APK 6116C - Exercise Physiology

Question 1

Systolic blood pressure at rest in a healthy person averages about 120mmHG throughout the course of a day. There are small fluctuations above and below 120mmHg, which are best described as ____________________.

a.) steady state
b.) positive feedback
c.) dynamic constancy
d.) adaptations

Answer 1

c.) dynamic constancy

Question 2

What is the major molecule believed to activate the pathway that stimulates lipolysis in fat and muscle cells?

a.) calcium
b.) inorganic phosphate
c.) epinephrine
d.) ADP

Answer 2

c.) epinephrine

Question 3

_________ is the molecule that’s important for activating creatine kinase?

a.) phosphocreatine
b.) ATP
c.) ADP
d.) creatine

Answer 3

c.) ADP

Question 4

What is the function of phosphocreatine?

a.) donate phosphate to ADP
b.) re-synthesize ADP
c.) power the myosin head
d.) breakdown ATP

Answer 4

a.) donate phosphate to ADP

Question 5

What is a major limiting factor with regard to the phosphagen system?

a.) there are large quantities of phosphocreatine
b.) there are small quantities of phosphocreatine
c.) there are small quantities of ATP
d.) creatine kinase is hard to activate

Answer 5

b.) there are small quantities of phosphocreatine

Question 6

What molecules activate glycogen phosphorylase?

a.) ATP and ADP
b.) epinephrine and calcium
c.) glucose and inorganic phosphate
d.) inorganic phosphate and ADP

Answer 6

b.) epinephrine and calcium

Question 7

What molecule activates phosphofructokinase?

a.) ATP
b.) ADP
c.) epinephrine
d.) calcium

Answer 7

b.) ADP

Question 8

What is the immediate purpose of converting pyruvate to lactate?

a.) so pyruvate can be oxidized
b.) resynthesize ATP
c.) regenerate NAD
d.) buffer ADP and inorganic phosphate levels

Answer 8

c.) regenerate NAD

Question 9

If anaerobic glycolysis only produces a net gain of 2 ATP, what is one possible purpose of the muscle cell ever utilizing it?

a.) it is the most efficient use of a glucose molecule
b.) it makes better use of available oxygen when ATP demand is high
c.) a net gain of 2 ATP is fine is ADP demand is low
d.) it produces ATP very quickly (bypassing oxygen) when ATP demand is high

Answer 9

d.) it produces ATP very quickly (bypassing oxygen) when ATP demand is high

Question 10

What is the first thing to happen to pyruvate once it enters into the mitochondria?

a.) it is oxidized to Acetyl-CoA
b.) it enters into the electron transport chain
c.) it is converted to lactate
d.) it enters into the citric acid (krebs) cycle

Answer 10

a.) it is oxidized to Acetyl-CoA

Question 11

What is the primary function and importance of oxygen within the mitochondria?

a.) to oxidize the 4th complex
b.) to oxidize NADH
c.) to produce water for the cell
d.) to directly form ATP

Answer 11

a.) to oxidize the 4th complex

Question 12

Why is it that during more moderate ATP demand instances, most pyruvate is shuttled into the mitochondria?

a.) because sufficient oxygen is coming to the electron transport chain
b.) because pyruvate transport proteins become available
c.) because lactate dehydrogenase is not available
d.) because enough lactate has been produced at this point

Answer 12

a.) because sufficient oxygen is coming to the electron transport chain

Question 13

As pyruvate accumulates during glycolysis, what happens next?

a.) it is converted into acetyl-CoA
b.) it is moved out of the cell into the interstitial fluid
c.) it is directly converted into NAD
d.) it is converted into lactate

Answer 13

d.) it is converted into lactate

Question 14

What is the benefit of pyruvate converting into lactate?

a.) Acetyl-CoA results in the production of a lot of ATP to meet ATP demand
b.) it allows the cell to meet ATP demand by using anaerobic glycolysis combined with aerobic glycolysis
c.) pyruvate can be utilized by other cells if it is removed
d.) converting pyruvate into NAD allows for greater ATP production from NAD

Answer 14

b.) it allows the cell to meet ATP demand by using anaerobic glycolysis combined with aerobic glycolysis

Question 15

What is the core of the plasma membrane mostly composed of?

a.) fatty acid tails
b.) integral proteins
c.) cholesterol
d.) phosphate heads

Answer 15

a.) fatty acid tails

Question 16

Which type of transport involves molecules moving from a high to low concentration through the plasma membrane with no integral protein?

a.) osmosis
b.) simple diffusion
c.) diffusion through channels
d.) facilitated diffusion

Answer 16

b.) simple diffusion

Question 17

Q
Which type of transport involves the diffusion of ions past an integral protein to provide the energy to pump other molecules or atoms from a low to high concentration?

a.) primary active
b.) secondary active
c.) facilitated diffusion
d.) osmosis

Answer 17

b.) secondary active

Question 18

_________ receives information in the form of electricity and sends it towards the trigger zone.

a.) cell body
b.) dendrite
c.) axon terminal
d.) axon hillock

Answer 18

b.) dendrite

Question 19

__________ are the branches of the axon where the action potential will spread before reaching the axon button.

a.) dendrites
b.) axon terminals
c.) nodes of Ranvier
d.) myelin sheath

Answer 19

b.) axon terminals

Question 20

True or False: Schwann cells create one section of myelin sheath in the PNS, whereas oligodendrocytes create multiple sections in the CNS.

