ChT Squaredel Flashcards by Study Monster

Benzene and its derivatives undergo substitution reactions instead of addition reactions because

a. the integrity of the benzene ring and the stable pi-bonding pattern remains intact
b. the hydrogens of benzene are relatively loosely bound
c. the benzene ring is sterically crowded hence only substitution can occur
d. the benzene ring is electron rich

a. the integrity of the benzene ring and the stable pi-bonding pattern remains intact

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Electrophiles are

a. electron deficient species
b. electron rich species
c. electrically neutral species
d. positively charged ion

electron deficient species

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SN2 means

a. two step nucleophilic substitution mechanism involving both alkyl halide and nucleophile
b. one step nucleophilic substitution mechanism involving both alkyl halide and nucleophile
c. two step nucleophilic substitution mechanism involving only the alkyl halide
d. one step nucleophilic substitution mechanism involving only the nucleophile

b. one step nucleophilic substitution mechanism involving both alkyl halide and nucleophile

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In the decomposition and dissolution of solids during sample preparation, which of the following
is expensive and often the last resort?

a. Acid treatment using oxidation
b. Fusion technique
c. dissolution using ultrasound & appropriate solvent
d. Simple dissolution

b. Fusion technique

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It is important to discard containers that are scratched or abraded on their interior surfaces. The internal surface area of a container, whether used for sample preparation or storage, may cause
loss of

a. matrix
b. analyte
c. weight
d. ash

b. analyte

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Glass container is not suitable for

a. inorganic trace analyses
b. oil and grease determination
c. microbiological analyses
d. all of the above

a. inorganic trace analyses

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Which of the following is a primary standard for use in standardizing bases?

a. Ammonium hydroxide
b. Sulfuric acid
c. Acetic acid
d. Potassium hydrogen phthalate

d. Potassium hydrogen phthalate

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A solution has been prepared by transferring 60 mL from Ortho-phosphoric acid 85 % (v/v)
H3PO4 and diluting it to 1.0 L, what is the concentration of the new solution.

a. 10.10%
b. 9.25%
c. 12.2%
d. 5.10%

d. 5.10%

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A student has got three stock standard solutions of 3 different elements, zinc (Zn) 2000 ppm,
cadmium (Cd) 1500 ppm and lead (Pb) 1000 ppm. A student took 10 mL from each solution and
transfers it to 200 mL volumetric flask then completed to total volume with solvent. What is the
final concentration of each element in the diluted mix solution?

a. 50 ppm Zinc, 32 ppm Cd, 25 ppm Pb
b. 100 ppm Zinc, 75 ppm Cd, 50 ppm Pb
c. 75 ppm Zinc, 75 ppm Cd, 50 ppm Pb
d. 100 ppm Zinc, 25 ppm Cd, 25 ppm Pb

b. 100 ppm Zinc, 75 ppm Cd, 50 ppm Pb

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The HPLC column type in which molecules are separated according to size.

a. Ion exchange
b. size exclusion
c. normal phase
d. reverse phase

b. size exclusion

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During ignition for ashing, muffle furnaces that go up to 1100 °C are used primarily for this and
________ is needed to contain the sample.

a. porcelain crucible
b. evaporating dish
c. beaker
d. all of the above

a. porcelain crucible

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A graphical representation of measuring signal as a function of quantity of analyte.

a. Calibration curve
b. Quality Control Chart
c. Absorbance Chart
d. None of the above

a. Calibration curve

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In AAS method, If the sample concentration is too high to permit accurate analysis in linearity
response range, there are alternatives that may help bring the absorbance into the optimum
working range.

a. sample dilution
b. using an alternative wavelength having a lower absorptivity
c. reducing the path length by rotating the burner hand
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

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A student has to measure out 9.40 mL of a liquid and selects a 100 mL graduated cylinder. To
improve the accuracy of the measurement, it would be most effective to:

a. take the average of multiple measurements using the graduated cylinder.
b. measure the liquid using a 25 mL graduated cylinder instead.
c. estimate the measurement obtained from the graduated cylinder to an additional significant
figure.
d. measure the liquid using a 10 mL graduated pipette instead.

d. measure the liquid using a 10 mL graduated pipette instead.

