[ARC] Past Board Exam Flashcards by Study Monster

Which of the following is an extensive property of matter?

A. density
B. viscosity
C. freezing point
D. number of moles

D. number of moles

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Metals and solutions of electrolytes are _____.

A. insulators
B. polar
C. negative
D. conductors

D. conductors

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Mothballs are used as deodorizers and as pesticides. Upon exposing them in the air for a few hours, they disappeared. Which of the following best explains the scenario?

A. The mothballs underwent sublimation.
B. The mothballs underwent melting then vaporization.
C. The mothballs reacted with some component in the air.
D. None of the above.

A. The mothballs underwent sublimation.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is described as having components that CANNOT be physically separated?

A. mixture
B. solution
C. suspension
D. pure substance

D. pure substance

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is TRUE for C-13 isotope?

A. It has 6 neutron and 7 protons.
B. It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.
C. It has 6 neutron and 13 protons.
D. It has 6 protons and 13 neutrons.

B. It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A prediction or a possible explanation to the question or problem which can be tested in an experiment is called

A. hypothesis
B. procedure
C. graph
D. data

A. hypothesis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Express the number 0.051065 to four significant figures.

A. 0.051
B. 0.051
C. 0.05106
D. 0.0511

C. 0.05106

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The volume of a liquid is 20.5 mL. Which of the following sets of measurement represents the value with good accuracy?

A. 19.2 mL, 19.3 mL, 18.8 mL, 18.6 mL
B. 18.9 mL, 19.0 mL, 19.2 mL, 18.8 mL
C. 18.6 mL, 17.8 mL, 19.6 mL, 17.2 mL
D. 20.2 mL, 20.5 mL, 20.3 mL, 20.1 mL

D. 20.2 mL, 20.5 mL, 20.3 mL, 20.1 mL

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Noble gases are inert because they have completed outer electron shells. Which of these elements is NOT a noble gas?

A. Chlorine
B. Krypton
C. Helium
D. Argon

A. Chlorine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the most common isotope of Hydrogen?

A. Hydrogen only has one isotope
B. Deuterium
C. Tritium
D. Protium

D. Protium

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

From left to right in a periodic table

A. atomic radius increases
B. ionization energy decreases
C. electronegativity increases
D. none of the above

C. electronegativity increases

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Balance the following equation: Ag + O2 → Ag2O

A. Put 2 for Ag
B. Put 4 for Ag and 2 for Ag2O
C. Put subscript 2 after Ag2O
D. Put 2 for Ag and 1 for Ag2O

B. Put 4 for Ag and 2 for Ag2O

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which is NOT an acceptable name for Hg2Cl2?

A. mercury(II) chloride
B. mercury(I) chloride
C. mercurous chloride
D. dimercury dichloride

A. mercury(II) chloride

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following does NOT describe a nonpolar bond?

A. It is a bond between similar nonmetals.
B. It is a bond between different nonmetals.
C. It has a dipole moment.
D. All describes a nonpolar bond.

C. It has a dipole moment.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the chemical formula of diphosphorus monobromide?

A. PBr2
B. PBr
C. P2Br2
D. P2Br

D. P2Br

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Under the Lewis concept of acid and bases, an acid is

A. an electron pair donor
B. a proton acceptor
C. a proton donor
D. an electron pair acceptor

D. an electron pair acceptor

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is NOT an acid?

A. milk of magnesia
B. apple juice
C. milk
D. gastric juice

A. milk of magnesia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which is NOT an acid-base conjugate pair?

A. NH₃ and NH₄⁺
B. H₂S and OH⁻
C. H₂O and OH⁻
D. HCN and CN⁻

B. H₂S and OH⁻

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When ammonium chloride (NH4Cl) hydrolyzes, the resulting solution is ____.

A. acidic
B. basic
C. neutral
D. none of the choices

A. acidic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is the correct composition of aqua regia?

A. 1 HNO3 : 3 HCl
B. 3 HNO3 : 1 HCl
C. 2 HNO3 : 3 HCl
D. 3 HNO3 : 2 HCl

A. 1 HNO3 : 3 HCl

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Sodium carbonate is also known as?

A. baking soda (NaHCO3)
B. soda ash (Na2CO3)
C. caustic potash (KOH)
D. caustic soda (NaOH)

B. soda ash (Na2CO3)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The standard pressure of the atmosphere at sea level is

A. 1 atm
B. 760 mm Hg
C. 760 torr
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is the closest to being an ideal gas?

A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Helium
D. Hydrogen

C. Helium

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What happens to the volume of a fully inflated balloon when it is taken outside on a cold day?

A. its volume decreases
B. its volume increases
C. it remains the same
D. its volume becomes equal to zero

A. its volume decreases

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the molar mass or an unknown gas if 1.60 grams of that gas occupies a volume of 2.24 L at STP? A. 35.8 g/mol B. 160 g/mol C. 16.0 g/mol D. 81.0 g/mol

C. 16.0 g/mol

What is the molarity of a solution containing 72.9 grams of HCI in enough water to make 500 mL of solution? A. 2.0 mol/L B. 4.05 g/L C. 5.0 mol/L D. 4.05 mol/L

D. 4.05 mol/L

The number 2.34x107 is the scientific notation for A. 234000 B. 23400 C. 23400000 D. 2340000

C. 23400000

When Chromium changes from an oxidation state of +3 to +6, Cr³⁺ or Cr(III) must A. gain 6 electrons B. lose 6 electrons C. lose 3 electrons D. gain 3 electrons

C. lose 3 electrons

During the electroplating of silver, silver ions in solution _____. A. are oxidized at the anode B. are oxidized at the cathode C. are reduced at the cathode D. remain in solution unchanged

C. are reduced at the cathode

In an electrolytic cell, oxidation occurs A. at the anode B. between the cathode and the anode C. at either the cathode or the anode D. at the cathode

A. at the anode

For the reaction Mg + H2O -> MgO + H2 which is FALSE? A. H is the oxidizing agent B. Mg lost electrons C. Mg is the oxidizing agent D. H gained electrons

C. Mg is the oxidizing agent

Which is also equivalent to 0.01% percent by weight? A. 100 ppm B. 10 ppt C. 1 ppt D. 1 ppb

A. 100 ppm

What volume of 4M HCl is needed to prepare 1L of a 0.5 M dilute solution? A. 0.0125 L B. 0.125 L C. 0.0875 L D. 0.875 L

B. 0.125 L

The water content of an 875.4-mg sample of cheese was determined with a moisture analyzer. What is the %w/w H2O in the cheese if the final mass was found to be 545.8 mg? A. 35.23% B. 30.69% C. 31.45% D. 37.65%

D. 37.65%

Determine the actual volume contained in a 50.0 mL volumetric flask given the following data. Mass of water 50.1227 g, Density of water at 25C 0.99707 g/mL A. 50.27 mL B. 50.37 mL C. 50.17 mL D. 50.45 mL

A. 50.27 mL

What is the normality of a 5.0 M sulfuric acid? A. 2.5 N B. 5.0 N C. 7.5 N D. 10.0 N

D. 10.0 N

Which of the following is a primary standard for use in standardizing bases? A. Acetic acid B. Sulfuric acid C. Potassium hydrogen phthalate D. Ammonium hydroxide

C. Potassium hydrogen phthalate

The maximum holding time for acid preserved samples that will be subjected to determination of metals is A. 48 hours B. 3 months C. 6 months D. 1 week

C. 6 months

Glass container is NOT suitable for A. oil and grease determination B. microbiological analyses C. all of the choices D. inorganic trace analyses

D. inorganic trace analyses

What Is the main ISO Standard used by testing and calibration laboratories to gain accreditation and formal of their competence to carry out tests and/or calibrations, including sampling? A. ISO/IEC 17025 B. EURACHEM C. AOAC D. ISO 9000:2000

A. ISO/IEC 17025

According to Revised DAO 04-36, the appropriate waste labels shall Include A. Generator ID Number B. Volume of Waste C. Container Material D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following is the most accurate apparatus in measuring 8.55 mL of liquid? A. 1 mL graduated cylinder B. 100 mL graduated cylinder C. 10 mL pipet D. 50 mL beaker

C. 10 mL pipet

Which of the following is NOT a proper laboratory practice? A. wearing of masks and gloves B. drying of glassware after washing C. tying or braiding long hairs D. adding water to strong acid

D. adding water to strong acid

Which of the following is the most appropriate container for hexane? A. glass bottle B. amber bottle C. plastic bottle D. none of these

B. amber bottle

Minimum concentration of a substance that can be measured and reported with confidence at the analyte concentration is greater than zero refers to _________. A. Lower Warning Limit B. Method Detection Limit C. Control Limit D. Limit of Quantitation

B. Method Detection Limit

The fire triangle consists of which of the following? A. Oxygen, Heat, Material B. Air, Heat. Fire C. Air, Fuel, Spark D. Oxygen, Heat, Fuel

D. Oxygen, Heat, Fuel

Which Is TRUE about laboratory hoods? A. Provides further protection by diluting low of flammable gases below explosion limits. B. It protects you from being exposed in chemical fume. C. Must always be on D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

Which of the following focuses on Quality Management Systems? A. IS0 9001 B. ISO 17025 C. ISO 15189 D. GLP

A. IS0 9001

There is a definite correlation between orderliness and level of safety in the laboratory. In addition, a disorderly laboratory can hinder or endanger emergency response personnel. Which of the following housekeeping rules should NOT be adhered to? A. Never obstruct access to exits and emergency equipment. B. Properly label and store all chemicals. C. Store chemical containers on the floor. D. Clean work areas, including floors, regularly.

C. Store chemical containers on the floor.

Consider that you are working with vitamin C table production, to which standard's should your quality management should subscribe? A. GMP B. HACCP C. ISO 9001:2008 D. All of the above

D. All of the above

How many significant figures does the universal gas constant (R = 0.0821 L⋅atm/mol⋅K)? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. infinite

D. infinite

How many electrons can fit in the fourth main shell? A. 4 B. 8 C. 16 D. 32

D. 32

Which does NOT correspond to the electron configuration below? 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ A. K⁺ B. C⁻ C. S²⁻ D. None of the above.

D. None of the above.

Which of the following elements has greater electron affinity than oxygen? A. sulfur B. carbon C. neon D. fluorine

D. fluorine

Which molecular geometry has the greatest bond angle? A. linear B. tetrahedral C. octahedral D. trigonal bipyramidal

A. linear

6. What is the name of the compound indicated below? Pb(CIO)₄ A. plumbous perchlorate B. plumbic perchlorate C. plumbous hypochlorite D. plumbic hypochlorite

D. plumbic hypochlorite

What is the chemical formula of nitrous acid? A. HN₃ B. HNO₂ C. HNO₃ D. H2NO₃

B. HNO₂

What is the other name for oil of vitriol? A. paraffin B. olefin C. sulfuric acid D. wax

C. sulfuric acid

From top to bottom down the periodic table A. change in atomic radius cannot be predicted B. ionization energy increases C. electronegativity decreases D. atomic radius decreases

C. electronegativity decreases

From left to right across the periodic table A. atomic radius increases B. ionization energy decreases C. electronegativity decreases D. atomic radius decreases

D. atomic radius decreases

Alcohols and carboxylic acids have –OH groups. What type of chemical bonding occurs between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms? A. ionic B. polar covalent C. hydrogen D. non-polar covalent

B. polar covalent

It is a result of instantaneous dipole in a non-polar molecule? A. Van der Waals forces B. Dipole-dipole interaction C. Ion-dipole interaction D. Hydrogen bonding

A. Van der Waals forces

Which among the following compounds has the lowest boiling point? A. decanol B. lauric acid C. toluene D. benzene

D. benzene

What IMFA is/are present in the compound indicated below? H₃C(CH₂)₃CHO A. Van der Waals forces only B. Dipole-dipole interactions only C. Van der Waals and dipole-dipole interactions D. Van der Waals, dipole-dipole interactions, and hydrogen bonding

C. Van der Waals and dipole-dipole interactions

A cylinder containing a gas is compressed to half its original volume. What will happen to its pressure at constant temperature? A. doubled B. halved C. no effect D. cannot be determined

A. doubled

A 30-L gas initially has 110 kPa and 147°C. If its volume become 40 L and the pressure increased to 120 kPa, what is the new temperature (°C)? A. 65 B. 214 C. 338 D. 611

C. 338

What is the pressure (atm) of hydrogen if it has 0.412 mol at 16°C in a 3.25 L? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

C. 3

Nitrogen gas can be prepared by passing gaseous ammonia over solid copper (II) oxide at high temperatures. The other products of the reaction are solid copper and water vapor as shown in the reaction below: NH₃(g)+ CuO(s)>N₂(g)+Cu(s)+H₂0(g) If 30.5 g of NH3 is reacted with 99.7 g of CuO, how much excess reactant will remain? A. 16.3 g B. 14.2 g C. 7.9 g D. 9.1 g

A. 16.3 g

Nitrogen gas can be prepared by passing gaseous ammonia over solid copper (II) oxide at high temperatures. The other products of the reaction are solid copper and water vapor as shown in the reaction below: NH₃(g)+ CuO(s)>N₂(g)+Cu(s)+H₂0(g) how many grams of water vapor will be formed? A. 48.4 g B. 22.6 g C. 32.3 g D. 21.4 g

B. 22.6 g

Which of the following is a chemical reaction? A. an air conditioner cooling the air B. none of these choices C. bleaching your clothes D. melting of ice