Answer 20

True

Question 21

______________ is a type of diffusion where pores serve as a passageway for ionic and polar molecules to travel.

a.) simple diffusion
b.) diffusion through channels
c.) facilitated diffusion
d.) primary active transport

Answer 21

b.) diffusion through channels

Question 22

How is it possible for SA node fibers to generate their own action potentials?

a.) they release their own excitatory neurotransmitters
b.) voltage gated sodium channels open when the fiber is at its resting membrane potential
c.) the opening of ligand gated sodium channels
d.) epinephrine opens calcium channels

Answer 22

b.) voltage gated sodium channels open when the fiber is at its resting membrane potential

Question 23

What is one way that cardiac and skeletal muscle fibers differ in terms of the process of contraction?

a.) calcium for contraction comes mostly from the SR in cardiac muscle fibers
b.) there is no DHP receptor in the T-tubule in cardiac muscle fibers
c.) calcium for contraction comes mostly from the extracellular fluid in cardiac muscle fibers
d.) DHP and ryanodine receptors are physically attached in cardiac muscle fibers

Answer 23

c.) calcium for contraction comes mostly from the extracellular fluid in cardiac muscle fibers

Question 24

What pathway is activated when adrenergic receptors on the SA node fibers are stimulated?

a.) calcium calmodulin
b.) PIP2
c.) IP3
d.) cAMP

Answer 24

d.) cAMP

Question 25

How does stimulation of adrenergic receptors on ventricular cardiac muscle fibers result in them producing more force?

a.) by opening sodium channels
b.) by increasing the amount of intracellular calcium
c.) by decreasing the calcium ATPase rate on the SR
d.) by opening potassium channels

Answer 25

b.) by increasing the amount of intracellular calcium

Question 26

Regarding RER, if someone is consuming much more oxygen than carbon dioxide is being produced, what macronutrient are their muscle cells mostly consuming for the production of ATP?

a.) carbs
b.) protein
c.) fatty acids

Answer 26

c.) fatty acids

Question 27

During prolonged steady state low intensity exercise, fatty acids progressively get more utilized by the working muscle cells. What is one factor that accounts for this shift?

a.) rising blood levels of lactate
b.) rising blood levels of hydrogen ions.
c.) fast twitch fibers are initially recruited, but are then “shut off”
d.) rising body temperature and blood levels of epinephrine

Answer 27

d.) rising body temperature and blood levels of epinephrine

Question 28

One theory regarding fatigue during long duration endurance events is that glycogen becomes depleted within the muscle cells, making the cells almost entirely reliant on fatty acids. What is one of the reasons that this may cause fatigue?

a.) ketones are produced, which are acidic
b.) higher quantities of hydrogen ions will be produced.
c.) there is a lack of fatty acids in the blood to sufficiently meet ATP demand
d.) pyruvate is needed to make Krebs cycle intermediates, that are used to break down fatty acids at a sufficient rate to meet ATP demand

Answer 28

d.) pyruvate is needed to make Krebs cycle intermediates, that are used to break down fatty acids at a sufficient rate to meet ATP demand

Question 29

Why does shortening velocity within a fiber increase as force decreases?

a.) less myosin can be bound to actin at a given time
b.) the sarcomere is moved into a suboptimal position
c.) the cycling rate of myosin decreases
d.) increased velocities decrease how much calcium can bind to actin

Answer 29

a.) less myosin can be bound to actin at a given time

Question 30

What does a high myosin ATPase rate tell you about Type IIx fibers?

a.) it takes a lot of time to produce peak force.
b.) they resist fatigue well.
c.) they have a great ability to oxidize fatty acids
d.) they shorten fast

Answer 30

d.) they shorten fast

Question 31

Why is there a steady but not significant rise in lactate from 20-60% of VO2max (lower intensity exercise)?

a.) cells are always producing some lactate, this is just chance
b.) type IIa fibers have been recruited and are producing some lactate, but not enough of serious significance
c.) type I fibers are being pushed towards their upper limit and are relying more on anaerobic glycolysis
d.) type IIa fibers have been recruited, which always produce lactate

Answer 31

b.) type IIa fibers have been recruited and are producing some lactate, but not enough of serious significance

Question 32

At what exercise stage is lactate threshold hit?

a.) 2
b.) 3
c.) 4
d.) 5

Answer 32

b.) 3

Question 33

What is the likely explanation for what causes lactate threshold?

a.) type IIx fibers have been recruited, which produce ATP mostly through anaerobic glycolysis
b.) type IIa fibers have become very reliant on anaerobic metabolism at this point and type IIx fibers have also been recruited (which rely almost exclusively on anaerobic glycolysis)
c.) type IIa fibers have just began to produce lactate at this intensity
d.) type IIx fibers have reached an intensity at lactate threshold where they transition from aerobic to anaerobic glycolysis

Answer 33

b.) type IIa fibers have become very reliant on anaerobic metabolism at this point and type IIx fibers have also been recruited (which rely almost exclusively on anaerobic glycolysis)

Question 34

What is the equation for cardiac output?

a.) HR x a-VO2 difference
b.) SV x a-VO2 difference
c.) HR x SV
d.) aortic pressure x TPR

Answer 34

c.) HR x SV

Question 35

Why might a plateau be observed in SV and not a decrease in an untrained individual?

a.) decrease in aortic pressure
b.) increased sympathetic stimulation of cardiac muscle fibers
c.) increased venous return to due respiratory and muscle pump
d.) increase in HR

Answer 35

b.) increased sympathetic stimulation of cardiac muscle fibers

Question 36

What does a-VO2 difference look at?

a.) total peripheral resistance during exercise
b.) the amount of CO2 produced divided by the amount of O2 consumed
c.) the difference in arterial and venous blood oxygen content
d.) HR x SV

Answer 36

c.) the difference in arterial and venous blood oxygen content

Question 37

What is the most likely explanation for why cardiovascular drift must occur?

a.) increased parasympathetic activation
b.) increased sympathetic activation
c.) decreased filling time with higher heart rates
d.) loss of blood plasma decreases stroke volume

Answer 37

d.) loss of blood plasma decreases stroke volume

Question 38

Exercise hyperemia is an increased flow of blood to the working muscles (and less to other organs) during exercise. What allows for this to occur?

a.) constriction of all blood vessels in systemic circulation
b.) increased cardiac output
c.) dilation of all blood vessels in systemic circulation
d.) dilation of blood vessels specifically next to working muscle

Answer 38

d.) dilation of blood vessels specifically next to working muscle

Question 39

Aortic pressure does not change much even with high intensity exercise. How is this possible?

a.) cardiac output increases with exercise
b.) total peripheral resistance decreases with exercise
c.) the aorta dilates with exercise
d.) stroke volume decreases