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A buffer solution may be a mixture of

a. a weak acid and its salt
b. a weak base and its salt
c. an excess of a weak acid with a strong base
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

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Which statement is true?

a. The value of the equilibrium constant increases with the addition of a catalyst
b. A catalyst speeds up both the forward and reverse reaction rates
c. The greater the activation energy, the faster the rate of reaction.
d. A catalyst increases the rate of reaction by decreasing the number of collisions

b. A catalyst speeds up both the forward and reverse reaction rates

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What volume is occupied by 4.00 g of carbon dioxide, CO2 (44.0) gas at a pressure of 0.976 atm
and a temperature of 25.00C?

a. 0.191 L
b. 19.1 L
c. 2.28 L
d. 22.8 L

c. 2.28 L

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Molecular oxygen is highly soluble in the blood because

a. the hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four oxygen molecules
b. the solubility of oxygen is increased by the higher temperature of the body
c. pressure is increased inside the body
d. pressure inside the body is different outside of it

a. the hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four oxygen molecules

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When water is heated in a beaker, bubbles of air form on the side of the glass before the water
boils. This shows that

a. the solubility of gases in water decreases with increasing temperature
b. the solubility of gases in water increases with increasing temperature
c. the solubility of gases in water decreases with decreasing temperature
d. the solubility of gases in water increases with decreasing temperature

a. the solubility of gases in water decreases with increasing temperature

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The absorbance of different concentrations of potassium permanganate determined through UV-
Vis Spectrophotometer is shown below.
Concentration, ppm Average Absorbance
1.11 0.015
22.2 0.236
44.4 0.512
66.6 0.751
88.8 1.062

The Quality Control Sample for this run gave an average absorbance reading of 0.486. The
theoretical concentration of the QC sample is 44.4 ppm. Calculate for the error of this QC run.

a. 0.0524
b. 0.0552
c. 0.0465
d. 0.00052

a. 0.0524

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Method of passing the sample through a metal or plastic mesh of a uniform cross-sectional area to
separate particles into uniform sizes.

a. sieving
b. pulverizing
c. macerating
d. milling

a. sieving

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In handling acid wastes, what type of protective gloves should be used?

a. Cloth gloves
b. Surgical gloves
c. Rubber gloves
d. Disposal plastic gloves

c. Rubber gloves

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What type of container must be used for acid or alkali wastes?

a. Polyethylene Drums
b. Metal drums
c. Fiber Drums
d. Cloth container

a. Polyethylene Drums

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A solid waste management practice which refers to the controlled decomposition of organic
matter by microorganisms, mainly bacteria and fungi, into a humus-like product.

a. Composting
b. Recycling
c. Bioremediation
d. Reducing

a. Composting

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A series of reference standards solutions that have known and accurate pH values at different temperatures used for pH meter calibration. a. Buffer Solutions b. QC Solutions c. pH solutions d. None of the above.

a. Buffer Solutions

Law that states the linear relationship between absorbance and concentration of an absorbing species a. Beer-Lambert’s Law b. Charles Law c. Boyles Law d. Avogadro’s Law

a. Beer-Lambert’s Law

Type of quality-control sample used to evaluate the effects of sample matrices on the performance of an analytical method a. Matrix Duplicate b. Matrix Spike c. Method Blank d. Reagent Blank

b. Matrix Spike

Component of error which, in the course of a number of analyses of the same measurand, remains constant or varies in a predictable way. a. Random Error b. Analyst’s Error c. Systematic Error d. Uncertainty

c. Systematic Error

Determine the actual volume contained in a 50.0 mL volumetric flask given the following data: Mass of water: 50.1227 g Density of water at 25˚ C : 0.99707 g/mL a. 50.45 mL b. 50.27 mL c. 50.37 mL d. 50.17 mL

b. 50.27 mL

It is a pure dry solid substance of known chemical composition used in the direct standardization of solution. a. primary standard b. secondary standard c. analytical standard d. indicator

a. primary standard

It is the closeness of the agreement between the result of a measured value and a true value. a. Accuracy b. Precision c. Mean d. Error

a. Accuracy

Sample preparation technique used prior to instrumental analysis of metals. a. acid digestion b. liquid-liquid extraction c. sieving d. clean-up

a. acid digestion

Which of the following chemicals may be used to neutralize waste containing caustic soda? a. Potassium Hydroxide b. Ammonia c. Hydrochloric Acid d. Buffer 10 Solution

c. Hydrochloric Acid

Which of the following are possible routes of exposure of the hazardous effect of waste? a. Inhalation b. Dermal c. Ingestion d. all of the above

d. all of the above

According to Revised DAO 04-36, the appropriate waste labels shall include: a. Volume of Waste b. Generator ID Number c. Container Material d. All of the above