C. bleaching your clothes

A white powder is analyzed and found to contain 43.64% phosphorus and 56.36% oxygen by mass. The compound has a molar mass of 283.88 g. What is the molecular formula of the compound? A. P₂O₅ B. P₄O₁₀ C. P₁O₁.₃ D. P₁.₄O₃.₅

B. P₄O₁₀

How many grams of potassium dichromate is required to prepare 250 mL of 0.1 M solution of potassium dichromate? This is solution is an oxidizing agent used in organic chemistry. A. 1.18 g B. 7.35 g C. 6.38 g D. 2.94 g

B. 7.35 g

What is the molarity of 37% w/w hydrochloric acid? The density of 37% w/w HCl is 1.18 g/mL. A. 10 M B. 37 M C. 12 M D. 8 M

C. 12 M

A polar solute usually dissolves in a polar solvent and a nonpolar solute usually dissolves in a nonpolar solvent. This is A. the solubility rule B. the “like dissolves like” rule C. Henry’s law D. Hund’s rule

B. the “like dissolves like” rule

How much of a 2.0 M stock solution do you need to prepare 50 mL of a 1.0 M solution? A. 75 mL B. 30 mL C. 25 mL D. 50 mL

C. 25 mL

The synthesis of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is an exothermic reaction. Which of the following will favor the formation of ammonia? A. Decrease in temperature B. Increase in temperature C. Removal of nitrogen D. Addition of ammonia

A. Decrease in temperature

Under the Brønsted-Lowry concept of acids and bases, a base is a/an A. proton donor B. proton acceptor C. electron pair donor D. electron pair acceptor

B. proton acceptor

Determine the concentration of H+ ions in apple cider vinegar if the pH was measured to 3.57. A. 2.7 x 10⁻⁴ M B. 3.7 x 10⁻³M C. 5.5 x 10⁻¹ M D. 1.3 x 10⁻¹ M

A. 2.7 x 10⁻⁴ M

The following statements are true about pH EXCEPT A. it is the negative logarithm of hydrogen ions content in a solution B. a measure of the acidity or alkalinity of a solution C. a measure of the amount or hydrogen ions in solution D. does not change when there are changes in temperature

D. does not change when there are changes in temperature

In which of the following titrations does pH = 7.0 occur at the equivalence point? I. Strong acid/strong base II. Weak acid/strong base III. Strong acid/weak base A. II and III only B. III only C. I only D. II only

C. I only

A type of analysis in terms of sample size that can resolve fine-scale variations in chemical elements, as well as determine the presence and distribution of different phases in materials. A. Macro B. Semi-macro C. Micro D. Ultra-micro

C. Micro

An analyst determines that the analytical balance he used in a given analytical test is wrongly calibrated. Determine what type of error is represented. A. Systematic error B. Random error C. Gross error D. Cannot be determined

A. Systematic error

It is a plot of an instrument’s readout vs. concentration, the data for which are the results of measuring a series of standard solutions prepared for the experiment. A. Linear range B. Calibration curve C. Dynamic range D. Linear dynamic range

B. Calibration curve

It describes the policies and procedures the laboratory has to manage in relation to quality, or references where those procedures can be found. An essential requirement of ISO 9000 series of standards and ISO 17025. A. Quality Assurance B. Quality Control C. Quality Manual D. Documentation

C. Quality Manual

It is a written program developed and implemented by the employer which sets forth procedures, equipment, PPE, and work practices that are capable of protecting employees from the health hazard presented by hazardous chemicals used in the workplace. A. Safety Manual B. Chemical Hygiene Plan C. Safety Rules and Policies D. Safety Plan

B. Chemical Hygiene Plan

This type of method consists of a set of instructions about how to carry out a method issued by a national standards body and legislated by the national government to become mandatory. A. Standard method B. Regulatory method C. Reference method D. Validated method

B. Regulatory method

In starting-up laboratory operations, the following should be observed except. A. Turning on the hoods, vents, and exhaust fans. B. Turning the equipment and instruments on. C. Performing analysis immediately. D. Monitoring operating parameters.

C. Performing analysis immediately.

The following groups are known to be peroxide-forming compounds EXCEPT A. Ethers with primary and/or secondary alkyl groups. B. Hydrocarbons with allylic, benzylic, or propargylic hydrogens. C. Conjugated dienes, eneynes, and diynes. D. All are peroxide-formers.

D. All are peroxide-formers.

Which of the following is/are TRUE about the laboratory chemical hood? I. All work should be carried out at least 15 cm (6 in.) from the front edge of the hood. II. Before each work, be sure that the hood exhaust system is functioning properly. III. Store hazardous chemicals inside the chemical hood to protect personnel from toxic fumes exposure. IV. The performance of laboratory chemical hood is highly dependent on its location. A. I and II B. II, III and IV C. I, II, and III D. I, II, and IV

D. I, II, and IV

What hazards are represented by a GHS pictogram with a flame over circle symbol? A. Flammable and self-reactive substances B. Oxidizers, organic peroxides C. Carcinogens D. Explosives

B. Oxidizers, organic peroxides

It is a hazardous waste characteristic which applies to waste liquids with a flash point less than 140°C or solids capable of spontaneous combustion under normal temperature and pressure. A. Ignitability B. Reactivity C. Corrosivity D. Toxicity

A. Ignitability

What is the pH of an acidic waste? A. pH ≤ 2 B. pH ≤ 3 C. pH ≥ 12.5 D. pH = 7

A. pH ≤ 2

This refers to a person who produces hazardous wastes, through any institutional, commercial, industrial, or trade activities. A. Waste generator B. Waste treater C. Waste transporter D. Pollution Control Officer

A. Waste generator

The correct hierarchy of control principle (decreasing priority) from a chemical exposure perspective is I. PPE Il. Engineering controls III. Administrative controls IV. Elimination V. Substitution A. I>II > III > IV > V B. I > III > II > IV > V C. V > IV > II > III > I D. IV > V > II > III > I

D. IV > V > II > III > I

An exposure limit that indicates the maximum average concentration to which workers can safely be exposed for a normal 8-hr workday or 48-hr workweek. A. Time weighted average (TWA) B. Short-term exposure limit (STEL) C. Ceiling (C) D. Immediately dangerous to life or health (IDLH)

A. Time weighted average (TWA)

This refers to a single sample or measurement taken at specific time or over a short period as feasible. A. Grab sample B. Composite sample C. Laboratory sample D. None of the above

A. Grab sample

The following are good sampling practices EXCEPT A. Take several increments and composite them to form the sample. B. If possible, mix the material before getting the sample. C. Collect the sample in a container made of material that will chemically react with the sample. D. Sample frequently enough to allow for the identification of process cycles.

C. Collect the sample in a container made of material that will chemically react with the sample.

Which of the following are TRUE about uncertainty? I. It is a difference between a single measurement or result and its true value. II. The range of possible values for a measurement. III. A measure of bias in a result or measurement. IV. It accounts for all errors (both determinate and indeterminate). A. I and II B. I and IV C. II and III D. II and IV

D. II and IV

It is a graph showing the time-dependent change in the results of an analysis that is used to monitor whether an analysis is in a state of statistical control. A. Calibration curve B. Standard Curve C. QC chart D. Monitoring chart

C. QC chart

A clean sample (e.g. distilled water) processed through the instrumental steps or the measurement process to determine instrument contamination. A. Method blank B. Instrumental blank C. Surrogate D. Reagent blank

B. Instrumental blank

How many significant figures are there in the 3.400 g? A. Infinite B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

D. 4

What is the scientific notation of 0.0078 ug/mL. of compound A? A. 7.8 x 10⁻¹ μg/mL B. 7.8 x 10⁻² μg/mL C. 7.8 x 10⁻³ μg/mL D. 7.8 x 10⁻⁴ μg/mL

C. 7.8 x 10⁻³ μg/mL

Mass ______. A. has the SI unit of pounds. B. is the amount of matter that occupies space. C. is the quantitative measure of acceleration, a fundamental property of all matter. D. constitutes the force exerted on matter by the gravitational attraction of Earth, and so it varies slightly from place to place.

B. is the amount of matter that occupies space.

Which of the following is an extensive property of matter? A. Density B. Viscosity C. Freezing point D. Number of moles

D. Number of moles

Which will cause the mass of a metal block to increase? A. putting it in a freezer B. heating it C. measure in Jupiter D. none of the above

D. none of the above

When two materials that have different densities, like oil and water, encounter one another, they will A. separate based on their densities B. exchange densities C. mix uniformly D. repel one another

A. separate based on their densities

Which does NOT indicate a chemical change? A. change in color B. increase in temperature C. change in shape D. evolution of gas

C. change in shape

Mothballs are used as deodorizer and as pesticides. Upon exposing them in air for a few hours, they disappeared. Which of the following best explains the scenario? A. The mothballs underwent sublimation. B. The mothballs underwent melting then vaporization. C. The mothballs reacted with some component in the air. D. None of the above.

A. The mothballs underwent sublimation.

Which of the following is described as having components that can be physically separated? A. mixture B. solution C. suspension D. compound

A. mixture

It is the statement that contains the result of the experiment and checks if the hypothesis is correct or not. A. procedure B. hypothesis C. conclusion D. theory

C. conclusion

What is the most common isotope of hydrogen? A. H has only one isotope B. Protium C. Deuterium D. Tritium

B. Protium

Which of the following is TRUE for C-13 isotope? A. It has 6 neutron and 7 protons. B. It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons. C. It has 6 neutron and 13 protons. D. It has 6 protons and 13 neutrons.

B. It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.

A certain radioisotope has a half-life of 9 days. What percentage of an initial mass of this isotope remains after 25 days? A. 14.58 B. 0.57 C. 73.05 D. 85.41

A. 14.58

Which of the following is NOT a possible set of quantum numbers? A. n= 3, l1 = 1, mₗ = -1, mₛ = -1/2 B. n= 3, I = 0, mₗ = 0, mₛ = -1/2 C. n = 3, I = 0, mₗ = -1, mₛ = -1/2 D. n= 3, l = 1, mₗ = 0, mₛ = -1/2

C. n = 3, I = 0, mₗ = -1, mₛ = -1/2

Which is the correct arrangement for increasing affinity for electrons? A. K < Na < Cl < Ne B. Na < K < Cl < Ne C. Ne < K < Na < Cl D. Ne < Na < K < Cl

C. Ne < K < Na < Cl

Which of the following atoms is the largest? A. Cs B. Sr C. Ga D. As

A. Cs

Which of the following oxides is likely to be basic in aqueous solution? A. SO₂ B. CO₂ C. MgO D. P₂O₅

C. MgO

Fluorine is capable of forming covalent bonds with which of the following element? A. Zinc B. Boron C. Lithium D. Calcium

B. Boron

Chromium is a member of which of the following? A. Actinides B. Lanthanides C. Alkali metals D. Transition metals

D. Transition metals

What is an alloy? A. Solid solution B. Liquid solution C. Gaseous solution D. All of the above

A. Solid solution

Which element is a pale-yellow gas that reacts with water? A. H₂ B. F₂ C. Cl₂ D. Br₂

B. F₂

Which of the following is a chemical equation? A. CO₂ B. C + O₂ ⟶ CO₂ C. Ice + Heat ⟶ Water D. Iron + Oxygen ⟶ Rust

B. C + O₂ ⟶ CO₂

What is the name of the compound PCl₃? A. Phosphorus chloride B. Phosphorus trichloride C. Phosphorus chloride(III) D. Phosphorus trichloride(III)

B. Phosphorus trichloride

What is the chemical formula of mercurous chloride? A. HgCl B. Hg₂Cl C. HgCl₂ D. Hg₂Cl₂

D. Hg₂Cl₂

Which of the following covalent compounds has a tetrahedral geometry? A. CH₄ B. NH₃ C. H₂O D. BF₃

A. CH₄

Which of the following does NOT describe a nonpolar bond? A. It is a bond between similar nonmetals. B. It is a bond between different nonmetals. C. It has a dipole moment. D. All describes a nonpolar bond.

C. It has a dipole moment.

Which of the following is a polar molecule? A. CO₂ B. SF₄ C. CCl₄ D. XeF₄

B. SF₄

Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Double bonds are shorter than triple bonds. B. Double bonds are stronger than triple bonds. C. Single bonds have lower energy than double bonds. D. None of the statements above is true.