Answer 39

b.) total peripheral resistance decreases with exercise

Question 40

How is it possible that the total peripheral resistance decreases with exercise?

a.) due to CO2, H+, etc. binding to the aorta
b.) due to the sympathetic nervous system becoming more active
c.) due to the dilation of the vessels around the working muscle
d.) due to increased afterload

Answer 40

c.) due to the dilation of the vessels around the working muscle

Question 41

During development of the resting membrane potential, why does more potassium exit the cell than sodium enter the cell?

a.) the cell is more permeable to sodium
b.) the equilibrium potential is higher
c.) the cell is more permeable to potassium
d.) the equilibrium potential is lower

Answer 41

c.) the cell is more permeable to potassium

Question 42

During the development of the resting membrane potential, what happens to the interior of the cell if potassium exits the cell at a greater rate than sodium enters?

a.) the exterior becomes negative
b.) the interior becomes negative
c.) a chemical driving force develops
d.) an action potential occurs

Answer 42

b.) the interior becomes negative

Question 43

What occurs with regard to sodium and potassium movement when the interior is -70mV (the resting membrane potential?)

a.) an action potential occurs
b.) sodium enters at a greater rate than potassium exits
c.) sodium enters at the same rate that potassium exits
d.) sodium enters at a slower rate than potassium exits

Answer 43

c.) sodium enters at the same rate that potassium exits

Question 44

What type of transport works to maintain the concentrations of sodium and potassium inside the cell?

a.) simple diffusion
b.) secondary active
c.) facilitated diffusion
d.) primary active

Answer 44

d.) primary active

Question 45

Why does ACh binding to the receptors on the dendrites of the post-synaptic neuron result in a depolarization (more positive)?

a.) it increases the rate of the sodium/potassium pumps
b.) it allows sodium to enter
c.) it allows chloride to enter
d.) it allows potassium to quickly exit

Answer 45

b.) it allows sodium to enter

Question 46

What happens in the hillock when threshold is reached?

a.) voltage gated sodium channels open
b.) voltage gated potassium channels open
c.) ligand gated chloride channels open
d.) ligand gated calcium channels open

Answer 46

a.) voltage gated sodium channels open

Question 47

What must occur in the axon terminal button for neurotransmitters to be released into the extracellular fluid?

a.) voltage gated sodium channels must open
b.) ligand gated sodium channels must open
c.) voltage gated calcium channels must open
d.) ligand gated calcium channels must open

Answer 47

c.) voltage gated calcium channels must open

Question 48

Graded potentials are known as decremental while action potentials are non-decremental. What does this mean?

a.) action potentials dissipate (lose voltage) over time
b.) graded potentials increase in size (voltage) over time
c.) action potentials increase in size (voltage) over time
d.) graded potentials dissipate (lose voltage) over time

Answer 48

d.) graded potentials dissipate (lose voltage) over time

Question 49

What is a receptor?

a.) afferent neuron
b.) dendrite
c.) the first “thing” that senses the stimulus
d.) sensory neuron

Answer 49

c.) the first “thing” that senses the stimulus

Question 50

What is the function of sensory (afferent) neurons that are wrapped around muscle spindles?

a.) they travel to the spinal cord and activate alpha motor neurons of the muscle being stretched
b.) they travel to the spinal cord and activate neurons within the primary motor cortex
c.) they travel to the spinal cord and activate alpha motor neurons of the antagonistic muscle
d.) they travel to the spinal cord and inhibit alpha motor neurons of the muscle being stretched

Answer 50

a.) they travel to the spinal cord and activate alpha motor neurons of the muscle being stretched

Question 51

Which statement is true about reciprocal inhibition?

a.) the sensory neuron will also activate alpha motor neurons of the antagonistic muscle
b.) the sensory neuron will also inhibit the alpha motor neurons being stretched
c.) the sensory neuron will also inhibit alpha motor neurons of the antagonist muscle
d.) the sensory neuron will also inhibit neurons within the primary motor cortex

Answer 51

a.) the sensory neuron will also activate alpha motor neurons of the antagonistic muscle

Question 52

What is the function of the golgi tendon organ and associated sensory neurons?

a.) sense high levels of tension within tendons and inhibit the alpha motor neurons of the active muscle
b.) sense touch within the tendon and activate the alpha motor neurons of the active muscle
d.) sense high levels of tension within tendons and activate the alpha motor neurons of the antagonist muscle

Answer 52

a.) sense high levels of tension within tendons and inhibit the alpha motor neurons of the active muscle

Question 53

Which protein covers the myosin binding sites on actin?

a.) tropomyosin
b.) the myosin tail
c.) troponin
d.) the myosin head

Answer 53

a.) tropomyosin

Question 54

With regard to the power stroke and myosin filament, what actually results in the pulling of actin towards the M-line?

a.) the tilting of the myosin head
b.) ADP being released
c.) inorganic phosphate being released
d.) the recoiling (contraction) of the neck or hinge region

Answer 54

d.) the recoiling (contraction) of the neck or hinge region

Question 55

What is the T-Tubule?

a.) where all the RyR receptors are located
b.) an extension of the plasma membrane (sarcolemma)
c.) the binding location for ACh
d.) a storage site for calcium

Answer 55

b.) an extension of the plasma membrane (sarcolemma)

Question 56

What direct/immediate purpose does ACh serve within the synapse between the alpha motor neurons and muscle fibers (neuromuscular function)?

a.) to allow calcium out of the SR
b.) to allow sodium to enter into the muscle fiber
c.) to allow myosin to interact with calcium
d.) to allow potassium out of the muscle fiber

Answer 56

b.) to allow sodium to enter into the muscle fiber

Question 57

What is the direct/immediate purpose of the AP spreading down the sarcolemma and T-tubule?

a.) to allow myosin and actin to interact
b.) to shift tropomyosin off the binding sites on actin
c.) to open DHP/RyR receptors
d.) to allow calcium to be reuptaken into the SR

Answer 57

c.) to open DHP/RyR receptors

Question 58

Why is there a suboptimal amount of force produced within the muscle fiber during a muscle twitch?