d. All of the above

What type of GHS hazard symbol is shown below? ( 2 vial pouring on a hand and a metal) a. Corrosive b. Flammable c. Oxidizer d. Explosive

a. Corrosive

Sampling type that eliminates questions of bias in selection a. composite b. stratified c. systematic d. random

d. random

Reliability of the results decreases with a decrease in the level or concentration of the: a. matrix b. analyte c. reactant d. product

b. analyte

Properties of nitric acid making it the preferred acid for digesting samples for the analysis of metals. a. acts as a strong acid b. as an oxidizing agent c. does not form insoluble compounds with metals/nonmetals d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Possible sources of contamination during sample preparation include: a. Reagents (tracers) b. Glassware/equipment c. Cross-contamination between high- and low-activity samples d. All of the above

d. All of the above

The size of the sample taken for analysis depends on the concentration of the a. analyte b. equipment to be used c. specific tests d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Locating the adulterated portion of the lot for sampling is an example of a. random sampling b. selective sampling c. composite sampling d. stratified sampling

b. selective sampling

Quantitative chemical analysis of weighing a sample, usually of a separated and dried precipitate. a. Titrimetric analysis b. Volumetric analysis c. Gravimetric analysis d. Elemental analysis

c. Gravimetric analysis

44. The substance which does the dissolving and must be greater than 50% of the solution. a. solvent b. solute c. mixture d. solution

a. solvent

Requirements of a primary standard. a. High Purity, 99.9% or better b. Stability in air c. Absence of hydrate water d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Used for vacuum filtration using filter paper. a. gooch crucible b. Buchner funnel c. rotary evaporator d. rubber aspirator

b. Buchner funnel

In chromatography, ________ is carried out on glass plates or strips of plastic or metal coated on one side with a thin layer of adsorbent. a. HPLC b. GC c. Paper Chromatography d. Thin Layer Chromatography

d. Thin Layer Chromatography

Chromatography is used to a. Separate two or more compounds based on their polarities. b. Separate two or more compounds based on their masses. c. Separate two or more compounds based on how strongly they interact with other d. compounds. e. all of the above

e. all of the above

A technique for separating mixtures into their components in order to analyze, identify, purify, and/or quantify the mixture or components. a. Spectroscopy b. Chromatography c. Gravimetry d. Titrimetry

b. Chromatography

A graph showing the detectors response as a function of elution time : band’s shapes, position, resolution a. monitor display b. quality control chart c. calibration curve d. chromatogram

d. chromatogram

Under the Bronsted concept of acids and bases, a base is a. a proton donor b. a proton acceptor c. a hydroxide donor d. an electron pair donor

b. a proton acceptor

Which of the following is NOT an acid-base conjugate pair? a. HCN and CN− b. H2O and OH− c. H2S and OH− d. NH3 and NH4+

c. H2S and OH−

Predict the products of the following acid-base reaction: NH3(aq) + HNO3(aq) → a. NH2OH(aq) + HNO2(aq) b. NH4NO3(aq) c. NH4OH(aq) d. no reaction takes place

b. NH4NO3(aq)

Which of the following is not a common method used for purification? a. Sublimation b. Crystallisation c. Electrolysis d. Chromatography

c. Electrolysis

The solution of impure compound and solvent is concentrated to get ____________ a. Unsaturated solution b. Undersaturated solution c. Saturated solution d. Oversaturated solution

c. Saturated solution

Insoluble impurities from solution during crystallization are removed by ____________ a. Drying b. Filtration c. Heating d. Cooling

b. Filtration

Crystal phases can be interconverted by varying ____________ a. Temperature b. Pressure c. Size d. Viscosity

a. Temperature

Which of the following is not separated through distillation process? a. Acetone and water b. Aniline and chloroform c. Impurities in seawater d. Milk and water

d. Milk and water

Column chromatography is based on the principle of _______________ a. Ion-exchange b. Exclusion principle c. Differential adsorption d. Absorption

c. Differential adsorption

Select the correct statement from the following options. a. The lesser the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface b. The greater the polarity of solute, more weakly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface c. The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface d. All of the mentioned option

c. The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface

The elution power of a solvent is determined by ____________ a. Its overall polarity b. The polarity of the stationary phase c. The nature of the sample components d. All of the mentioned

d. All of the mentioned

The principle on which thin layer chromatography is based is that the ____________ a. Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to different degrees b. Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to same degrees c. Different compounds are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different degrees d. Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to same degrees

c. Different compounds are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different degrees

