FMS, she performs the squat with minimal compensations, including a slight heel rise during the descent into the squat and arms slightly falling forward to the front of the nose. What score would you give her based on this first attempt? a.) 1 b.) 2 c.) 3 d.) can't determine given the info in this question

d.) can't determine given the info in this question - if this compensation is present, you place their heels on a 2" lift and have them try again

If an observed knee compensation improves with the heels elevated during the modified OHSA, what is a primary area to address with corrective exercise mobility? a.) foot and ankle complex b.) knee c.) LPHC d.) shoulder complex

a.) foot and ankle complex

Which of the following is not one of the 6 dimensions of wellness used by the National Wellness Institute? a.) social b.) athletic c.) spiritual

b.) athletic

How many reps are recommended when completing one of the upper extremity loaded movement assessments? a.) 5 b.) 10 c.) 20

b.) 10

What term is used to describe reduced neural drive to an antagonist muscle when an agonist muscle contracts? a.) cross-bridging b.) sensorimotor integration c.) muscle imbalance d.) reciprocal inhibition

d.) reciprocal inhibition

A client demonstrates an asymmetric weight shift during the OHSA. Which of the following would be the most appropriate muscle to activate? a.) opposite-side piriformis b.) opposite-side adductors c.) same-side TFL d.) same-side adductors

b.) opposite-side adductors

Scott demonstrates an excessive posterior pelvic tilt during the OHSA. Which of the following would be the most appropriate muscle to activate? a.) erector spinae b.) hamstrings complex c.) adductor magnus d.) abdominal complex

a.) erector spinae

In situations where an individual has an excessive anterior pelvic tilt, which modification of OHSA should be used to identify whether the movement impairment is coming from the thoracic spine or the LPHC? a.) switch to split squat b.) hands should be placed on hips c.) heels elevated on a plate

b.) hands should be placed on hips

At which joint might an increase in ROM serve as a preventative strategy by allowing the trunk to be more upright and minimizing shearing forces in the trunk? a.) ankle b.) pelvic upslip c.) cervical spine d.) knee

a.) ankle

What score would you give an FMS Rotary Stability patterns where the opposite arm and leg are touching? a.) 0 b.) 1 c.) 2 d.) 3

c.) 2

In an OHSA, tightness in hip flexors and weakness in abdominal muscles will most likely contribute to which movement dysfunction? a.) knees valgus b.) feet turn out c.) excessive forward lean d.) anterior pelvic tilt

d.) anterior pelvic tilt

Which of the following is not likely a local mechanical effect of myofascial rolling? a.) reducing tissue viscosity b.) breaking up myofascial adhesions c.) reducing arterial stiffness

b.) breaking up myofascial adhesions

What is the recommended client position when performing the passive hip internal rotation test? a.) lying supine on a table b.) lying prone on the table with legs together c.) standing with knees straight and feet in a comfortable position

b.) lying prone on the table with legs together

Which of the following joint motions will you predict to be excessive when a client with lower crossed syndrome performs an OHSA? a.) cervical extension b.) lumbar lordosis c.) foot external rotations

b.) lumbar lordosis

The acromion is part of of which bony structure? a.) infraspinatus fossa b.) glenohumeral joint c.) scapula d.) coracoid

c.) scapula

"Weightlifter's shoulder" is a term associated with what clinical presentation? a.) dislocation of the GH during bench press b.) osteoarthritis of the AC joint c.) osteoarthritis of the GH joint d.) tendinopathy of the rotator cuff

b.) osteoarthritis of the AC joint

How far apart should the cones be placed for the FCS Carry Screen? a.) 20 ft b.) 25 ft c.) 30 ft

b.) 25 ft

A ligament injury to the acromioclavicular joint is best classified as... a.) AC separation b.) AC dislocation

a.) AC separation

When completing the Ankle Clearing Screen in the FCS, the subject "passes" when the testing knee is ____________ the reference medial malleolus of the opposite foot. a.) within b.) beyond c.) behind

b.) beyond

Which group of muscles should be inhibited and lengthened for someone exhibiting scapular winging? a.) serratus anterior, middle and lower trapezius b.) latissimus dorsi, pectoralis minor and upper trapezius c.) latissimus dorsi, serratus anterior and lower trapezius d.) latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major and rhomboids

b.) latissimus dorsi, pectoralis minor and upper trapezius

What is the final interpretation of this FCS Lower Extremity Motor Control Screen? L Foot Length - 12 in R Foot Length - 12 in L Foot Attempts: 18", fail, 20", fail, 24" R Foot Attempts: 19", 23", 26", 26" a.) fail greatest reach, pass symmetry b.) pass greatest reach on right foot only; fail symmetry c.) pass greatest reach and symmetry

b.) pass greatest reach on right foot only; fail symmetry - symmetry must be below 1.5"