a.) inorganic phosphate is preventing myosin and actin interaction
b.) calcium is reuptaken before maximal amounts of myosin can bind to actin
c.) calcium release is exceeding reuptake but not by enough
d.) the release of calcium is significantly exceeding reuptake but ATP is lacking

Answer 58

b.) calcium is reuptaken before maximal amounts of myosin can bind to actin

Question 59

What is the term used to describe when an alpha motor neuron generates more frequent action potentials to cause a muscle fiber to produce more force?

a.) excitation contraction coupling
b.) temporal summation
c.) the power stroke
d.) spatial summation

Answer 59

b.) temporal summation

Question 60

Q
If you want to activate more and larger alpha motor neurons that go to a particular muscle, what must happen?

a.) the upper motor neuron must generate stronger APs
b.) the lower motor neuron must lower its threshold
c.) the lower motor neuron must increase its threshold
d.) the upper motor neuron must generate more frequent APs

Answer 60

d.) the upper motor neuron must generate more frequent APs

Question 61

What allows for the larger alpha motor neurons to be “activated?”

a.) less neurotransmitter is now required in their synaptic clefts over time to hit threshold
b.) less neurotransmitter is released into their synaptic clefts over time, allowing them to hit threshold
c.) more neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic clefts over time, allowing them to hit threshold

Answer 61

c.) more neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic clefts over time, allowing them to hit threshold

Question 62

_____________ is the process of activating more alpha motor neurons so the whole muscle can produce more force by way of more muscle fibers contracting?

a.) spatial summation
b.) excitation contraction coupling
c.) temporal summation
d.) the power stroke

Answer 62

a.) spatial summation

Question 63

What does the term “depolarization” mean?

a.) anytime the interior of a neuron becomes more positive
b.) anytime the exterior of a neuron becomes more positive
c.) anytime the interior of a neuron becomes more negative
d.) anytime the exterior of a neuron becomes more negative

Answer 63

a.) anytime the interior of a neuron becomes more positive

Question 64

What does the term “hyperpolarization” mean?

a.) anytime the interior of a neuron becomes more positive
b.) anytime the exterior of a neuron becomes more positive
c.) anytime the interior of a neuron becomes more negative
d.) anytime the exterior of a neuron becomes more negative

Answer 64

c.) anytime the interior of a neuron becomes more negative

Question 65

Voltage gated channels open up in the _____________, allowing sodium to rush in and recharge a myelinated neuron to +30mV.

a.) Nodes of Ranvier
b.) axon hillock
c.) myelin sheath
d.) synaptic cleft

Answer 65

a.) Nodes of Ranvier

Question 66

What is a type of receptor that provides information about muscle length and rate of shortening?

a.) Golgi tendon organs
b.) muscle spindles
c.) Pacinian corpuscles
d.) skeletal muscle chemoreceptors

Answer 66

b.) muscle spindles

Question 67

What is a type of receptor that provides information about muscle force production?

a.) Golgi tendon organs
b.) muscle spindles
c.) Pacinian corpuscles
d.) skeletal muscle chemoreceptors

Answer 67

a.) Golgi tendon organs

Question 68

_____________ results in the inhibition of the motor neurons, that cause contraction of the same muscle experiencing excessive tension to prevent damage to that muscle.

a.) reciprocal inhibition
b.) autogenic inhibition

Answer 68

b.) autogenic inhibition

Question 69

Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding the vestibular apparatus?

a.) allows for equilibrium
b.) it is important for adjusting eye movements
c.) it is sensitive to changes in chemical environments
d.) any change in head position can stimulate it

Answer 69

c.) it is sensitive to changes in chemical environments

Question 70

What is the term for the groups of muscle fibers surrounded by the perimysium?

a.) myofibrils
b.) fascicles
c.) sarcomeres

Answer 70

b.) fascicles

Question 71

What is the term for the cylinder shapes that make up repeating segments of sarcomeres that make up the majority of muscle fibers?

a.) myofibrils
b.) fascicles
c.) sarcolemma

Answer 71

a.) myofibrils

Question 72

True or False: myosin is a thick filament line which slightly overlaps actin on both sides.

Answer 72

True

Question 73

True or False: the A-band is where myosin exists without any overlapping actin.

Answer 73

False - correct answer is H-Zone

Question 74

True or False: the I-band is where actin exists without any overlapping myosin.

Answer 74

True

Question 75

What two components are needed for a muscle contraction to happen?

a.) sodium and calcium
b.) sodium and ATP
c.) calcium and ATP
d.) sodium and potassium

Answer 75

c.) calcium and ATP

Question 76

The amount of sodium coming into a small alpha motor neuron will allow it to reach its membrane potential faster than the same amount of sodium coming into a larger alpha motor neuron, which allows for spatial summation to be achieved. This is known as the…

a.) all-or-nothing principle
b.) size principle
c.) Frank Starling mechanism
d.) Fick equation

Answer 76

b.) size principle

Question 77

Which of the following is true when a muscle is at an optimal length?

a.) myosin heads are not binding with actin
b.) myosin and actin are very overlapped
c.) the sarcomeres are so shortened that they inhibit the myosin heads from binding to actin

Answer 77

b.) myosin and actin are very overlapped

Question 78

What type of muscle fiber has the highest amount of mitochondria?

a.) Type I
b.) Type IIx
c.) Type IIa

Answer 78

a.) Type I

Question 79

A long-distance runner will typically have more of which type of muscle fibers?

a.) Type I
b.) Type IIx
c.) Type IIa

Answer 79

a.) Type I

Question 80

True or False: lactate threshold is another name for anaerobic threshold.