Which type of chromatography is used for the structural analysis? a. Column chromatography b. Paper chromatography c. Partition chromatography d. Affinity chromatography

b. Paper chromatography

Affinity chromatography is used for the analysis and isolation of ____________ a. Insoluble starch substances b. Enzyme tyrosinase c. Antibodies bound with a covalently-attached antigen on cellulose column d. All of the mentioned

d. All of the mentioned

Which of the following is not an application of high performance liquid chromatography? a. Analysis of proteins, drugs and explosives b. Separation of pharmaceutical drugs c. Elimination of undesirable substances from blood d. Separation of lipids, fatty acids and steroids

c. Elimination of undesirable substances from blood

Which of the following is the application of ion exchange chromatography? a. The softening of hard water b. The demineralisation of water c. The separation and determination of anions d. All of the mentioned

d. All of the mentioned

The quantitative analysis is done using ____________ a. Ion exchange chromatography b. Thin layer chromatography c. Gas chromatography d. Liquid chromatography

c. Gas chromatography

The temperature at which solid and liquid coexist in equilibrium is called ____________ a. Melting point of liquid b. Freezing point of liquid c. Freezing point of solid d. All of the mentioned

b. Freezing point of liquid

The analysis of electromagnetic radiation scattered, absorbed or emitted by the molecule is called __________ a. Kaleidoscopy b. Astronomy c. Spectroscopy d. Anatomy

c. Spectroscopy

The different types of energies associated with a molecule are __________ a. Electronic energy b. Vibrational energy c. Rotational energy d. All of the mentioned

d. All of the mentioned

Select the correct statement from the following option. a. Spectroscopic methods require less time and more amount of sample than classical methods b. Spectroscopic methods require more time and more amount of sample than classical methods c. Spectroscopic methods require less time and less amount of sample than classical methods d. Spectroscopic methods require more time and less amount of sample than classical methods

c. Spectroscopic methods require less time and less amount of sample than classical methods

Which of the following is not in the infrared spectrum? a. HCl b. H2O c. CO2 d. CH4

d. CH4

The components of the mixture in column chromatography are eluted in order of a. increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio. b. increasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio. c. decreasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio. d. decreasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio.

a. increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio.

Which equipment must be used in the detection of Pb2+ in blood? a. AAS b. NMR Spectrometer c. IR Spectrometer d. Mass Spectrometer

a. AAS

An industrial source of alcohol. a. Coal b. Fats c. Sugar d. Ether

c. Sugar

What is the most common isotope of hydrogen? a. H has only one isotope b. Protium c. Deuterium d. Tritium

b. Protium

A 22/24 stopper is used in a volumetric flask. Which of the following is true? (Same concept as this). a. The diameter is 24 cm and the height is 22 cm. b. The diameter is 22 cm and the height is 24 cm. c. The diameter is 24 mm and the height is 22 mm. d. The diameter is 22 mm and the height is 24 mm.

d. The diameter is 22 mm and the height is 24 mm.

This type of glass is commonly used for laboratory glassware. a. Amber b. Quartz c. Fused silica d. Borosilicate

d. Borosilicate

What is the purpose of the apparatus shown below? Parts: Water outlet, Condenser, Water Inlet, Round bottom flask, Reactants, Heating Mantle. a. Titrating b. Refluxing c. Filtering d. Distilling

b. Refluxing

In the analysis of a mixture by gas chromatography, which of the following gives the best clue as to whether the components can be analysed with any degree of accuracy? (Same concept) a. Column length b. Retention times c. Column temperature d. Flow rate of the carrier gas

b. Retention times

The determination of the equilibrium constant of a colored species can be done via which technique? a. Conductance b. Ion-exchange c. Electrophoresis d. Spectrophotometry

d. Spectrophotometry

Why is there a need to separate halogenated waste from non-halogenated waste? a. Halogenated waste disposal is more costly. b. Non-halogenated wastes are more toxic. c. They are not compatible. d. They will react.

a. Halogenated waste disposal is more costly.

Organic peroxides are dangerous when a. Heated b. Concentrated c. Let ether, p-dioxane, THF, among others to vaporize d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which of the following can be disposed down the drain? a. 1 g/L PCl5 b. 1 M H2SO4 c. 200 g/L PCl5 d. None of the above

d. None of the above

This quality system standard is a general requirement for the competence of testing and calibration laboratories. a. GLP b. GMP c. ISO 9000 d. ISO/IEC 17025:2005

d. ISO/IEC 17025:2005

As P increase while T drops, intermolecular forces are evident, what is applicable? a. Ideal gas is still in effect b. Ideal gas must be replaced by van der waals (???) c. --- d. No change

b. Ideal gas must be replaced by van der waals (???)