How much pain should be felt when performing Step 1 of the myofascial rolling program? a.) there should be some discomfort, but you should be able to relax and breathe b.) hold breath and apply as much pressure as tolerable to the roller c.) there should be no discomfort

a.) there should be some discomfort, but you should be able to relax and breathe

What is the name given for the wrist bones collectively? a.) carpals b.) tarsals c.) metatarsals d.) metacarpals

a.) carpals

Mobility assessments reveal restricted wrist flexion motion. What muscle group should be lengthened? a.) elbow flexors b.) wrist extensors c.) wrist flexors d.) elbow extensors

b.) wrist extensors

"Righty Tighty" is a great way to remember... a.) pronation b.) supination c.) both

b.) supination

A 180cm athlete performs the Broad Jump with Arms Impact Control Screen from the FCS and you record a distance of 205cm for the best attempt. Did they pass the broad jump screen? a.) yes b.) no

a.) yes - 110% of their height

De Quervain's Tenosynovitis affects... a.) radial side of hand b.) dorsal side of hand c.) palmar side of hand d.) ulna side of hand

a.) radial side of hand

An individual performs the single leg broad jump and you record a best distance of 105 cm with the left leg and 112 cm with the right leg. Did they pass the FCS Single Leg Jump Screen? a.) yes b.) no

b.) no - needs to be less than 5% difference between legs

During the OHSA, a client demonstrates lack of elbow extension. To what is this often attributed? a.) poor shoulder mobility b.) poor elbow stability c.) underactive biceps brachii d.) overactive biceps brachii

d.) overactive biceps brachii

An individual performs Broad Jump with hands on hips and you record a distance of 170cm for the best attempt. Their best attempt at the Broad Jump with arms was 190cm. Did they pass this FCS screen? a.) yes b.) no

b.) no - should be between 115-125% of length of broad jump with hands on hip

An individual with a 112cm single leg jump on right leg performs the 2-1-2 jump screen and you record a distance of 125cm. Did they pass this FCS screen? a.) yes b.) no

b.) no - should be 120% of single leg jump

Rotation of the forearm such that the palm faces downward is known as... a.) forearm supination b.) forearm pronation

b.) forearm pronation

What are key compensations at the LPHC to look for during the single-leg squat assessment? a.) asymmetric weight shift and forward trunk lean b.) posterior and anterior pelvic tilt c.) asymmetric weight shift and inward or outward trunk rotation

c.) asymmetric weight shift and inward or outward trunk rotation

What is an example of a total-body primer exercise for more advanced programming in the future? a.) barbell squat b.) push-up c.) ball squat with overhead press

c.) ball squat with overhead press

If ankle dorsiflexion is restricted, which muscle would you suspect as being overactive? a.) gastrocnemius b.) piriformis c.) TFL

a.) gastrocnemius

What are the dysfunctional spinal postures identified by Kendall? a.) upper crossed syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and kyphosis-lordosis b.) sway-back, lordotic and upper crossed syndrome c.) lordotic, flat-back, sway-back and kyphosis-lordosis

c.) lordotic, flat-back, sway-back and kyphosis-lordosis

Cueing an athlete to "land quietly" is an example of... a.) knowledge of results b.) internal feedback c.) knowledge of performance

c.) knowledge of performance

Where is the hyoid bone located in the cervical spine? a.) between C3 and C4 b.) the anterior neck in a muscular sling c.) the throat d.) the posterior neck in a muscular sling

b.) the anterior neck in a muscular sling

How many pounds of relative stress does looking down at a cell phone place on the neck? a.) 30lbs b.) 40lbs c.) 50lbs d.) 60lbs