C. Single bonds have lower energy than double bonds.

Polar molecules include which of these? I. CO₂ II. COCI₂ III. CH₂Cl₂ A. I only B. I and II only C. I and III only D. II and III only

D. II and III only

Which compound has the strongest intermolecular force of attraction? A. CO B. CH₄ C. CH₃OH D. CH₃OCH₃

C. CH₃OH

Which of the following is NOT an indication of strong IMFA? A. high viscosity B. high volatility C. high boiling point D. high melting point

B. high volatility

Determine the actual volume contained in a 50.0 mL volumetric flask given the following data: Mass of water: 50.1227 g Density of water at 25°C: 0.99707 g/mL A. 50.45 mL B. 50.27 mL C. 50.37 mL D. 50.17 mL

B. 50.27 mL

At 25°C a gas expands from 30 kPa and 5.0 L to 70°C and 10 kPa. Calculate its final volume. A. 17 L B. 24 L C. 42 L D. 71 L

A. 17 L

What is the density of oxygen at 1 atm and 25°C? A. 1.31 g/mL B. 1.31 g/L C. 15.6 g/mL D. 15.6 g/L

B. 1.31 g/L

Each of these flasks contains the same number of molecules. In which container is the pressure highest? (flask in increasing volume) A. flask 2 B. flask 1 C. flask 3 D. flask 4

B. flask 1

What happens to the volume of a fully inflated balloon when it is taken outside on a cold day? A. Its volume decreases B. It remains the same C. Its volume increases D. Its volume becomes equal to zero

A. Its volume decreases

When water is heated in a beaker, bubbles of air form on the side of the glass before the water boils. This shows that A. the solubility of gases in water decreases with increasing temperature B. the solubility of gases in water increases with increasing temperature C. the solubility of gases in water decreases with decreasing temperature D. the solubility of gases in water increases with decreasing temperature

A. the solubility of gases in water decreases with increasing temperature

38. Liquid A has lower boiling point than liquid B. Which of the following is true about the boiling point of the solution formed upon mixing A and B? A. less than that of A B. greater than that of B C. average of A and B D. between A and B

D. between A and B

It is the temperature at which solid and liquid coexist. A. melting point of liquid B. freezing point of liquid C. freezing point of solid D. all of the above

B. freezing point of liquid

40. All solid states are denser than their liquid states. However, water is unique because A. It is clear. B. It is tasteless. C. Its solid form (ice) is less dense than its liquid form. D. It can freeze.

C. Its solid form (ice) is less dense than its liquid form.

How many atoms does a kilogram of copper (63.55 g/mol) metal have? A. 9.5x10²¹ B. 9.5x10²⁴ C. 3.8x10²¹ D. 3.8x10²⁴

B. 9.5x10²⁴

An analysis of a compound shows 62.04% C, 10.41% H, and 27.55% O. Which of the following is the most probably identity of the compound? A. C₂H₄O B. C₂H₄O₂ C. C₃H₆O D. C₃H₆O₂

C. C₃H₆O

A 1.00 g sample of which compound will produce the greatest amount of carbon dioxide after complete combustion with excess oxygen? A. CH₄ B. C₃H₆ C. C₆H₁₄ D.C₈H₁₈

B. C₃H₆

Which procedure produces a 0.2 M solution of Na2SO4? A. Mixing 500 mL of 0.4 M NaOH with 500 mL of 0.2 M Na2SO4 B. Mixing 300 mL of 1.2 M NaOH with 600 mL of 0.3 M Na2SO4 C. Dissolving 0.2 M solid Na2SO4 in 500 mL water D. Diluting 400 mL of 0.3 M Na2SO4 to a final volume of 1.0 L

B. Mixing 300 mL of 1.2 M NaOH with 600 mL of 0.3 M Na2SO4

Which statement is TRUE? A. The value of the equilibrium constant increases with the addition of a catalyst. B. A catalyst speeds up both the forward and reverse reaction rates. C. The greater the activation energy, the faster the rate of reaction. D. A catalyst increases the rate of reaction by decreasing the number of collisions

B. A catalyst speeds up both the forward and reverse reaction rates.

46. A solution is _______ if more solute can dissolve in it. A. saturated B. supersaturated C. unsaturated D. concentrated

C. unsaturated

A solution contains 34.0% HClO4 by mass. HClO4 has a molar mass of 100.45 g/mol. The solution has a density of 1.242 g/mL. What is the molar concentration of this solution? A. 5.13 M B. 4.20 M C. 8.40 M D. 0.916 M

B. 4.20 M

A solution has been prepared by transferring 60 mL of 85% by volume H3PO4 and diluting i to 1.0 L. What is the concentration of the new solution? A. 10.10% B. 9.25% C. 12.2% D. 5.10%

D. 5.10%

Which of the following substances is not basic? A. Baking soda B. Apple Juice C. Borax D. Seawater

B. Apple Juice

A 2.4 L of HNO3 solution reacts with 63 mL of 1.9 N Ba(OH)2 to produce a neutral solution. What is the molar concentration of the original HNO3 solution? A. 0.05 M B. 0.12 M C. 0.24 M D. 0.50 M

A. 0.05 M

The following statements are TRUE about pH EXCEPT A. It is the negative logarithm of hydrogen ions content in a solution. B. It is a measure of the acidity or alkalinity of a solution. C. It is a measure of the amount or hydrogen ions in solution. D. It does not change when there are changes in temperature.

D. It does not change when there are changes in temperature.

A solution is prepared by adding 0.1 M H2CO3 and 0.1 M NaHCO3. 0.01 mole HCl is added to 1 liter of the prepared solution. The pH of the resulting is close to? The pKa of H2CO3 is 6.37. A. 6.28 B. 4.90 C. 5.21 D. 6.37

A. 6.28

When NaCH3COO hydrolyzes, the resulting solution is A. acidic B. basic C. neutral D. none of the above

B. basic

When a strong acid reacts with a weak base during titration, the pH at the equivalence point is A. basic B. acidic C. neutral D. none of the above

B. acidic

55. A lab analyst dissolved 4.021 g of NaOH in water and made up the solution to 1L with water. He then pipetted 10.00 mL of this solution into a flask and titrated it with 0.050 M HCI solution from a burette. A volume of 20.32 mL of acid had been used at the endpoint. Examining this result, the lab supervisor could deduce that _____. A. the NaOH absorbed H2O from the air after its mass was measured B. the burette was rinsed with water instead of HCI C. the analysis is as accurate as can be expected using this apparatus D. the pipette was rinsed with water instead of NaOH

B. the burette was rinsed with water instead of HCI

The Kjeldahl method is the worldwide standard for calculating the protein content in a wide variety of materials ranging from human and animal food, fertilizer, waste water and fossil fuels. It consists of three steps: digestion, distillation, and titration. What element is being analyzed in Kjeldahl method? A. Carbon B. Nitrogen C. Sulfur D. Oxygen

B. Nitrogen

57. In a galvanic cell, reduction occurs in the ____ while in an electrolytic cell, oxidation occurs in the ____. A. anode, anode B. cathode, cathode C. cathode, anode D. anode, cathode

C. cathode, anode

Conductivity is the ability of a substance to A. conduct electric current, which is the same as resistivity. B. repel electric current. C. conduct variable resistance. D. conduct electric current, which is the reciprocal of resistivity.

D. conduct electric current, which is the reciprocal of resistivity.

Column chromatography is based on the principle of _____________. A. Exclusion B. Absorption C. Ion exchange D. Differential adsorption

D. Differential adsorption

Which of the following statements is correct? A. The lesser the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface. B. The greater the polarity of solute, more weakly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface. C. The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface. D. None of the above.

C. The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface.

The components of the mixture in column chromatography are eluted in order of A. increasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio B. increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio C. decreasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio D. decreasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio

B. increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio

Why is it generally preferable to use absorbance as a measure of absorption rather than % transmittance? A. because %T cannot be measured as accurately as absorbance B. because %T is dependent on the power of the incident radiation C. because absorbance is proportional to the concentration of the analyte, whereas %T is not D. none of the above

C. because absorbance is proportional to the concentration of the analyte, whereas %T is not

What will you perform to know that atomic absorption spectrometer continues to work property? A. Calibration check B. Blank C. QC sample recoveries D. Standard addition

A. Calibration check

A student wants to improve the accuracy of a 9.40 mL liquid using a 100 mL graduated cylinder. Which of the following should he do? A. take the average of multiple measurements B. add an additional significant figure C. use 25 mL graduated cylinder instead D. use 10 mL graduated cylinder instead

D. use 10 mL graduated cylinder instead

Statistical test that decides whether a datum from a given set could be rejected or NOT is the ______. A. t-test B. z-test C. Q-test D. F-test

C. Q-test

An analysis of ore assays about 1.5% iron. What minimum sample mass should be taken if the relative error resulting from a 0.5-mg loss is not to exceed -0.2%? A. 16.7 mg B. 17 mg C. 17 g D. 16 g

C. 17 g

For a concentration technique, the relationship between the measure signal, Smeas and the analyte's concentration, CA, is given by equation Smeas = kCA + Sb. Given the Smeas is 24.37 ± 0.02, Sh is 0.96 ± 0.02, and k is 0.186 ± 0.003 ppm-1 Calculate for the percent relative uncertainty for the analyte's concentration. A. 0.0162 B. 1.6 C. 0.0264 D. 2.6

B. 1.6

For a concentration technique, the relationship between the measure signal, Smeas and the analyte's concentration, CA, is given by equation Smeas = kCA + Sb. Given the Smeas is 24.37 ± 0.02, Sh is 0.96 ± 0.02, and k is 0.186 ± 0.003 ppm-1 Report the absolute uncertainty together with the analyte's concentration. A. (125.9 ± 3.3) ppm B. (126 ± 3) ppm C. (125.9 ± 2.0) ppm D. (126 ± 2) ppm

D. (126 ± 2) ppm

Which of the following focuses on Quality Management Systems? A. ISO 9001 B. ISO 17025 C. ISO 15189 D. GLP

A. ISO 9001

It is a part of quality system that includes laboratory operations whose objective is to ensure that the data generated by the laboratory are of known accuracy to some stated, quantitative degree of probability. A. Quality Management B. Quality Assurance C. Quality Control D. Quality Manual

C. Quality Control

Type of quality control sample used to evaluate the effects of sample matrices on the performance of an analytical method. A. Matrix duplicate B. Matrix spike C. Method blank D. Reagent blank

B. Matrix spike

Locating the adulterated portion of the lot for sampling is an example of _____. A. random sampling B. selective sampling C. composite sampling D. stratified sampling

B. selective sampling

The quantity of material which is assumed to represent a single population for sampling purposes. A. Bulk material B. Lot C. Segment D. Batch

B. Lot

What is the name of RA 6969? A. Toxic Substances Control Act B. Toxic Substances and Hazardous Wastes Control Act C. Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Control Act D. Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Management Control Act

C. Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Control Act

The responsibilities of chemists and chemical technicians embodied in the Code of Ethics include all EXCEPT A. They are expected to be stewards of the environment by following the laws, rules and regulations pertaining to chemical wastes management and disposal. B. They shall undertake the professional practice of Chemistry only when in possession of a valid COR and ID issued by the Board and the Commission. C. All Chemistry practitioners are obliged to maintain active membership in the Accredited Professional Organization (APO) for the Chemistry profession, and to participate in the activities of the latter. D. None of the above.

D. None of the above.

Type of analysis where the amounts of all constituents in the samples are determined. A. Complete (or ultimate) analysis B. Partial analysis C. Elemental analysis D. Proximate analysis

A. Complete (or ultimate) analysis

Method consisting a set of instructions issued by a national standards body. A. Standard method B. Primary method C. Regulatory method D. Validated method

A. Standard method

It is a detailed written instruction to achieve uniformity in the performance of a specific function. A. Standard method B. Protocol C. Standard operating procedure D. Analytical procedure

C. Standard operating procedure

Which of the following correctly describe/s the detection limit? I. Concentration that gives a readout level that is more than the electrical noise level inherent in the baseline. II. It is the smallest concentration that can be determined with a reasonable degree of precision. III. A qualitative parameter in the sense that it is the minimum concentration that can be detected, but not precisely determined. IV. It would tell the analyst that the element is present, but not necessarily at a precisely determinable concentration level. A. II and III B. I, III, and IV C. II, III, and IV D. III only

B. I, III, and IV

Analytical methods or instruments' performance aim for A. Low signal-to-noise ratio B. High variability C. Low dynamic range D. High signal-to-noise ratio

D. High signal-to-noise ratio

81. It accounts for all the other components in the mixture that are not under investigation. A. Analyte B. Matrix C. Measurand D. Test

B. Matrix

When qualifying a working standard, what is the best type of reagent to use? A. Reagent grade B. Technical grade C. Primary standard D. Analytical grade

C. Primary standard

Requirements of a primary standard. A. High Purity, 99.9% or better B. Stability in air C. Absence of hydrate water D. All of the above

D. All of the above

According to Revised DAO 04-36, the appropriate waste labels shall Include A. Generator ID Number B. Volume of Waste C. Container Material D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following is the most appropriate container for hexane? A. glass bottle B. amber bottle C. plastic bottle D. none of these

B. amber bottle

What type of container should be used when handling or storing hydrogen fluoride? A. Glass B. Polyethylene C. Cast iron D. Alloys containing silica

B. Polyethylene

The following acids and acid mixtures can be collected and placed in glass containers EXCEPT for A. Sulfuric acid B. Hydrofluoric acid C. Aqua regia D. Hydrochloric acid

B. Hydrofluoric acid

Glass container is NOT suitable for A. oil and grease determination B. microbiological analyses C. all of the choices D. inorganic trace analyses

D. inorganic trace analyses

Ammonia solution can be stored with the following chemicals EXCEPT A. cyclohexane solution B. acetic acid solution C. 2-propanol solution D. sodium hydroxide solution

B. acetic acid solution

When working with concentrated acids except hydrofluoric acid, which of the following statements are TRUE? I. Gloves covering the whole arm or nitrile gloves should be worn. II. Half- or full-faced masks with gas- and/or vapor removing respirators should be worn III. Wearing safety boots or foot covering is optional as long as tie person is working under the hood. IV. Wearing of apron is optional as long as laboratory gown is worn. A. I and II B. II and III C. All of the choices D. I and IV

A. I and II

Which of the following is NOT a proper laboratory practice? A. wearing of masks and gloves B. drying of glassware after washing C. tying or braiding long hairs D. adding water to strong acid

D. adding water to strong acid

Which of the following is a treatment for HF burns? A. water B. Epsom salt C. 25% brine solution D. calcium gluconate

D. calcium gluconate

93. If a fire extinguisher has a red body and a blue band, what is its content? A. Foam type B. Dry chemical type C. Carbon dioxide D. Halon substitute

A. Foam type

The following are proper practices in storing materials and equipment EXCEPT ONE. A. Avoid storing materials and equipment on top of cabinets. B. Label all materials properly. C. Store hazardous chemicals inside the fumehood. D. Do not expose stored chemicals to heat or direct sunlight.