Answer 80

True

Question 81

Which of the following best describes the oxygen deficit period?

a.) there is not enough oxygen being consumed during the first few minutes of exercise, so aerobic metabolism is utilized to meet the demands
b.) there is not enough oxygen being consumed during the first few minutes of exercise, so anaerobic metabolism and the phosphagen system is utilized to meet the demands
c.) there is not enough oxygen being consumed after the first few minutes of exercise, so anaerobic metabolism and the phosphagen system is utilized to meet the demands

Answer 81

b.) there is not enough oxygen being consumed during the first few minutes of exercise, so anaerobic metabolism and the phosphagen system is utilized to meet the demands

Question 82

Which type of muscle fibers have the least ability to receive and consume oxygen?

a.) Type I
b.) Type IIx
c.) Type IIa

Answer 82

b.) Type IIx

Question 83

What muscles cause the ribs to rise up and anteriorly?

a.) diaphragm
b.) external intercostals
c.) internal intercostals
d.) internal obliques

Answer 83

b.) external intercostals

Question 84

During inspiration, the chest wall expands and…

a.) pleural pressure increases
b.) volume within the pleural cavity decreases
c.) pleural pressure decreases
d.) alveolar pressure increases

Answer 84

c.) pleural pressure decreases

Question 85

How does inspiration influence the lungs?

a.) lungs recoil and alveolar pressure increases
b.) lungs recoil and alveolar pressure decreases
c.) lungs expand and alveolar pressure increases
d.) lungs expand and alveolar pressure decreases

Answer 85

d.) lungs expand and alveolar pressure decreases

Question 86

During expiration, transpulmonary pressure…

a.) decreases, causing the lungs to recoil
b.) decreases, causing the lungs to expand
c.) increases, causing the lungs to recoil
d.) increases, causing the lungs to expand

Answer 86

a.) decreases, causing the lungs to recoil

Question 86

True or False: transpulmonary pressure = alveolar pressure + pleural pressure

Answer 86

False: transpulmonary pressure = the difference between alveolar pressure and pleural pressure

Question 87

What contributes most to the elastic recoil of the lungs?

a.) elastic fibers within acinus
b.) contraction of smooth muscle within bronchioles
c.) mucus within bronchioles
d.) surface tension within alveoli

Answer 87

d.) surface tension within alveoli

Question 88

What can be done to increase resistance within the lungs?

a.) relaxation of smooth muscle within bronchioles
b.) contraction of smooth muscle within bronchioles
c.) decrease surface tension within alveoli
d.) increase surface tension within alveoli

Answer 88

b.) contraction of smooth muscle within bronchioles

Question 89

The amount of air that comes in and out of lungs within a normal breath is known as…

a.) functional residual capacity
b.) tidal volume
c.) vital capacity
d.) residual volume

Answer 89

b.) tidal volume

Question 90

The total amount of air remaining in the lungs after a normal expiration is complete and all respiratory muscles are relaxed (person is at rest) is known as…

a.) functional residual capacity
b.) tidal volume
c.) vital capacity
d.) residual volume

Answer 90

a.) functional residual capacity

Question 91

The maximal amount of air that can be removed from lungs is known as…

a.) functional residual capacity
b.) tidal volume
c.) vital capacity
d.) residual volume

Answer 91

c.) vital capacity

Question 92

The amount of air that’s always in the lungs, due to transpulmonary pressure is called…

a.) functional residual capacity
b.) tidal volume
c.) vital capacity
d.) residual volume

Answer 92

d.) residual volume

Question 93

What would you expect to see in someone with a restrictive (low compliance) lung disease?

a.) decreased flow rate
b.) increased functional residual capacity
c.) decreased vital capacity/total lung capacity
d.) increased vital capacity/total lung capacity

Answer 93

c.) decreased vital capacity/total lung capacity

Question 94

Why does the partial pressure of oxygen decrease as it moves into the lungs?

a.) because the air is humidified and mixed with air in the lungs that is rich in O2
b.) because total air pressure decreases
c.) because the air is humidified and mixed with air in the lungs that is rich in CO2
d.) because the partial pressure of nitrogen increases

Answer 94

c.) because the air is humidified and mixed with air in the lungs that is rich in CO2

Question 95

How is it possible for the partial pressure of O2 within the air and fluid to be exactly the same, yet the concentrations different?

a.) the contractions of CO2 are higher in the air
b.) O2 is very polar and binds well with water
c.) O2 is non-polar and does NOT bind well with water
d.) the contractions of nitrogen are higher in the air

Answer 95

c.) O2 is non-polar and does NOT bind well with water

Question 96

What is the most important reason for driving the partial pressure of O2 within the blood plasma in the pulmonary capillaries up to 100mmHg?

a.) to carry O2 within the plasma to the cells of the body
b.) to shift the oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve to the left
c.) to shift the oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve to the right
d.) to allow hemoglobin to bind more O2 (become more saturated)

Answer 96

d.) to allow hemoglobin to bind more O2 (become more saturated)

Question 97

What is the most important reason for driving the partial pressure of O2 within the blood plasma in the systemic capillaries down to 40mmHg?

a.) to release O2 within the plasma into the cells of the body
b.) to shift the oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve to the left
c.) to allow hemoglobin to bind less oxygen (become less saturated)
d.) to shift the oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve to the right

Answer 97

c.) to allow hemoglobin to bind less oxygen (become less saturated)

Question 98

What is the functional difference between myoglobin and hemoglobin?

a.) myoglobin is more saturated with O2 at a lower partial pressure of oxygen
b.) hemoglobin is more saturated with O2 at a higher partial pressure of oxygen
c.) myoglobin is less saturated with O2 at a higher partial pressure of oxygen
d.) hemoglobin is more saturated with O2 at a lower partial pressure of oxygen

Answer 98

a.) myoglobin is more saturated with O2 at a lower partial pressure of oxygen

Question 99

Why does VCO2 increase as exercise intensity increases?

a.) the muscle fibers are running oxidative phosphorylation at a greater rate
b.) muscle fibers are using anaerobic metabolism
c.) inorganic phosphate in the muscle fibers
d.) oxygen consumption decreases within the muscle fibers

Answer 99

a.) the muscle fibers are running oxidative phosphorylation at a greater rate

Question 100

How is an increased VCO2 during exercise related to an increased VE?

a.) an increase in hydrogen ions in the blood activates chemoreceptors, which drive an increased respiratory rate
b.) anaerobic glycolysis is a potent stimulator of neurons within the respiratory control center
c.) an increase in inorganic phosphate increases the intensity of breathing
d.) hypoxia that occurs during exercise increases respiratory rate