d.) 60lbs

How can sustained forward head posture also contribute to the development of TMJ disorders? a.) causing stabilization of the hyoid bone b.) causing alteration of length-tension relationships in the head and neck c.) causing a reduction of force requirements for the jaw muscles d.) promoting underactivity in the suboccipital muscles

b.) causing alteration of length-tension relationships in the head and neck

___________ is a condition that typically effects older adults that is categorized by narrowing of the spinal canal that can cause compression on the spinal cord. a.) spinal stenosis b.) degenerative disc disease c.) thinning disc d.) bulging disc

a.) spinal stenosis

All of the following are an integration exercise for forward head posture except... a.) chin tucks b.) ball combo 1 c.) squat to row

a.) chin tucks

How many cervical vertebrae make up the cervical spine? a.) 3 b.) 5 c.) 7 d.) 12

c.) 7

Polly demonstrates forward head posture during her assessment. Which of her muscles is most likely underactive? a.) latissimus dorsi b.) serratus anterior c.) sternocleidomastoid d.) deep cervical flexors

d.) deep cervical flexors

Which of the following exercises are appropriate to use to activate muscles involved in the shoulder elevation compensation a.) push-up plus and ball combo 1 b.) ball combo 2 with a dowel rod c.) ball scaption and ball cobra

c.) ball scaption and ball cobra

What is the minimum duration of acute static stretching per muscle group in isolation that would lead to performance impairments? a.) 20 secs b.) 30 secs c.) 60 secs d.) 120 secs

c.) 60 secs

What is the purpose of holding a ball between the knees during the seated thoracic rotation test? a.) to guide the path of rotation b.) to keep the feet apart c.) to stabilize the lower body

c.) to stabilize the lower body

The distal attachment of the pec major is the... a.) greater tubercle of humerus b.) clavicle, sternum, ribs 1-7 c.) medial border of the scapula

a.) greater tubercle of humerus

The isometric action of the rhomboids is... a.) stabilize the LPHC b.) stabilize the scapula c.) stabilize the shoulder girdle

b.) stabilize the scapula

The proximal attachment of the latissimus dorsi is... a.) clavicle, sternum, ribs 1-7 b.) spinous processes of T7-T12, iliac crest of the pelvis, thoracolumbar fascia, ribs 9-12 c.) spinous processes of C7-T5

b.) spinous processes of T7-T12, iliac crest of the pelvis, thoracolumbar fascia, ribs 9-12

The eccentric action of the latissimus dorsi is... a.) to slow down shoulder extension, horizontal abduction and external rotation b.) to slow down scapular protraction and upward rotation c.) to slow down shoulder flexion, abduction and external rotation

c.) to slow down shoulder flexion, abduction and external rotation

The concentric action of the rhomboids is to... a.) speed up scapular retraction and downward rotation b.) speed up scapular protraction and upward rotation c.) speed up shoulder flexion, horizontal adduction and internal rotation

b.) speed up scapular protraction and upward rotation

The eccentric action of the serratus anterior is... a.) scapular protraction b.) scapular retraction c.) scapular depression

b.) scapular retraction

The proximal attachment of the serratus anterior is... a.) acromion process b.) sternum c.) medial border of the scapula d.) ribs 4-12

d.) ribs 4-12

The distal attachment of the middle trapezius is... a.) spinous processes of T6-T12 b.) acromion process of scapula, spine of scapula c.) skull, spinous process of C1-C7

b.) acromion process of scapula, spine of scapula

The eccentric action of the lower trapezius is to slow down... a.) scapular depression b.) scapular adduction c.) scapular elevation

c.) scapular elevation

The concentric action of the middle trapezius is to speed up... a.) scapular depression b.) scapular elevation c.) scapular retraction

c.) scapular retraction

The proximal attachment of the upper trapezius is... a.) spinous process of T6-T12 b.) spinous process of T1-T5 c.) skull, spinous processes of C1-C7

c.) skull, spinous processes of C1-C7

The concentric action of the teres minor is.. a.) to speed up shoulder internal rotation b.) to speed up scapular protraction c.) to speed up shoulder external rotation

c.) to speed up shoulder external rotation

APK6320 - Corrective Exercise Flashcards

(218 cards)