C. Store hazardous chemicals inside the fumehood.

Which of the following are possible routes of exposure of the hazardous effects of waste? A. Inhalation B. Dermal C. Ingestion D. All of the above

D. All of the above

96. A solid waste management practice which refers to the controlled decomposition or organic matter by microorganisms, mainly bacteria and fungi, into a humus-like product. A. Composting B. Recycling C. Bioremediation D. Reducing

A. Composting

In handling ethers, the following practices are correct except for one. A. Distill these substances to dryness to remove peroxides that were possibly formed from air autoxidation. B. Ferrous salts or sodium bisulfite can be used to decompose peroxides formed by these substances. C. Passage over basic active alumina can remove most of the peroxidic material. D. Dispose old or expired ethers

A. Distill these substances to dryness to remove peroxides that were possibly formed from air autoxidation.

What is the type of chemical that can cause an allergic reaction in the airways following inhalation? A. Corrosive B. Respiratory sensitizer C. Oxidizer D. Carcinogen

B. Respiratory sensitizer

In order to property maintain chemical laboratory equipment one should perform the following EXCEPT A. place the equipment in hot humid location B. regular calibration of equipment C. regular Inspection of operational components D. thorough cleaning with the proper materials

A. place the equipment in hot humid location

It is a hazardous waste characteristic which applies to wastes that have the potential to contaminate groundwater if improperly disposed of. These materials are regulated as hazardous waste due to their potential to leach out specific toxic substances in a landfill. A. Reactivity B. Corrosivity C. Toxicity D. Ignitability

C. Toxicity

Which of the following LEAST describes an organic compound? A. It always comes from a living source. B. It is composed of covalently bonded carbon atoms. C. Light molecular weight compounds are combustible. D. None of the above.

A. It always comes from a living source.

The vital force theory was disproved by the synthesis of which compound? A. ethanol B. cyanide C. urea D. ammonia

C. urea

What is the hybridization of the carbonyl carbon in acetone, CH3COCH3? A. sp B. sp2 C. sp3 D. sp3d2

B. sp2

What is the correct order of bonds 1, 2 and 3 according to increasing bond length? / \\ / \\\ 1 2 3 A. 3, 2, 1 B. 2, 1, 3 C. 1, 2, 3 D. 1=2, 3

A. 3, 2, 1

Which of the following is a pair of stereoisomers? A. 2-octene and 3-octene B. D-glucose and L-gulose C. cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene D. hexanoic acid and heptanoic acid

C. cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene

What is the common name for ethenylbenzene? A. styrene B. cumene C. xylene D. limonene

A. styrene

Which of the following is NOT an aliphatic compound? A. neopentane B. cycloheptane C. 3-heptyne D. xylene

D. xylene

Which of the following is arranged in order of increasing boiling point? A. 2-methylbutane < n-pentane < butanone < butanol B. n-pentane < 2-methylbutane < butanone < butanol C. 2-methylbutane < n-pentane < butanol < butanone D. n-pentane < 2-methylbutane < butanol < butanone

A. 2-methylbutane < n-pentane < butanone < butanol

Which of the following solvents will butyric acid be most soluble? A. CCl4 B. water C. hexane D. CH2Cl2

B. water

Among the ortho, meta and para isomers of xylene, which has the highest boiling point? A. ortho-xylene B. meta-xylene C. para-xylene D. ortho-xylene and para-xylene

A. ortho-xylene

Which is the most acidic among the following compounds? A. CH3OH B. C6H5OH C. CH3COOH D. (CH3)3COH

C. CH3COOH

Which functional group is directly responsible for the flavors present in wine? A. ester B. ether C. alcohol D. anhydride

A. ester

Which of the following is NOT a reagent for hydrogenation of an alkyne? A. H2/Pd-C B. H2/Lindlar C. Na/NH3 D. BH3/H2O2, NaOH

D. BH3/H2O2, NaOH

Which alkyl halide will most readily react in SN1 reactions? A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. can be any

C. tertiary

Which of the following compounds is NOT produced from oxidation of alkenes? A. ester B. ketone C. carboxylic acid D. carbon dioxide

A. ester

An unknown alcohol was reacted with the Lucas reagent and the observation was the immediate appearance of turbidity. Which type of alcohol was the unknown? A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. can be any

C. tertiary

Pyridinium cholorochromate (PCC) is a mild oxidizing agent. What is the product formed when 1-butanol reacts with PCC? A. butanal B. 2-butanone C. butanoic acid D. tert-butanol

A. butanal

How many different alcohols have the molecular formula C₄H₁₀O? A. 2 B. 4 C. 3 D. 5

B. 4

What Is the hybridization of the carbon atom in a carboxyl group? A. sp B. sp3 C. sp2 D. dsp3

C. sp2

The smell of rancid butter is due to the presence of butyric (butanoic) acid. What is the for this compound? A. C4H8O2 B. C4H10O C. C5H10O2 D. C5H12O

A. C4H8O2

31. A stable light source in AAS analysis, which is necessary to emit the sharp characteristic spectrum of the element to be determined is called A. Tungsten Lamp B. Hollow Cathode Lamp C. Deuterium Lamp D. Nerst Blower

B. Hollow Cathode Lamp

A food scientist has a sample of a plant oil and wants to determine if the oil contains saturated or unsaturated fatty adds. Which of the following techniques would most useful for this purpose? A. Mass Spectroscopy B. Ultraviolet Spectroscopy C. Infrared Spectroscopy D. Visible Spectroscopy

C. Infrared Spectroscopy

A graphical representation of measuring signal as a function of quantity of analyte is A. Absorbance chart B. Calibration curve C. Quality control chart D. none of the above

B. Calibration curve

34. The most appropriate technique to determine levels or the Pb2+ ion in blood is A. atomic absorption spectroscopy B. mass spectrometry C. infrared spectroscopy D. high-performance liquid chromatography

A. atomic absorption spectroscopy

Cuvettes made of this material are required when working at a wavelength below 300 nm where other materials show a significant absorption. A. quartz B. plastic C. sodium chloride D. potassium bromide

A. quartz

Which of the following shows the correct path of light travel in a spectrophotometer? A. monochromator – source – sample – detector B. source – monochromator – sample – detector C. monochromator – source – detector – sample D. source – monochromator – detector – sample

B. source – monochromator – sample – detector

What is the funnel used in suction filtration? A. filter funnel B. dropping funnel C. thistle funnel D. Büchner funnel

D. Büchner funnel

This is done during liquid-liquid extraction to release the pressure build up inside the separatory funnel during shaking. A. stirring B. venting C. drawing D. salting out

B. venting

41. This method of distillation is suitable when the components of a mixture to be separated are thermal-sensitive and could decompose at high temperatures. A. steam distillation B. simple distillation C. fractional distillation D. none of the above

A. steam distillation

Which of the following can be done to purify a synthesized solid product? A. extraction B. distillation C. recrystallization D. chromatography

C. recrystallization

In a calibration curve, absorbance is plotted against the _________ of an analyte. A. pH B. volume C. concentration D. redox potential

C. concentration

44. In this chromatographic method, the sample may be gas or liquid injected into a gaseous mobile phase. A. gas chromatography B. affinity chromatography C. thin layer chromatography D. high pressure liquid chromatography

A. gas chromatography

It is the more common form of high pressure liquid chromatography (HPLC) where the stationary phase is nonpolar and the mobile phase is polar. A. affinity B. exclusion C. normal-phase D. reversed-phase

D. reversed-phase

What is the most appropriate type of container to be used for acid and base wastes? A. metal drums B. fiber drums C. polyethylene drums D. tightly-sealed glass container

C. polyethylene drums

It is the highest concentration of a substance in the air that will produce a fire or explosion when source of ignition such as heat, spark or flame is present. A. lower flammable limit B. upper flammable limit C. reactivity limit D. flash limit

B. upper flammable limit

48. In an MSDS Data Sheet, which of the following color symbolizes reactivity? A. blue B. red C. yellow D. white

C. yellow

According to the GHS, which of the following is not under the pictogram “Gas Cylinder”? A. compressed gas B. dissolved gas C. liquefied gas D. explosive gas

D. explosive gas

Water is a suitable solvent for the recrystallization of benzoic acid. How should be addition of the solvent? A. Add benzoic acid to minimum amount of hot water with stirring. B. Add room temp water to benzoic acid while stirring until benzoic acid dissolves. C. Add maximum amount of hot water to benzoic acid while stirring. D. Add small portions of hot water to benzoic acid while stirring until benzoic acid dissolves.

D. Add small portions of hot water to benzoic acid while stirring until benzoic acid dissolves.

Sample preparation technique used prior to instrumental analysis of metals. A. sieving B. clean-up C. acid digestion D. liquid-liquid extraction

C. acid digestion

A simple fractional tube is packed with which of the following? A. wooden beads B. plastic beads C. metal beads D. glass beads

D. glass beads

The organic liquid in steam distillation vaporizes at A. a lower temperature than its boiling point B. a higher temperature than its boiling point C. its boiling point D. none of the above

A. a lower temperature than its boiling point

The chromaplate or thin layer chromatography plate is made up of ______. A. glass B. wood C. fiber D. metal

A. glass

Retardation factor is the ratio of A. distance moved by substance from base line to distance moved by the solvent from base line B. distance moved by solvent from base line to distance moved by the substance from base line C. distance moved by substance from top line to distance moved by the solvent from top line D. distance moved by solvent from top line to distance moved by the substance from top line

A. distance moved by substance from base line to distance moved by the solvent from base line

Which of the following is FALSE regarding galvanic cells? A. To set up this cell, a salt bridge is used. B. The reactions taking place are non-spontaneous. C. It converts chemical energy into electrical energy. D. The electrolytes used in the compartments are different.

B. The reactions taking place are non-spontaneous.

A cell is prepared by dipping a copper rod in 1 M CuSO4 solution and an iron rod in 2 M FeSO4 solution. Identify the anode and cathode. A. anode-copper; cathode-iron B. anode-iron; cathode-copper C. anode-copper; cathode-copper D. anode-iron; cathode-iron

B. anode-iron; cathode-copper

11. Which of the following is the principle of Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy? A. Color is measured. B. Color is simply observed. C. Medium absorbs radiation and transmitted radiation is measured. D. Radiation is absorbed by non-excited atoms in vapor state and are excited to higher states.

D. Radiation is absorbed by non-excited atoms in vapor state and are excited to higher states.

Which of the following statements about mass spectroscopy is(are) correct? I. Analyte molecules are converted to gaseous ions. II. The ions are separated according to their mass to charge ratio. III. The addition of compound identification mass spectra can be utilized to determine precise isotopic masses and isotopic ratios. A. II only B. I and III C. II and III D. I, II, and III

D. I, II, and III

The region of electromagnetic spectrum for NMR is A. IR B. UV-Vis C. Microwave D. Radio frequency

D. Radio frequency

Which of the following is(are) application(s) of ion exchange chromatography? A. Softening of hard water B. Demineralization of water C. Separation and determination of anions D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following is widely used for the separation/purification of specific biomolecules? This relies on the highly specific binding between an analyte and its counterpart. A. Chiral chromatography B. Affinity chromatography C. Ion exchange chromatography D. Ion exclusion chromatography

B. Affinity chromatography

What must be done to the solid samples for it to be introduced into the column without using solid injection syringes in gas chromatography? A. dissolved in volatile liquids B. introduced using sampling loops C. introduced using rotary sample valve D. introduced in hot-zone of the column

A. dissolved in volatile liquids

Which of the following is NOT an ideal characteristic of a detector used in gas chromatography? A. high reliability B. short response time C. linear response to the solutes D. sensitive to the changes in the flow rate of a carrier gas

D. sensitive to the changes in the flow rate of a carrier gas

Which of the following detectors is widely used to detect environmental samples like chlorinated pesticides and polychlorinated biphenyls? A. Flame ionization detector B. Electron capture detector C. Thermionic specific detector D. Thermal conductivity detector

B. Electron capture detector

Which of the following is NOT true about the guard column used in liquid chromatography? A. It extends the lifespan of the separation column. B. It filters particles that clog the separation column. C. The size of packing varies with the type of protection needed. D. It allows entry of particles that cause precipitation upon contact with stationary or mobile phase.