Answer 100

a.) an increase in hydrogen ions in the blood activates chemoreceptors, which drive an increased respiratory rate

Question 101

What is ventilatory threshold?

a.) the point at which anaerobic metabolism begins within the body
b.) the point at which VCO2 increases exponentially
c.) the point at which ventilation increases non-linearly
d.) the point at which oxygen consumption rises non-linearly

Answer 101

c.) the point at which ventilation increases non-linearly

Question 102

What is it about lactate threshold occurring that may cause ventilatory threshold to occur?

a.) inorganic phosphate is a potent stimulator of chemoreceptors
b.) muscle fibers that have a higher ATP demand than supply (resynthesis) produce large quantities of hydrogen ions, which hyperstimulate chemoreceptors
c.) increase in hyodrgen ions hyperstimulates primary motor cortex neurons
d.) muscle fibers relying mostly on anaerobic metabolism produce large quantities of hydrogen ions, which hyperstimulate chemoreceptors

Answer 102

d.) muscle fibers relying mostly on anaerobic metabolism produce large quantities of hydrogen ions, which hyperstimulate chemoreceptors

Question 103

Besides the lactate threshold theory, what’s another possible explanation of ventilatory threshold?

a.) hydrogen ions accumulate from anaerobic glycolysis and hyperstimulate primary motor cortex neurons
b.) increased CO2 in the blood hyperstimulates chemoreceptors, which hyperstimulate neurons in the respiratory control center
c.) due to high intensity exercise, neurons in the primary motor cortex are hyperactive, and spill over and hyperstimulate neurons in the respiratory control center
d.) decreased oxygen within the muscle fibers results in an increased amount of inorganic phosphate, which activates neurons in the respiratory control center

Answer 103

c.) due to high intensity exercise, neurons in the primary motor cortex are hyperactive, and spill over and hyperstimulate neurons in the respiratory control center

Question 104

Which of the following can produce heat within the body?

a.) evaporation
b.) vasodilation
c.) free radicals
d.) glycolysis

Answer 104

d.) glycolysis

Question 105

What type of heat loss or gain involves heat being transferred to the air/water as it passes by the body?

a.) evaporation
b.) convection
c.) radiation
d.) conduction

Answer 105

b.) convection

Question 106

What type of heat loss or gain involves heat being transferred to another surface (such as pavement) as it passes by the body?

a.) evaporation
b.) convection
c.) radiation
d.) conduction

Answer 106

d.) conduction

Question 107

What type of environment makes heat loss through evaporation difficult to achieve?

a.) humid environments
b.) hot environments
c.) dry environments
d.) cold environments

Answer 107

a.) humid environments

Question 108

What method of heat loss is generally the most important during exercise?

a.) evaporation
b.) convection
c.) radiation
d.) conduction

Answer 108

a.) evaporation

Question 109

What is a hormone?

a.) chemical messenger released by one tissue that targets another tissue via the bloodstream
b.) steroid used for muscle hypertrophy
c.) chemical messenger that travels through the blood
d.) chemical messenger released by a gland

Answer 109

a.) chemical messenger released by one tissue that targets another tissue via the bloodstream

Question 110

What has broad “control” over the anterior pituitary?

a.) posterior pituitary
b.) hypothalamus
c.) testosterone levels
d.) estrogen levels

Answer 110

b.) hypothalamus

Question 111

Why do testosterone levels begin to fall when they rise?

a.) testosterone activates the anterior pituitary
b.) testosterone inhibits the hypothalamus
c.) testosterone inhibits the testes
d.) testosterone increases the metabolism of testosterone in the liver

Answer 111

b.) testosterone inhibits the hypothalamus

Question 112

Which hormone triggers the adrenal cortex to release its hormone?

a.) cortisol
b.) TSH
c.) ACTH
d.) aldosterone

Answer 112

c.) ACTH

Question 113

What is the function of glucagon?

a.) block the uptake of glucose by cells
b.) inhibit the release of insulin
c.) increase blood glucose levels
d.) decrease blood glucose levels

Answer 113

c.) increase blood glucose levels

Question 114

Why do hydrophobic hormones need transport proteins to be carried in the blood?

a.) because they are too large to be carried without them
b.) because they are polar, and must be carried instead of binding to plasma
c.) because they are non-polar, and blood plasma is polar
d.) because they cannot enter cells without them

Answer 114

c.) because they are non-polar, and blood plasma is polar

Question 115

Which airway includes the nose to the bronchioles moving air into and out of the lungs?

a.) conducting zone
b.) respiratory zone

Answer 115

a.) conducting zone

Question 116

Which airway includes the respiratory bronchioles and alveoli and moves the respiratory gases in and out of the blood?

a.) conducting zone
b.) respiratory zone

Answer 116

b.) respiratory zone

Question 117

______________ is the amount of pressure that exists in the lungs.

a.) atmospheric pressure
b.) alveolar pressure
c.) pleural pressure
d.) transpulmonary pressure

Answer 117

b.) alveolar pressure

Question 118

True of False: perfusion is defined as how much blood flows to the lungs.

Answer 118

True

Question 119

Which of the following is true regarding perfusion?

a.) blood flows more easily to the upper cavity
b.) there is more blood pressure in the upper cavity
c.) there is more blood pressure in the lower cavity
d.) perfusion decreases by increasing cardiac output

Answer 119

c.) there is more blood pressure in the lower cavity

Question 120

____________ releases hydrogen ions into a fluid, while ____________ combines with hydrogen ions that exist in a fluid.

a.) acid; base
b.) base; acid

Answer 120

a.) acid; base

Question 121

_________ is when pH is above 7.4

a.) acidosis
b.) alkalosis
c.) alkaline

Answer 121

b.) alkalosis

Question 122

How does the body produce heat?

a.) when cells breakdown macronutrients
b.) hydrolysis during ATP
c.) both A and B
d.) neither A nor B

Answer 122

c.) both A and B

Question 123

True or False: acclimatization is the adaptations that the body goes through to adapt to a hot environment for days to weeks

Answer 123

False; acclimation

Question 124

Which of the following changes DO NOT occur as someone acclimates to a hot environment?

a.) blood plasma volume increases
b.) sweat rate decreases
c.) heart rate decreases
d.) stroke volume increases

Answer 124

b.) sweat rate decreases

Question 125

True or False: adipose tissue is considered part of the endocrine system, because it secretes hormones.