D. It allows entry of particles that cause precipitation upon contact with stationary or mobile phase.

Which of the following columns are not used in liquid or high performance liquid chromatography? A. guard column B. capillary column C. analytical column D. separation column

B. capillary column

Which treatment method is NOT typically used to remove organic compounds? A. Thermal B. Biological C. Physical D. Chemical

A. Thermal

Segregation of waste organic solvents is very important because A. The costs for disposal of waste solvents differ. B. Some waste solvents can still be recycled. C. Waste solvents differ in proper treatment. D. All of the given answers

D. All of the given answers

Which method is considered an unacceptable means of disposing waste? A. All methods given are unacceptable B. Pouring down the sink C. Placing in the regular trash D. Pouring down the drainage canal

A. All methods given are unacceptable

Which is the correct procedure for mixing acid and water? A. Pour acid into water B. Pour them at the same time C. Pour water into acid D. Let the supervisor pour them

A. Pour acid into water

Which of the following colors used on the NFPA diamond chemical hazard warning label represents the health hazard? A. Red B. Blue C. Yellow D. White

B. Blue

Organic peroxides are particularly dangerous when A. Concentrated B. All of the given answers C. When ethyl ether or tetrahydrofuran is left open to the air md allowed to evaporate D. Heated

B. All of the given answers

Electrophiles are A. electron-poor species B. electron-rich species C. positively charged ions D. electrically neutral species

A. electron-poor species

Chlorination of alkanes is what type of reaction? A. elimination B. rearrangement C. electrophilic addition D. free-radical substitution

D. free-radical substitution

Which of these compounds exist as cis and trans isomers? A. dichlorobenzene B. 1-chloropropene C. dichloroethyne D. 1,2-dichloropropane

B. 1-chloropropene

Which compound will rapidly decolorize Br2 in CHCl3? A. hexane B. benzene C. 1-hexene D. cyclohexane

C. 1-hexene

Baeyer’s reagent is used to characterize alkenes. Which of the following is Baeyer’s reagent? A. Neutral solution of HCl B. Alcoholic solution of carbonate C. Ammoniacal solution of silver nitrate D. Aqueous solution of potassium permanganate

D. Aqueous solution of potassium permanganate

36. In what way does the reactivity of CH3C≡CH differ from CH3CH=CH2? A. Propyne is deprotonated by NaNH2, while propene is not. B. Propyne does not react with bromine, while propene reacts readily with bromine. C. Propyne undergoes catalytic hydrogenation over platinum, while propene does not. D. Propyne is readily hydrated at pH = 0, while propene is not.

A. Propyne is deprotonated by NaNH2, while propene is not.

Which of the following is an aromatic compound? A. acetylene B. acetone C. styrene D. polyethylene

C. styrene

How many σ and π bonds are present in benzene? A. 6 σ and 3 π B. 3 σ and 6 π C. 3 σ and 12 π D. 12 σ and 3 π

D. 12 σ and 3 π

Which of the following is the most activating in electrophilic aromatic substitution? A. -NO2 B. -NHCOCH3 C. -CN D. -NH2

D. -NH2

Which of the following is the rate determining step in electrophilic aromatic substitution? A. generation of the electrophile B. addition of the electrophile on benzene’s π bond to form a carbocation C. loss of a proton to re-form the aromatic ring D. none of the above

B. addition of the electrophile on benzene’s π bond to form a carbocation

Which of the following CANNOT be a product of the reaction of benzene with CH3Cl and AlCl3? A. toluene B. isopropyl benzene C. o-xylene D. p-xylene

B. isopropyl benzene

Alkyl halides are very reactive towards nucleophiles because A. they have a nucleophilic carbon and a good leaving group. B. they have a nucleophilic carbon and a poor leaving group. C. they have an electrophilic carbon and a good leaving group. D. they have an electrophilic carbon and a poor leaving group.

C. they have an electrophilic carbon and a good leaving group.

SN2 means A. two-step nucleophilic substitution involving both alkyl halide and nucleophile B. one-step nucleophilic substitution involving both alkyl halide and nucleophile C. two-step nucleophilic substitution involving only the alkyl halide D. one-step nucleophilic substitution involving only the nucleophile

B. one-step nucleophilic substitution involving both alkyl halide and nucleophile

Which of the following alkyl halides can undergo both SN1 and SN2 reactions? A. CH3X B. (CH3)2CHX C. (CH3)3CX D. (CH3)3CCH2X

B. (CH3)2CHX

What of the following reactions are favored by polar aprotic solvent? A. Both SN1 and SN2 reactions B. SN1 reactions C. None of the given choices D. SN2 reactions

D. SN2 reactions

Which compound has the highest boiling point? A. CH3CH2CH3 B. CH3OCH2CH3 C. CH3COCH3 D. CH3CH2CH2OH

D. CH3CH2CH2OH

Which of the following reactions will NOT produce aldehydes? A. ozonolysis of alkenes B. hydration of alkynes C. oxidation of primary alcohols D. dehydration of secondary alcohols

D. dehydration of secondary alcohols

Carbon is found in the highest oxidation state in which of these classes of organic compounds? A. alkynes B. alcohols C. aldehydes D. carboxylic acids

D. carboxylic acids

Which reaction could occur between acetic acid and ethanol? A. addition B. esterification C. neutralization D. oxidation

B. esterification

Which of the following reagents can be used to distinguish between phenol and carboxylic acid? A. aqueous NaCl B. aqueous NaOH C. aqueous FeCl3 D. Tollens reagent

C. aqueous FeCl3

Solvent extraction is more effective when the extraction is repeated with a. Extra solvent b. Large solvent c. Small solvent d. No solvent

c. Small solvent

The insoluble impurities during recrystallization are removed by a. Hot gravity filtration b. Vacuum filtration c. Cooling d. Drying

a. Hot gravity filtration

During recrystallization, 0.85g of crude aspirin was dissolved in a suitable solvent and after filtration and drying, 0.68g of crystals were recovered. Calculate the % recovery. a. 20% b. 50% c. 65% d. 80%

d. 80%

The temperature at which solid and liquid coexist in equilibrium is the a. Melting point of liquid b. Freezing point of liquid c. Freezing point of solid d. All of the mentioned

b. Freezing point of liquid

Which of the following is NOT separated using distillation? a. Acetone and water b. Aniline and chloroform c. Impurities in sea water d. Milk and water

d. Milk and water

Steam baths are often used to heat volatile, non-aqueous, flammable solvents because of the following EXCEPT a. Can only heat up to 100°C so no overheating occurs in the compounds of the sample b. Flash fires are unlikely in most solvents c. Overheating is possible d. Provides instant heat

c. Overheating is possible

The beads in a fractional column are for a. Vapors to condense b. Vapors to evaporate c. Vapors to generate d. All of the mentioned

a. Vapors to condense

Fractional distillation is a process of separation of which of the following? a. Two immiscible liquids b. One miscible and one immiscible c. Two miscible liquids d. None of the above

c. Two miscible liquids

What is the advantage of steam distillation? a. Reduce decomposition of temperature-sensitive compounds b. Reduces decomposition of inorganic compounds c. Increases the decomposition of temperature- sensitive compounds d. Increases the decomposition of inorganic compounds

a. Reduce decomposition of temperature-sensitive compounds

Which of the following is NOT true about steam distillation? a. Very long extraction times b. Very short extraction times c. High energy consumption d. No need for subsequent separation steps

b. Very short extraction times

Which of the following is the correct way to determine the boiling point of an unknown compound? a. Heating a compound to boiling and measuring the temperature of the hot plate b. Heating a compound to near boiling and placing the thermometer in the liquid c. Boiling a compound and placing the thermometer in the refluxing vapor d. Boiling a compound and placing the thermometer in the boiling liquid

c. Boiling a compound and placing the thermometer in the refluxing vapor

The principle of TLC is that a. Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to different degrees b. Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to same degrees c. Different compounds are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different degrees d. Different compounds are adsorbed on an adsorbent to same degrees

c. Different compounds are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different degrees

Which of the following statements about visualization during TLC is TRUE? a. Spots of colorless compounds are invisible to the eyes b. Spots can be detected by putting the plate under ultraviolet light c. Spots can be detected by placing the plate in a covered jar containing iodine crystals d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Amino acids can be detected by spraying the stationary phase with ninhydrin solution. This can be done in a. Gas chromatography b. Paper chromatography c. Liquid chromatography d. Column chromatography

b. Paper chromatography

Karl Fischer titration, which determines trace amounts of water in a sample, uses which electrochemical method? a. Potentiometry b. Coulometry c. Voltammetry d. Iodometry

b. Coulometry

Which of the following is NOT a common method used for purification? a. Electrolysis b. Sublimation c. Crystallization d. Chromatography

a. Electrolysis

Method of passing the sample through a metal or plastic mesh of a uniform cross-sectional area to separate particles into uniform sizes. a. Sieving b. Milling c. Pulverizing d. Macerating

a. Sieving

In the decomposition and dissolution of solids during sample preparation, which of the following is expensive and often the last resort? a. Fusion technique b. Simple dissolution c. Acid treatment using oxidation d. Dissolution using ultrasound and appropriate solvent

a. Fusion technique

Sample preparation technique used prior to instrumental analysis of metals a. Sieving b. Clean-up c. Acid digestion d. Liquid-liquid extraction

c. Acid digestion

In handling acid wastes, what type of protective gloves should be used? a. Cloth gloves b. Rubber gloves c. Surgical gloves d. Disposal plastic gloves

b. Rubber gloves

The following are the minimum requirements for hazardous waste storage facilities EXCEPT a. Enclosed and should not be ventilated b. Properly secured and not easily accessed by unauthorized persons c. Accessible in cases of emergency and for the purpose of inspection and monitoring d. Equipped with floors that are impermeable to liquids and resistant to attack by chemicals, not slippery, and constructed to retain spillages

a. Enclosed and should not be ventilated

It is the hazardous waste characteristic which applies to waste that have the potential to contaminate groundwater if improperly disposed of. These materials are regulated as hazardous waste due to their potential to leach out specific toxic substances in a landfill a. Ignitability b. Reactivity c. Toxicity d. Corrosivity

c. Toxicity

According to revised DAO 04-36, the appropriate waste labels shall include a. Generator ID number b. Volume of waste c. Container material d. All of the above

d. All of the above

An institution that handles chemicals relies on the __ to make the initial determination of whether a waste is hazardous and to label the waste accordingly? a. Laboratory safety manager b. Department of environmental and natural resources c. Principal investigator d. Plant safety officer

b. Department of environmental and natural resources

Hazardous waste should be kept separate from other waste because a. Costs are different b. Different treatments c. Others can be recycled d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which of the following should be done when handling flammable and combustible liquids? a. Keep away from potential ignition sources b. Use and store in adequately ventilated areas c. Keep container closed except when dispensing d. All of the above

d. All of the above

What should you do when a waste container has a minor leak? a. Patch up the container b. Transfer to another container c. Call your PCO to report in a regulatory body d. Put the container with leak in a bigger container

b. Transfer to another container

According to NFPA, what color refers to flammability? a. Blue b. Yellow c. Red d. White

c. Red

Which of the following can be disposed down the drain? a. 1g/L PCl5 b. 0.1M H2SO4 c. 200g/L PCl5 d. None of the above

d. None of the above

The following are good sampling practices EXCEPT a. If possible, mix the material before getting the sample b. Take several increments and composite them to form the sample c. Sample frequently enough to allow for the identification of process cycles d. Collect the sample in a container made of material that will chemically react with the sample

d. Collect the sample in a container made of material that will chemically react with the sample

Organic peroxides are dangerous when a. Heated b. Concentrated c. You let ether, p-dioxane, THF, among others to vaporize d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which of the following is NOT a good practice in storing chemicals? a. Store peroxidizable materials away from heat and light b. Maintain a clearance of at least 18 in. from the sprinkler heads to allow proper functioning of the sprinkler system c. Store chemicals directly on the floor d. Do not store materials on top of high cabinets where they will be hard to see or reach

c. Store chemicals directly on the floor

When handling concentrated acids except hydrofluoric acid, which of the following PPE must be worn? a. Gloves b. Lab gown and safety boots c. Masks and respirators d. All of the above

d. All of the above

When using a fume hood, all of the following must be done except a. Making sure that the exhaust is operating b. Keeping the hood closed, except during apparatus set up or when working within the hood c. Using the hood as a storage area for volatile chemicals when appropriate storage cabinet is not available d. Removing contaminated items with odors and hazardous materials only after decontamination or if placed in a closed container to avoid release of contaminants into the air

c. Using the hood as a storage area for volatile chemicals when appropriate storage cabinet is not available

When working with chemicals that has splash hazards, what is the most appropriate PPE to use? a. Prescription glasses b. Goggles c. Face shield only d. Safety glasses

b. Goggles

According to the GHS, which of the following is NOT under the pictogram “Gas cylinder”? a. Compressed gas b. Dissolved gas c. Liquified gas d. Explosive gas

d. Explosive gas

Which of the following is NOT a proper laboratory practice? a. Wearing of masks and gloves b. Drying of glassware after washing c. Tying or braiding long hairs d. Adding water to strong acid

d. Adding water to strong acid

A technical document, which is GHS compliant, that contains all the information related to the health hazard, storage, precautionary measures, emergency procedures, etc. when handling chemicals. a. Safety data sheet b. Chemical data sheet c. Material safety data sheet d. Chemical safety data sheet

a. Safety data sheet

Chromatography is used to a. Separate two or more compounds based on their polarities b. Separate two or more compounds based on their masses c. Separate two or more compounds based on how strongly they interact with other compounds d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which type of chromatography is used for structural analysis? a. Affinity chromatography b. Partition chromatography c. Column chromatography d. Paper chromatography

d. Paper chromatography

Which of the following can be separated using column chromatography? a. Sugar derivatives b. Hydrolyzed peptides c. Inorganic complex ions d. Chlorophylls and carotenoids

d. Chlorophylls and carotenoids

Affinity chromatography is used for the analysis and isolation of a. Starch b. Tyrosinase c. Antibodies d. All of the mentioned

d. All of the mentioned

Which of the following is useful for the separation of low molecular weight gases? a. Gas-solid chromatography b. Gas-liquid chromatography c. Liquid-liquid chromatography d. Thin layer chromatography

a. Gas-solid chromatography

The analysis and separation of industrial products like soap and synthetic detergents is done using a. Thin layer chromatography b. Gas chromatography c. partition chromatography d. ion exchange chromatography

b. Gas chromatography

Ion exchange particles carry fixed positive or negative charges. A sulfonic acid type resin has SO3-H+ groups were H+ can be exchanged for a. cations b. anions c. small cations and large anions d. small anions and large cations

a. cations

A graph showing the detector’s response as a function of elution time, band’s shapes, position, and resolution a. monitor display b. quality control chart c. calibration curve d. chromatogram

d. chromatogram

A technique for separating mixtures into their components in order to analyze, identify, purify, and/or quantify the mixture or components a. spectroscopy b. chromatography c. gravimetry d. titrimetry

b. chromatography

Which of the following is NOT an application of high-performance liquid chromatography? a. Separation of pharmaceutical drugs b. Analysis of proteins, drugs, and explosives c. Separation of lipids, fatty acids, and steroids d. Elimination of undesirable substances from blood

d. Elimination of undesirable substances from blood

Which of the following statements about spectroscopic methods is correct? a. Spectroscopic methods require less time and more amount of sample than classical methods b. Spectroscopic methods require more time and more amount of sample than classical methods c. Spectroscopic methods require less time and less amount of sample than classical methods d. Spectroscopic methods require more time and less amount of sample than classical methods

c. Spectroscopic methods require less time and less amount of sample than classical methods

Which of the following demonstrates proper drying of cuvette? a. Dry using a desiccator b. Place in an oven to dry overnight c. Blot on absorbing towel or tissue paper and allow to air dry d. None of the above

c. Blot on absorbing towel or tissue paper and allow to air dry

Which of the following is NOT a limitation of Beer-Lambert’s law? a. Light must be of a narrow wavelength range and preferably monochromatic b. Presence of fluorescent molecule in solution may interfere in the final absorbance of solution c. At high concentration, molecules may polymerize and thereby affecting absorption of solution d. Beer-lambert’s law does not for the quantitative basis for all types of absorption spectroscopy.

d. Beer-lambert’s law does not for the quantitative basis for all types of absorption spectroscopy.

A graphical representation of measuring signal as a function of quantity of analyte. a. Calibration curve b. Absorbance chart c. Quality control chart d. None of the above

a. Calibration curve

Which species of the following is used to bombard with the sample for which mass spectroscopy has been performed? a. Alpha particles b. Neutrons c. Electrons d. Protons

c. Electrons

Which of the following molecules will NOT show an infrared spectrum? a. HCl b. H2O c. CO2 d. CH4

c. CO2

In the past, IR spectra had to be acquired one wavelength at a time, which took a long time. Today spectra can be acquired faster due to the a. Light is faster today that is used to be b. Absence of broad spectrum of wavelength c. Fourier transfer algorithm which allows to scan all frequencies at once d. None of the above

c. Fourier transfer algorithm which allows to scan all frequencies at once

What compound is possibly shown in an infrared spectrum with peaks of 3000 and 1650cm-1? a. Cyclohexane b. Cyclohexene c. Benzene d. Acetone

b. Cyclohexene

NMR spectroscopy indicates the chemical nature of the __ and spatial positions of __ a. Electrons, protons b. Neutrons, electrons c. Nuclei, electrons d. Nuclei, neighboring nuclei

d. Nuclei, neighboring nuclei

In which species are all the carbon atoms sp2 hybridized? a. C2H2 b. C2H4 c. C3H8 d. C4H10

b. C2H4

What is the hybridization of the carbon atom in carboxyl group? a. sp b. sp3 c. sp2 d. dsp5

c. sp2

In which species is the carbon-nitrogen bond the shortest? I. CH3NH2 II. CH2NH III. (CH3)4N^+ IV. CH3CN a. II b. I c. IV d. III

c. IV

How many different compounds have the formula C5H12? a. 5 b. 2 c. 4 d. 3

d. 3

How many different alcohols (not including stereoisomers) have the molecular formula C4H10O a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

c. 4

For which compound are the empirical and molecular formulas the same? a. C6H5COOH b. C6H4(COOH)2 c. HOOCCOOH d. CH3COOH

a. C6H5COOH

Which is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound? a. 5-bromo-3-ethylhept-3-ene b. 3-ethyl-5-bromohept-3-ene c. 3-bromo-5-ethylhept-4-ene d. III-diethyl-3-bromopent-1-ene

a. 5-bromo-3-ethylhept-3-ene

Identify the incorrect statement regarding cycloalkanes a. They have sp3 hybridized carbons b. They have tetrahedral bond angles c. Their stability varies directly with their respective size d. They undergo reactions similar to that of alkanes

b. They have tetrahedral bond angles

Which of the following reactions will consume the most oxygen? a. Complete combustion one mole of octane b. Complete combustion of one mole 2,3- dimethylhexane c. Complete combustion of one mole 2,3,4- trimethylpentane d. All the given compounds will consume the same amount of oxygen

d. All the given compounds will consume the same amount of oxygen

Which of the following is NOT a reagent for hydrogenation of an alkyne? a. H2/Pd b. Na/NH3 c. H2/Lindlar’s catalyst d. BH3/H2O2,NaOH

d. BH3/H2O2,NaOH

When ethyne is subjected to ozonolysis, what is the end product? a. Formic acid b. Acetic acid c. Oxalic acid d. Glucose

a. Formic acid

Which of the compounds below will react readily with chlorine by addition? I. C2H2 (ethyne) II. C2H4 (ethene) III. C6H6 (benzene) a. I only b. I and II only c. II and III only d. I, II, and III

b. I and II only

What is the order of reactivity of the following compounds in EAS? I. Benzene II. Toluene III. Phenol IV. Benzoic acid a. IV < I < II < III b. I < IV < II < III c. III < II < I < IV d. II < III < IV < I

a. IV < I < II < III

What are the reagents needed in bromination of benzene via EAS? a. Bromine in H2O b. Bromine in CH3Cl c. Bromine in CH2Cl2 d. Bromine and FeBr3

d. Bromine and FeBr3

Which of the following is NOT true for SN1 reactions? a. They occur through a single step concerted reaction b. They are favored by polar protic solvents c. Tertiary alkyl halides generally react through this mechanism d. Concentration of nucleophile does not affect the rate of such reactions

a. They occur through a single step concerted reaction

A low concentration of nucleophile favors a. SN1 b. SN2 c. Both SN1 and SN2 d. Neither SN1 nor SN2

d. Neither SN1 nor SN2

Which statement(s) about substitution reactions are correct? I. The reaction between NaOH and 1- chloropentane predominantly follows an SN2 mechanism II. The reaction between NaOH and 2-chloro-2-methylbutane predominantly follows an SN2 mechanism III. The reaction between NaOH with 1-chloropentane occurs at a slower rate than with 1-bromopentane a. I and II b. I and III c. II and III d. I, II and III

b. I and III

Which of the following alcohols would be most soluble in water? a. Propanol b. Hexanol c. Pentanol d. Butanol

a. Propanol

The gentle oxidation of ethanol produces which of the following product? I. Ethanal II. Ethanoic acid III. Carbon monoxide IV. Carbon dioxide a. IV b. I c. II d. III

b. I

The major reason that phenol is better Bronsted acid than cyclohexanol is a. It is a better proton donor b. The pi electrons stabilize the phenoxide ion by resonance c. The phenyl group is an electron withdrawing group by induction, which stabilizes the anion formed in the reaction d. The cyclohexyl group is an electron donating group by induction, which estabilizes the anion formed in the reaction

b. The pi electrons stabilize the phenoxide ion by resonance

What is the IUPAC name for CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO a. Pentanal b. 1-pentanol c. 1-pentanone d. Pentanoic acid

a. Pentanal

Which of the following is produced when hydrogen is reacted with 2-butanone? a. Tertiary b. Aldehyde c. Primary alcohol d. Secondary alcohol

d. Secondary alcohol

Which of these compounds contain a carboxy group? a. Propanol b. Propanal c. Propanone d. Propanoic acid

d. Propanoic acid

The smell of rancid butter is due to the presence of butyric (butanoic) acid. What is the formula for this compound? a. C4H8O2 b. C4H10O c. C5H10O2 d. C5H12O

a. C4H8O2

Which family of compounds is most frequently used as flavoring agents? a. Acids b. Alkenes c. Esters d. Ethers

c. Esters

Calculate the percent yield when 0.5mol of acetic acid reacts with 1 mol of alcohol produces 0.25 mol of ethyl acetate a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100%

b. 50%

Which of the following compounds are basic? a. Alkenes b. Alkynes c. Amines d. Alcohols

c. Amines

The most notable difference between a saturated and an unsaturated fat containing the same number of carbon atoms is that the saturated fat a. Melts at a higher temperature b. Melts at a lower temperature c. Releases much more energy when metabolized d. Releases much less energy when metabolized

a. Melts at a higher temperature

When proteins are broken down, they are converted to a. Fatty acids b. Amino acids c. Nucleic acids d. Sulfonic acids

b. Amino acids

Molecular oxygen is highly soluble in the blood because a. The hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four oxygen molecules b. The solubility of oxygen is increased by the higher temperature of the body c. Pressure is increased inside the body d. Pressure inside the body id different outside it

a. The hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four oxygen molecules

The pH meter glass probe has two electrodes, one is a glass sensor electrode and the other is a _______electrode. a. reference b. anode c. cathode d. none of the above

a. reference

Conductivity could be determined using the distance between the electrodes and their surface area using Ohm's law but, for accuracy, a calibration is employed using ____of well-known conductivity. a. acid solution b. basic solution c. electrolytes d. buffer solution

c. electrolytes

The electrical conductivity of water is directly related to the concentration of dissolved ionized solids in the water or a. Total Suspended Solids b. Total Dissolved Solids c. Volatile Solids d. Total Solids

b. Total Dissolved Solids

What effect will addition of excess of HCl have on the pH of a solution of NH3? A. increase the pH B. decrease the pH C. no effect D. cannot tell from information given

B. decrease the pH

What effect will addition of sodium acetate have on the pH of a solution of acetic acid? A. increase the pH B. decrease the pH C. no effect D. cannot tell from information given

A. increase the pH

A solution that causes only a relatively small change in pH upon addition of small amounts of acids and bases is A. saturated B. a salt C. a buffer D. unsaturated

C. a buffer

Which of the following is buffer? A. NaCl/NH4Cl B. NH3/NH4Cl C. NH3/CH3COOH D. CH3COOH/NaOH

B. NH3/NH4Cl

A buffer solution may be a mixture of A. a weak acid and its salt B. a weak base and its salt C. an excess of a weak acid with a strong base D. all of the above

We have a 5.43 x 10−4 M solution of HNO3 at 25oC. What is the [OH−] in this solution? A. 1.84 x 10^−11 M B. 5.43 x 10^−10 M C. 5.43 x 10^−4 M D. 3.67 x 10^−6 M

B. 5.43 x 10^−10 M

What is the pH of a 5.82 x 10−3 M solution of NaOH at 25oC? A. 4.76 B. 11.76 C. 7.00 D. 2.45

B. 11.76

The pH of a 0.20 M NH3 solution is Kb(NH3) = 1.8x10^‒5 A. 0.70 B. 2.73 C. 11.28 D. 6.99

C. 11.28

The pH of a solution is 6.38. The hydrogen ion concentration is A. 4.17 x 10^−7 M B. 4.17 x 10^−6 M C. 6.38 x 10^−6 M D. 0.638 M

A. 4.17 x 10^−7 M

What is the [H3O+] of a 0.100 M solution of HCN at 25oC? Ka (HCN) = 4.0 x 10^−10 A. 1.58 x 10^−8 M B. 2.00 x 10^−5 M C. 6.32 x 10^−6 M D. 4.00 x 10^−11 M

C. 6.32 x 10^−6 M

A 0.200 M solution of an acid, HA, has a pH of 2.70 at 25oC. What is Ka for this acid? A. 2.21 x 10^−4 B. 4.55 x 10^−6 C. 1.99 x 10^−4 D. 2.00 x 10^−5

D. 2.00 x 10^−5

What is the pH of a 0.52 M solution of CH3COONa at 25oC? Ka (CH3COOH) = 1.76 x 10^−5 A. 9.23 B. 4.77 C. 9.37 D. 10.21

A. 9.23

Chromatography separates mixture of dyes on the basis of their _________. A. density B. polarity (solubility) C. gravity D. boiling point

B. polarity (solubility)

The concentration of a solution is known to be 0.101 M. A student determines the concentration to be 0.088 M, 0.087 M, and 0.089 M for each titration performed. Which of the following best describes these results? A. The results are accurate but not precise. B. The results are precise but not accurate C. The results are neither accurate nor precise. D. The results are both accurate and precise. E. The results are not enough information is given to determine accuracy or precision.