Answer 125

True

Question 126

_________ is a steroid hormone released by the adrenal cortex, that is considered one of the most important stress hormones.

a.) aldosterone
b.) androgen
c.) estrogen
d.) cortisol

Answer 126

d.) cortisol

Question 127

____________ is a hormone released by the adrenal medulla that responds to exercise intensity by increasing Heart Rate and Blood Pressure.

a.) aldosterone
b.) cortisol
c.) epinephrine
d.) norepinephrine

Answer 127

c.) epinephrine

Question 128

____________ is a hormone released from the pancreas that promotes the storage of glucose, amino acids and fats and could cause diabetes mellitus if there’s a lack of it.

a.) cortisol
b.) epinephrine
c.) insulin
d.) glucagon

Answer 128

c.) insulin

Question 129

______________ is a hormone released from the pancreas that tells the liver to break down glycogen when blood sugar levels are low.

a.) cortisol
b.) epinephrine
c.) insulin
d.) glucagon

Answer 129

d.) glucagon

Question 130

_____________ is a hormone released from the posterior pituitary that reduces water loss from the body to maintain blood plasma volume.

a.) LH
b.) FSH
c.) growth hormone
d.) ADH

Answer 130

d.) ADH

Question 131

____________ is a hormone released from the hypothalamus that controls the release of anterior pituitary hormones into the bloodstream.

a.) gonadotrophin-releasing hormone
b.) prolactin
c.) MSH
d.) oxytocin

Answer 131

a.) gonadotrophin-releasing hormone

Question 132

True or False: the alveoli can be well ventilated and exchange gases, if it is in line with blood flow.

Answer 132

True

Question 133

With a large increase in blood epinephrine levels during exercise, one would expect to see a large increase in ____________ as well (driven by epinephrine).

a.) gluconeogenesis
b.) calcium calmodulin dependent kinase activity
c.) IGF-1
d.) glycogenolysis

Answer 133

d.) glycogenolysis

Question 134

With months of training, which of the following would you expect to see?

a.) resting epinephrine levels decrease
b.) a reduction in GH levels during submaximal exercise
c.) epinephrine levels during maximal exercise decrease
d.) resting epinephrine levels rise

Answer 134

a.) resting epinephrine levels decrease

Question 135

The breakdown of glycogen within muscle cells will still occur during exercise even if adrenergic (epeinephrine) receptors are blocked on the cells. How is this possible?

a.) increased intracellular calcium activates glycogen phosphorylase
b.) T3 can take over
c.) inorganic phosphate and ADP activate glycogen phosphorylase
d.) glucagon can take over and activate glycogen phosphorylase

Answer 135

a.) increased intracellular calcium activates glycogen phosphorylase

Question 136

Why is it important that insulin concentrations decrease during exercise?

a.) promoting greater glucose uptake and storage during exercise would cause dangerously high levels of blood glucose
b.) glucagon can’t rise otherwise
c.) promoting greater glucose uptake and storage during exercise would be counterproductive
d.) epinephrine can’t rise otherwise

Answer 136

c.) promoting greater glucose uptake and storage during exercise would be counterproductive

Question 137

When would you expect to see the lowest level of free fatty acid mobilization?

a.) low intensity exercise
b.) high intensity exercise
c.) moderate intensity exercise

Answer 137

b.) high intensity exercise

Question 138

What would you expect to happen if someone overloaded a muscle eccentrically during training?

a.) a laceration
b.) a contusion
c.) a severe strain-induced muscle injury
d.) a mild strain-induced injury

Answer 138

d.) a mild strain-induced injury

Question 139

In what instance would you try to eliminate all inflammation?

a.) a contusion
b.) a strain-induced injury
c.) a laceration
d.) you would never want to eliminate all inflammation

Answer 139

d.) you would never want to eliminate all inflammation

Question 140

Which cell is very important for muscle regeneration?

a.) IGF-1 cell
b.) fibroblast cell
c.) satellite cell
d.) collagen cell

Answer 140

c.) satellite cell

Question 141

What is NOT part of PRICE?

a.) icing the injury
b.) protecting the injury and resting
c.) compression of the injury and elevation
d.) NSAID (anti-inflammatory drug) administration

Answer 141

d.) NSAID (anti-inflammatory drug) administration

Question 142

With endurance training, what anatomical changes would you expect to see in fast twitch fibers over time?

a.) a decrease in the number of capillaries around the fibers
b.) an increase in the number of slow myosin within the fibers
c.) a greater reliance on anaerobic glycolysis
d.) a decrease in mitochondrial density within the fibers

Answer 142

a.) a decrease in the number of capillaries around the fibers

Question 143

At what training intensity would you expect to see the largest increase in mitochondrial oxidative capacity (citrate synthase) within Type IIx fibers?

a.) 75% VO2 Max
b.) 55% VO2 Max
c.) 45% VO2 Max
d.) training intensity is not relevant

Answer 143

a.) 75% VO2 Max

Question 144

The ability to make repeated contractions against a submaximal load is called…

a.) muscular power
b.) strength training
c.) muscular endurance
d.) aerobic endurance

Answer 144

c.) muscular endurance

Question 145

What type of contraction involves force being exerted at a constant speed?

a.) isokinetic contraction
b.) isometric contraction
c.) isotonic contraction
d.) isometric contraction

Answer 145

a.) isokinetic contraction

Question 146

What is mostly responsible for the strength gains seen early on in a resistance training program?

a.) increased neural inhibition
b.) hyperplasia of muscle
c.) increased recruitment of motor units
d.) hypertrophy of muscle

Answer 146

c.) increased recruitment of motor units

Question 147

With detraining, where do the initial losses mostly come from?

a.) a decrease in stroke volume
b.) a decrease in avo2 difference
c.) a decrease in HR
d.) a reduction in mitochondrial content