B. The results are precise but not accurate

What is the stoichiometry of EDTA with metal ions? A. It is 1:6, because EDTA is a hexaprotic weak acid with six distinct acid dissociation values. B. It is 1:4, because EDTA has four binding sites upon loss of the four carboxylic acid protons. C. It is 1:2, because EDTA has two binding sites upon loss of the two ammonium protons. D. It is 1:1, because EDTA forms a cage-like structure around the metal ion. E. It is dependent on the metal ion present

D. It is 1:1, because EDTA forms a cage-like structure around the metal ion.

Which variable in Beer's law represents how well a chemical species absorbs light at a given wavelength? A. c - concentration B. ε - molar absorptivity coefficient C. A - absorbance D. b - path length of the sample E. λ - wavelength

B. ε - molar absorptivity coefficient

Why must solutions with high concentrations be diluted prior to analysis via Beer's Law? A. The relationship between absorbance and concentration is not linear at high concentrations. B. The detector will reach its detection threshhold. C. The photon source is too weak to provide accurate results. D. The molar absorptivity of a compound is dependent on its concentration. E. There is no need to work with dilute concentrations; any concentration will work

A. The relationship between absorbance and concentration is not linear at high concentrations.

Which of the following transitions is NOT possible in UV-Vis absorption? A. σ → σ* B. σ → n C. σ → π* D. n → π*

C. σ → π*

In order for a compound to be IR active, it must undergo which of the following? A. A change in polarizability B. A change in dipole moment C. Emission of an electron D. Transfer of an electron E. Metal-ligand charge transfer

B. A change in dipole moment

How does turbidimetry differ from nephelometry? A. Turbidimetry measures the decrease in transmittance of incident radiation; nephelometry measures the intensity of scattered radiation. B. Nephelometry measures the decrease in transmittance of incident radiation; turbidimetry measures the intensity of scattered radiation. C. Nephelometry measures the total metal ion, or inorganic, content; turbidimetry measures total organic content. D. Turbidimetry measures the total metal ion, or inorganic, content; nephelometry measures total organic content.

A. Turbidimetry measures the decrease in transmittance of incident radiation; nephelometry measures the intensity of scattered radiation.

Fill in the blank. The relationship between the analyte concentration and the intensity of measured radiation from thermal excitation methods, such as a flame or plasma, is ________________. A. Linear B. B. Exponential C. Parabolic D. Polynomial E. Asymptotic

A. Linear

Why is a hollow cathode tube lamp necessary in atomic absorption? A. Because cathode lamps are cheaper to operate and maintain B. Because continuous spectrum lamps do not emit at the proper intensity C. Because the width of an atom's absorption band is narrow D. Because continuous spectrum lamps cause ionization of the molecules

C. Because the width of an atom's absorption band is narrow

If a compound has a retention time of 5.30 minutes with a baseline width of 0.64 minutes on a 2.0 m silica gel column, what is the average height of a theoretical plate? A. 1.8 mm/plate B. 15 mm/plate C. 29 mm/plate D. 0.24 mm/plate E. 2.7 mm/plate

A. 1.8 mm/plate

"Tailing" of a chromatographic peak is a result of which of the following? A. Interactions of the solute with the stationary phase B. Overloading the column with sample C. Interactions between the stationary and mobile phases D. Too many theoretical plates E. Small theoretical plate heights

A. Interactions of the solute with the stationary phase

What is the process of the loss of an electron called? A. Oxidation B. Reduction C. Transference D. Sublimation E. Neutralization

A. Oxidation

Which of the following is a substrate that is oxidized? A. Cationic species B. Anionic species C. Neutral species D. Reducing agent E. Oxidizing agent

D. Reducing agent

Where does the reduction reaction occur? A. At the anode B. At the cathode C. Within the potentiometer D. Within the salt bridge E. Within the bulk solution

B. At the cathode

Which of the following statements about the standard hydrogen electrode, the calomel electrode, and the silver/silver chloride electrode is true? A. These electrodes combine to make a complete electrochemical cell. B. These electrodes are typically used as reference electrodes. C. These electrodes are typically used as working (indicator) electrodes. D. These electrodes are examples of membrane electrodes. E. These electrodes have the same electrochemical potential.

B. These electrodes are typically used as reference electrodes.

Pre-treatment of solid samples prior analysis. A. Leaching and extraction of soluble components B. Filtering of mixtures of solids, liquids and gases to leave particulate (solid) matter C. Grinding D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Properties of nitric acid making it the preferred acid for digesting samples for the analysis of metals A. acts as a strong acid B. as an oxidizing agent C. does not form insoluble compounds with metals/nonmetals D. All of the above

D. All of the above

. Containers that should not be used for dry ashing because the elevated temperatures exceed the melting point of these materials A. zirconium B. platinum C. Glass and plastic D. porcelain

C. Glass and plastic

How would you prepare 500.0 mL of 0.2500 M NaOH solution starting from a concentration of 1.000 M? A. Transfer 125 mL from initial solution (1.000 M) and complete with solvent to 500.0 mL. B. Transfer 121 mL from initial solution (1.000 M) and complete with solvent to 500.0 mL. C. Transfer 122 mL from initial solution (1.000 M) and complete with solvent to 500.0 mL. D. Transfer 112 mL from initial solution (1.000 M) and complete with solvent to 500.0 mL.

A. Transfer 125 mL from initial solution (1.000 M) and complete with solvent to 500.0 mL.

A student has got three stock standard solutions of 3 different elements, zinc (Zn) 2000 ppm, cadmium (Cd) 1500 ppm and lead (Pb) 1000 ppm. A student took 10 mL from each solution and transfers it to 200 mL volumetric flask then completed to total volume with solvent. What is the final concentration of each element in the diluted mix solution? A. 50 ppm Zinc, 32 ppm Cd, 25 ppm Pb B. 100 ppm Zinc, 75 ppm Cd, 50 ppm Pb C. 75 ppm Zinc, 75 ppm Cd, 50 ppm Pb D. 100 ppm Zinc, 25 ppm Cd, 25 ppm Pb

B. 100 ppm Zinc, 75 ppm Cd, 50 ppm Pb

The substance which does the dissolving and must be greater than 50% of the solution. A. solvent B. solute C. mixture D. solution

A. solvent

The method of standardization can be used if a _______________ reacts quantitatively with the reagent needed in the standard solution. A. primary standard B. secondary standard C. working standards D. intermediate solution

A. primary standard

Blank samples are prepared so that you have a measure of the amount that needs always to be added to or subtracted from the end point to achieve the ________point. A. titration error B. equivalence C. accuracy D. precision

B. equivalence

The maximum amount of solute that will dissolve in a definite amount of solvent to produce a stable system at a specified temperature is called A. dilution B. solubility C. saturation D. concentration

B. solubility

The recommended procedure for preparing a very dilute solution is not to weigh out a very small mass or measuring a very small volume of a stock solution. Instead, it is done by a series of dilutions. A sample of 0.8214 g of KMnO4 (158.04) was dissolved in water and made up to the volume in a 500-ml volumetric flask. A 2.000-ml sample of this solution was transferred to a 1000- ml volumetric flask and diluted to the mark with water. Next, 10.00 ml of the diluted solution were transferred to a 250-ml flask and diluted to the mark with water. What is the concentration (in molarity) of the final solution? A. 0.1039 M B. 2.079 x 10^‒5 M C. 8.316 x 10^‒7 M D. none of the abovE

C. 8.316 x 10^‒7 M

Under the Lewis concept of acids and bases, an acid is A. a proton donor B. a proton acceptor C. a hydroxide donor D. an electron pair donor

D. an electron pair donor

Predict the products of the following acid-base reaction: HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaOH(aq) A. H3O+(aq) + OH− B. Na+(aq) + Cl−(aq) C. NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) D. no reaction takes place

C. NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)

A buffer solution may be a mixture of A. a weak acid and its salt B. a weak base and its salt C. an excess of a weak acid with a strong base D. all of the given choices

D. all of the given choices

A principle stating that if stress is applied to a system at equilibrium, the equilibrium is shifted in the direction that tends to reduce the stress. A. Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle B. Le Chatelier’s Principle C. Hund’s Rule D. Debye-Huckel Principle

B. Le Chatelier’s Principle

What is the pH of a 0.52 M solution of CH3COONa at 25oC? Ka (CH3COOH) = 1.76 x 10^−5 A. 9.23 B. 4.77 C. 9.37 D. 10.21

A. 9.23

In recording laboratory results, the following shall be done, except: A. Use permanent ink B. When an error is committed, put multiple lines to cross out the wrong data C. Always indicate the date of analysis D. Record all necessary details including qualitative observations

B. When an error is committed, put multiple lines to cross out the wrong data

In sample acceptance, which of the following shall be checked? A. sample density B. sample integrity C. amount of sample D. both sample integrity and amount of sample

D. both sample integrity and amount of sample

A sample comprising two or more increments selected to represent the material being analyzed. A. grab sample B. composite sample C. laboratory sample D. none of the above

B. composite sample

The following are good sampling practices except: A. Take several increments and composite them to form the sample. B. If possible, mix the material before getting the sample. C. Collect the sample in a container made if material that will chemically react with the sample. D. Sample frequently enough to allow for the identification of process cycles.

C. Collect the sample in a container made if material that will chemically react with the sample.

Light sensitive samples should be collected in a/an __________ container. A. polyethylene bottle container B. polypropylene container C. amber bottle container D. volumetric flask

C. amber bottle container

The dilution of concentrated acid is an exothermic process. It is best to: A. place the flask in a hot water bath. B. add ice cold water instead of room temperature water. C. place the flask in a cold-water bath. D. place the flask in a freezer with a temperature of -20ºC

C. place the flask in a cold-water bath.

Which of the following is a cause of contamination during the sample preparation? A. Sample contained in a required container following the precautions specified in the sampling method. B. Sample preparation apparatus is cleaned and washed according to requirements ofsampling method. C. Carryover of previous sample due to uncleaned sample preparation apparatus. D. None of the given choices.

C. Carryover of previous sample due to uncleaned sample preparation apparatus.

The following are different types of sample preservation except: A. freezing B. acidification C. reagent addition D. filtration

D. filtration

Sample preparation technique used prior to instrumental analysis of metals. A. acid digestion B. liquid-liquid extraction C. sieving D. clean-up

A. acid digestion

Preservation technique for water samples intended for metals determination that cannot be analyzed immediately A. Acidify with 1mL HNO3 to pH<2 B. Adjust pH to>11.5 with NaOH, C. Filter and preserve with zinc acetate D. add PbCO3

A. Acidify with 1mL HNO3 to pH<2

For an aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid (HCl) the pH was found to be 4.18 units. What is the concentration of HCl in this solution? A. 2.2 x10^-3 M B. 1.4 x 10^-3 M C. 4.8 x 10^-4 M D. 6.6 x 10^-5 M

D. 6.6 x 10^-5 M

What is the pH of a 0.015 M solution of potassium hydroxide (KOH)? A. 1.8 B. 12.2 C. 8.8 D. 13.1

B. 12.2

Which one of the following statements is true? A. A strong electrolyte solution is a solution that always contains a high concentration of an acid or base. B. The strength of an acid can be influenced by the solvent into which it is placed C. In aqueous solution a strong acid will dissociate to form a strong conjugate base and together these form a conjugate pair. D. pH 7 is considered to be neutral pH at all temperatures

B. The strength of an acid can be influenced by the solvent into which it is placed

When talking about energy levels in an atom, what is an "excited state"? A. The highest energy state of an atom. B. Any level higher than the ground state. C. The lowest energy state of an atom. D. When an atom loses an electron E. When the atom rests

B. Any level higher than the ground state.

The Beer-Lambert Law... A. Relates absorbance, concentration, path length and molar absorption coefficient B. Tells us the volume of the sample C. Relates frequency and wavelength D. Allows us to calculate how conjugated the system is

A. Relates absorbance, concentration, path length and molar absorption coefficient

Absorption occurs at... A. All wavelengths in the spectrum B. A characteristic wavelength dependent on the molecule C. The UV region D. The visible region

B. A characteristic wavelength dependent on the molecule

Which of the following statements most accurately describes UV-Vis spectroscopy? A. Inside a spectrophotometer, the beam is split into two where one beam is used as a reference and the other beam is used to cause interference with the reference. B. UV-Vis spectroscopy can be used to measure the kinetics or the rate constant of a reaction. C. For molecules containing π or non-bonding electrons, the larger the HOMO-LUMO gap, the longer the wavelength the compound absorbs. D. The absorbance of a compound is proportional to the concentration of the sample and inversely proportional to the path length according to Beer’s Law

B. UV-Vis spectroscopy can be used to measure the kinetics or the rate constant of a reaction.

A pure substance will have ____ spot(s) on a chromatogram A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

B. 1

Nickel is isolated from base ore samples by digesting the sample with aqua regia (USEPA Method 200.7, 1994). The concentration of Ni in the supernatant is determined by atomic absorption using an air-acetylene flame. The following calibration data and sample absorbance was obtained: Concentration (M) Absorbance 0.00 0.00 0.100 0.006 0.200 0.013 0.300 0.020 Sample 0.016 What is the concentration of the unknown in mol/L? A. 0.234 B. 0.301 C. 0.126 D. 0.099

A. 0.234

The separation of a two-component mixture measured Dtr = 8.5mm, wA=wB=12.0mm. What can be said about the separation of the two peaks? A. The resolution is good. B. The resolution is not good. C. The resolution cannot be computed. D. The plate number is good.