Answer 147

a.) a decrease in stroke volume

Question 148

What is the following equation for HR Max * SV Max * (a-vo2) Max?

a.) maximal oxygen uptake
b.) basic oxygen consumption
c.) ejection fraction

Answer 148

a.) maximal oxygen uptake

Question 149

What is believed to account for the primary difference in VO2 Max within different populations?

a.) max HR
b.) ejection fraction
c.) a-vo2 difference
d.) stroke volume

Answer 149

d.) stroke volume

Question 150

How much training and at what intensity should someone do to improve VO2 Max?

a.) 60-120 mins, 2-3x per week at 50% VO2 Max
b.) 20-60 mins for 3+x per week at or above 50% VO2 Max
c.) 10-20 mins for 6x per week at or above 85% VO2 Max

Answer 150

b.) 20-60 mins for 3+x per week at or above 50% VO2 Max

Question 151

With endurance training, there are typically improvements in venous return, plasma volume and ventricular volume. All of these improvements should translate into a greater…

a.) arterial smooth muscle constriction
b.) stroke volume
c.) peripheral resistance
d.) Max HR

Answer 151

b.) stroke volume

Question 152

“You will get better at what you practice” is best describes which basic principle of training?

a.) principle of overload
b.) principle of specificity
c.) principle of reversibility

Answer 152

b.) principle of specificity

Question 153

Long slow distance training is best to improve…

a.) ATP-PC system
b.) fast glycolysis
c.) aerobic power

Answer 153

c.) aerobic power

Question 154

High-intensity, continuous exercise (aka tempo training) where the person is training for 20-40 mins at 70-85% of their VO2 Max is best to improve…

a.) ATP-PC system
b.) fast glycolysis
c.) aerobic power

Answer 154

c.) aerobic power

Question 155

20-60 second high-intensity work intervals are best to improve…

a.) ATP-PC system
b.) fast glycolysis
c.) aerobic power

Answer 155

b.) fast glycolysis

Question 156

Interval training of 30 seconds up to 3 minutes with a minimum work to rest ratio of 1:1 is best to improve…

a.) ATP-PC system
b.) fast glycolysis
c.) aerobic power

Answer 156

c.) aerobic power

Question 157

True or False: long, slow distance training is equally effective for untrained individuals and elite athletes.

Answer 157

False

Question 158

True or False: heritability accounts for around 50% of a person’s VO2 Max.

Answer 158

True

Question 159

A bicep curl with a dumbbell is an example of…

a.) isometric training
b.) isotonic training
c.) isokinetic training

Answer 159

b.) isotonic training

Question 160

After two years of endurance training, an athlete can expect to see improvements in _____________, which will improve their VO2 Max?

a.) HR Max
b.) SV Max
c.) a-vo2 difference

Answer 160

c.) a-vo2 difference

Question 161

True or False: PGC-1a is the key gene that can be improved with resistance training.

Answer 161

False; endurance training

Question 162

After 30 weeks of detraining, a person can expect to see a ___________, which is primarily due to nervous system changes.

a.) 11% decrease in strength
b.) 21% decrease in strength
c.) 31% decrease in strength
d.) 41% decrease in strength

Answer 162

c.) 31% decrease in strength

Question 163

True or False: longer, high-volume training can improve oxidative capacity of muscle.

Answer 163

True

Question 164

Which of the following is NOT a result of detraining, related to VO2 Max?

a.) rapid loss of plasma volume
b.) decrease in mitochondria
c.) decrease in Type IIx fibers
d.) decrease in maximal a-vo2 difference

Answer 164

c.) decrease in Type IIx fibers

Question 165

Which of the following is NOT a function of epinephrine when a person is exercising?

a.) increasing liver glucose metabolism
b.) advancing glucose uptake
c.) mobilizing muscle glycogen
d.) increasing FFA mobilization

Answer 165

b.) advancing glucose uptake

Question 166

True or False: people who are well-trained have less levels of epinephrine and norepinephrine.

Answer 166

True

Question 167

Which of the following is NOT one of the four processes of blood glucose homeostasis?

a.) blocking the entry of glucose into nonessential cells
b.) increasing the rate of glycolysis in adipose tissue
c.) mobilizing glucose from liver glycogen stores
d.) decreasing the rate of gluconeogenesis

Answer 167

d.) decreasing the rate of gluconeogenesis

Question 168

True or False: insulin levels increase during exercise.

Answer 168

False; they decrease

Question 169

True or False: glucagon levels increase during exercise.

Answer 169

True

Question 170

True or False: Free Fatty Acid levels increase during HIGH intensity exercise?

Answer 170

False; they decrease because glucose is better for meeting ATP demand in high intensity exercise

Question 171

What is the least common type of muscle injury?

a.) contusion
b.) strain-induced injury
c.) laceration

Answer 171

c.) laceration

Question 172

What is the most common site for a strain-induced injury?

a.) myo-tendinous junction
b.) muscle
c.) tendon
d.) ligament

Answer 172

a.) myo-tendinous junction

Question 173

The pathophysiology of a muscle injury from an ultrastructural perspective is best described as…

a.) damage to a whole muscle
b.) damage to an individual myofiber
c.) damage to an individual sarcomere

Answer 173

c.) damage to an individual sarcomere

Question 174

Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation?

a.) pain
b.) warmth
c.) paleness
d.) dysfunction

Answer 174

c.) paleness

Question 175

True or False: coagulation is important after a muscle injury, because it walls off the damaged area, which prevents infection and promotes healing.

Answer 175

True

Question 176

True or False: scar tissue is considered regeneration.

Answer 176

False; it is not - because a new identical tissue is not formed

Question 177

True or False: IGF-1 helps myoblast regenerate tissue, but also helps fibroblast synthasize collagen during repair.

Answer 177

True

Question 178

When is it appropriate to use heat instead of ice?

a.) after 24 hours
b.) immediately following the injury
c.) after 48 hours
d.) after 72 hours

Answer 178

c.) after 48 hours

Question 179

True or False: there is a high rate of re-injury for strain-induced injuries due to scar formation.

Answer 179

True