B. The resolution is not good.

The free EBT indicator is __________ in color at pH 10. A. Wine red B. Blue C. Violet D. Orange E. None of the above

B. Blue

To determine the molar mass of a solid monoprotic acid, a student titrated a weight sample of the acid with standard NaOH. Which of the following could lead to a larger molar mass? I. Failure to rinse all the acid from the weighing container into the beaker. II. Addition of more water than was needed to dissolve the acid. III. Addition of some base beyond equivalence point A. I only B. II only C. I and III only D. II and III only E. I, II and III

A. I only

In the titration of a weak acid with a strong base, at the equivalence point A. pH = 7.0 B. pH <7.0 C. pH > 7.0 D. none of these E. pH = pOH

C. pH > 7.0

A high equivalent weight is desirable for compounds used as primary standards because A. such compound are generally easier to purify. B. such compounds are generally hygroscopic C. such compounds generally react with 1:1 stoichiometry D. large compounds generally contain less surface area. E. weighing errors are generally minimized.

E. weighing errors are generally minimized.

Which of the following statements is true? A. A masking agent prevents one species from interfering in the analysis of another. B. In EDTA titration, an auxiliary complexing agent prevents metal ions from precipitating in the absence of EDTA. C. Metal ion indicators are compounds whose color changes when they bind to a metal ion. D. All of these. E. None of these.

C. Metal ion indicators are compounds whose color changes when they bind to a metal ion.

Which of the following is not a desirable property of an indicator to be used in a complexometric titration that involves EDTA? A. The indicator should be a Lewis base. B. The indicator should bind more tightly to the analyte metal than EDTA does. C. The complexation reaction between the indicator and the analyte metal should be reversible. D. The uncomplexed form of the indicator should be a different color than the indicator-metal complex

B. The indicator should bind more tightly to the analyte metal than EDTA does.

Commercial reagent grade H2SO4 is about A. 12 M B. 15 M C. 18 M D. 24 M E. None of the given choices

C. 18 M

A 50.0 mL solution containing Zn2+ was treated with 25 mL of 0.0452 M EDTA. The excess EDTA needed 29.2 mL 0.0123 M Mg 2+ to reach the equivalence point. What was the molarity of Zn2+ solution? A. 0.0154 M B. 0.0422 M C. 0.0211 M D. 0.0308 M E. None of the choices

A. 0.0154 M

Which of the following can be used for strong acid-base titrations? A. Phenolphthalein B. Methyl orange C. Bromocresol green D. Methyl red E. All of the these

E. All of the these

Which changes to this galvanic cell increase the measured potential? I. Increasing [Cu2+] in the Cu/Cu2+ half-cell to 0.50 M II. Adding Cl– to the Ag+/Ag half-cell until [Cl–] = 0.01 M A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I and II

D. Neither I and II

When 1.06 mmol of 1-pentanol and 1.53 mmol of 1-hexanol were separated by gas chromatography, they gave relative peak areas of 922 and 1 570 units, respectively. When 0.57 mmol of pentanol was added to an unknown containing hexanol, the relative chromatographic peak areas were 843:816 (pentanol:hexanol). How much hexanol did the unknown contain? A. 0.46 mmol B. 0.47 C. 0.50 D. 0.52

B. 0.47

A mixture of benzene, toluene, and methane was injected into a gas chromatograph. Methane gave a sharp spike in 42 s, whereas benzene required 251 s and toluene was eluted in 333 s. Find the capacity factor for each solute. A. Benzene = 5.0; Toluene = 6.9 B. Benzene = 6.9; Toluene = 5.0 C. Benzene = 1.39; Toluene = 1.33 D. Benzene = 1.33; Toluene 1.39

A. Benzene = 5.0; Toluene = 6.9

. It is the time the analyte spends in the stationary phase. A. Retention time B. Relative retention C. Adjusted retention time D. Unadjusted retention time

C. Adjusted retention time

The use of electrodes to measure voltages that provide chemical information is called? A. Voltammetry B. Amperometry C. Potentiometry D. Conductivity

C. Potentiometry

A scientific instrument that measures the hydrogen ion activity in water-based solutions. A. Conductivity apparatus B. Standard Hydrogen Electrode C. pH meter D. None of these

C. pH meter

The transmittance of a 0.010 M solution of a compound in a 0.100 cm pathlength cell is T = 8.23%. Find the absorbance and the molar absorptivity. A. A = 2.16; ε = 2.16 x 10^3 M^-1cm^-1 B. A = 1.08; ε = 1.08 x 10^3 M^-1cm^-1 C. A = 1.08; ε = 0.54 x 10^3 M^-1cm^-1 D. A = 0.54; ε = 1.08 x 10^3 M^-1cm^-1

B. A = 1.08; ε = 1.08 x 10^3 M^-1cm^-1

Which statement is correct about the electrochemical cell represented here? Ag | Ag+ || NO3–, NO | Pt A. NO undergoes oxidation at the anode. B. The major purpose of the Pt is to act as a catalyst. C. The Ag electrode decreases in mass as the cell operates. D. The voltage of the cell can be increased by doubling the size of the Ag electrode.

C. The Ag electrode decreases in mass as the cell operates.

Which technique is preferred for delivering a solid into a pre-weighed beaker for weighing? A. Transfer more of the reagent than is needed to the beaker. Return the excess to the bottle with a spatula. B. Transfer the desired amount of solid from the reagent bottle by holding the neck of the open bottle over the beaker and tapping the bottle. Then weigh the beaker and solid. C. Weigh a spatula, scoop the desired amount of solid from the bottle, transfer it to the beaker and reweigh the spatula. D. Weigh a piece of filter paper, tap the neck of the bottle to transfer solid to the filter paper, weigh the filter paper and transfer the solid to the beaker.

B. Transfer the desired amount of solid from the reagent bottle by holding the neck of the open bottle over the beaker and tapping the bottle. Then weigh the beaker and solid.

What is the molarity of KI in a solution that is 5.00% KI by mass and has a density of 1.038 g·cm^3? A. 0.0301 M B. 0.313 M C. 0.500 M D. 0.625 M

B. 0.313 M

Which compound is least soluble in water? A. CH3CH2CH2F B. CH3CH2CH2NH2 C. CH3CH2CH2OH D. CH3CH2CH2COOH

A. CH3CH2CH2F

Which statement is correct about a system at equilibrium? A. The forward and reverse reactions occur at identical rates. B. The concentrations of reactants must equal the concentrations of the products. C. The concentrations of reactants and products can be changed by adding a catalyst. D. The concentrations of reactants and products are not affected by a change in temperature.

A. The forward and reverse reactions occur at identical rates.

What is the minimum concentration of cyanide contained in a waste to be classified it under A101(wastes containing cyanide)? A. 20 ppm B. 100 ppm C. 200 ppm D. 1000 ppm

C. 200 ppm

A student prepares a 100 mL aqueous solution containing a small amount of (NH4)2SO4 and a second 100 mL solution containing a small amount of NaI, then mixes the two solutions. Which statement describes what happens? A. Both compounds dissolve and remain in solution when the two solutions are mixed. B. Both compounds dissolve initially but NH4I precipitates when the solutions are mixed. C. Both compounds dissolve initially but Na2SO4 precipitates when the solutions are mixed. D. The NaI dissolves but the (NH4)2SO4 does not. There is no change upon mixing.

A. Both compounds dissolve and remain in solution when the two solutions are mixed.

A solution of concentrated aqueous ammonia is added dropwise to 1 mL of a dilute aqueous solution of copper(II) nitrate until a total of 1 mL of the ammonia solution has been added. What observations can be made during this process? A. The colorless copper(II) nitrate solution turns blue and yields a dark blue precipitate. B. The colorless copper(II) nitrate solution yields a white precipitate which turns dark blue upon standing. C. The light blue copper(II) nitrate solution yields a precipitate which redissolves to form a dark blue solution. D. The light blue copper(II) nitrate solution turns dark blue and yields a dark blue precipitate.

D. The light blue copper(II) nitrate solution turns dark blue and yields a dark blue precipitate.

D. All of the above

Locating the adulterated portion of the lot for sampling is an example of A. Random sampling B. selective sampling C. composite sampling D. stratified sampling

B. selective sampling

If the coefficients for a reaction are all multiplied by 2, the equilibrium constant will be A. equal to Kc x 2 B. equal to Kc over 2 C. unchanged D. equal to Kc^2

D. equal to Kc^2

Which of the following could NOT be added together to make a buffer solution? A. NaOH and CH3COOH B. CH3COONa and CH3COOH C. NaOH and CH3COONa D. NH4Cl and NH3

C. NaOH and CH3COONa

For the reaction A(l) + 3B(g) → C(g) + 2D(g); ΔH= -175kJ, what will happen if temperature of the system is increased? A. Kc will decrease B. none of the given options C. ΔH will decrease D. Kc will increase

A. Kc will decrease

Calculate the equivalent weight and normality for a solution of 6.0 M H3PO4 given the following reactions: (a) H3PO4(aq) + 3OH–(aq) PO4³⁻(aq) + 3H2O(l) (b) H3PO4(aq) + 2NH3(aq) HPO4²⁻(aq) + 2NH4⁺(aq) (c) H3PO4(aq) + F⁻(aq) H2PO4⁻(aq) + HF(aq) A. 18 N, (b) 12 N and (c) 6N B. 12 N, (b) 18 N and (c) 6N C. 6 N, (b) 12 N and (c) 18N D. 16 N, (b) 12 N and (c) 3N

A. 18 N, (b) 12 N and (c) 6N

Requirements of a primary standards. A. High Purity, 99.9% or better B. Stability in air C. Absence of hydrate water D. All of the above

D. All of the above

A food scientist has a sample of a plant oil and wants to determine if the oil contains saturated or unsaturated fatty acids. Which of the following spectroscopic techniques would be most useful for this purpose? A. ultraviolet spectroscopy B. visible spectroscopy C. infrared spectroscopy D. mass spectroscopy

C. infrared spectroscopy

All proteins absorb electromagnetic radiation of wavelength around 190 nm, which corresponds to an excitation in the protein molecule. In which region of the spectrum is this wavelength found? A. X-ray B. ultraviolet C. Visible D. Infrared

B. ultraviolet

In maintenance and storage of pH meters, which of the following procedure shall not be done? A. To keep the electrode bulb moist during storage, store the electrode in distilled water. B. Rinse pH electrodes in between measurements. C. Blot the electrode dry after rinsing the pH electrodes. D. Mild soap solution may be used in general cleaning of the electrod

A. To keep the electrode bulb moist during storage, store the electrode in distilled water.

Type of quality-control sample used to evaluate the effects of sample matrices on the performance of an analytical method A. Matrix Duplicate B. Matrix Spike C. Method Blank D. Reagent Blank

B. Matrix Spike

Minimum concentration of a substance that can be measured and reported with 99% confidence that the analyte concentration is greater than zero A. Limit of Quantitation B. Lower Control Limit C. Lower Warning Limit D. Method Detection Limit

D. Method Detection Limit

What equation relates the expression of the equilibrium constant in terms of pressure and concentration? A. ideal gas equation B. van’t hoff equation C. Arrhenius equation D. Molarity

A. ideal gas equation

The holding time for samples for metal determination preserved using nitric acid, 4 mL of dilute 3:1 is A. 28 days B. 3 days C. 2 weeks D. 1 year

A. 28 days

Glass container is not suitable for A. inorganic trace analyses B. oil and grease determination C. microbiological analyses D. all of the above

A. inorganic trace analyses

What is the molality of solution made by dissolve 25 g of NaCl in to 2.0 Liter of water. Assume the density of water d = 1.0 g/mL (= kg/L). A. 0.210 m B. 0.250 m C. 0.211 m D. 0.214 m

D. 0.214 m

A. Transfer 125 mL from initial solution (1.000 M) and complete with solvent to 500.0 mL.

On the multi-colored chemical label, Yellow represents A. Fire Hazard B. Health Hazard C. Reactivity Hazard D. Personal Protective Equipment

C. Reactivity Hazard

Which of the following should not be done in using a cuvette? A. Use a brush to clean the insides of the cuvette B. Fill the cuvette about 3/4 full of the solution you wish to test. C. Wipe the outside of the cuvette with a lint-free, soft tissue to remove any moisture or fingerprints from the outside surface. D. Do not clean your cuvettes in an ultrasonic cleaning bath.

A. Use a brush to clean the insides of the cuvette

In cases of acid spills, which of the following can be applied to the spill before treating it with adsorbent material? A. Sodium bicarbonate B. Water C. Acetic acid D. Sodium bisulfate

A. Sodium bicarbonate

Which is not a volumetric glassware? A. Erlenmeyer flask B. burette C. pipette D. volumetric flask

A. Erlenmeyer flask

If an element has more protons than electrons, it is called _____. - anion - isotope - cation - isobar

cation

Which of the following is NOT a possible set of quantum numbers? - n = 3, l = 1, ml = -1, ms = -1/2 - n = 3, l = 0, ml = -1, ms = -1/2 - n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = -1/2 - n = 3, l = 1, ml = 0, ms = -1/2

n = 3, l = 0, ml = -1, ms = -1/2

Which of the following corresponds to the electron configuration 1s²2s²2p⁶? - Na - Cl - Na+ - Cl-

Na+

Which is true about fume hood? - Reduces the flash limit of air - Prevents the release of unwanted chemical fumes - Captures the particulate matter that may be harmful to humans - All of the above

- All of the above

Which of the following is commonly used as components in pesticides? This group is also characterized as having seven valence electrons. - pnictogens - halogens - chalcogens - noble gases

- halogens

[ARC] Past Board Exam Flashcards

(485 cards)