In an ideal gas of volume V and temp T. What happens to T when volume is doubled under constant P? a. Increases b. Halved c. Remains the same d. Doubled

d. Doubled

Water is a good solvent for benzoic acid recrystallization.what is the correct preparation of benzoic solution for recrystallization. a. Add benzoic acid to minimum hot water with stirring b. Add room temp water to benzoic while stirring until dissolved c. Add maximum hot water to benzoic acid while stirring d. Add small.portions of hot water to benzoic acid while stirring. Until dissolved

d. Add small.portions of hot water to benzoic acid while stirring. Until dissolved

What is the name of RA 6969? a. Toxic Substances b. Toxic and Hazardous c. Toxic, Hazardous, and Nuclear Wastes d. Toxic, Hazardous and Nuclear Substances

Note: The choices were quite confusing. The correct one should be “Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes”

What type of reactions is hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen? a. Decomposition b. Replacement c. Synthesis d. Combustion

a. Decomposition

How to balance H2O → O2 + H2 a. Change the coefficient of O2 to 2 b. Change the coefficient of H2 to 2 c. Change the coefficients of both H2O and H2 d. Change the coefficients of both H2O and O2 to 1/2

c. Change the coefficients of both H2O and H2

What compound is possibly shown in an infrared spectrum which has peaks of 3000 cm-1 and 1650 cm-1 a. Cyclohexane b. Benzene c. Acetone d. Cyclohexene (???)

d. Cyclohexene (???)

If you are going to mass produce vitamin C, which standard should you subscribe in? a. Both A & B b. ISO 9000 c. Both B & C d. GMP

No idea since the choices were quite confusing. Maybe the choices were typo.

According to NFPA, what color refers to flammability. a. Blue b. Red c. Yellow d. White

b. Red

Complete name of the acronym MSDS. a. --- b. --- c. Material Safety Data Sheet d. ---

c. Material Safety Data Sheet

A solution is _______ if more solute can dissolve in it. a. saturated b. supersaturated c. unsaturated d. concentrated

c. unsaturated

What is the molality of 6M H2SO4 solution? The density of the solution is 1.34 g/mL.

7.98 m

Solutions of metals and salts are ______ a. Insulator b. Conductor c. Polar d. Negative

Alloys??

How many isomers do C5H12 have? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

Which is not a constitutional isomer of 2-butene?

D. description of picture: square like structure with one side double bonded.

Which of the ff are limitations of Lambert-Beer's Law? a. Scattering of light due to particles b. Fluorescence of sample c. Non-monochromatic radiation d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which of the ff requires the most energy for electronic transition? A. Alkyl halides B. Alkanes C. Carbonyl compounds D. Carboxylic compounds

B. Alkanes

The process in which the relationship of the analytical response and the concentration of the analyte is established. A. Calibration B. Standardization C. Correlation analysis D. Normalization

A. Calibration

1. What do you call a combination of two or more materials which retain their individual properties and can be separated by physical means. A. solvents B. reactions C. mixtures D. solutions

C. mixtures

2. A polar solute usually dissolves In a polar solvent and a nonpolar solute usually dissolves in a nonpolar solvent. This is A. Hund's rule B. Henry's law C. the solubility rule D. the like dissolves like rule

D. the like dissolves like rule

3. What is the molarity of a solution containing 72.9 grams of HCI in enough water to make 500 mL of solution? A. 2.0 m/L B. 4.05 g/L C. 5.0 m/L D. 4.05 m/L

D. 4.05 m/L

4. A solution has 3x10^(-4) copper 2+ content. How much is the copper 2+ content in ppm? A. 3 ppm B. 38 ppm C. 9 ppm D. 19 ppm

D. 19 ppm

5. Solutions of electrolytes and metals are A. Insulators B. Polar C. Negative D. Conductors

D. Conductors

6. The recommended procedure for preparing a very dilute solution is not to weigh out a very small mass or measuring a very small volume of a stock solution. Instead it Is done by a series of dilutions. A sample of 0.8214 g of KMn04 (158.04) was dissolved in water and made up to the volume in a 500 ml volumetric flask. A 2.000-ml sample of this solution was transferred to a 1000-ml volumetric flask and diluted to the mark with water. Next, 10.00 ml of the diluted solution were transferred to a 250 ml flask diluted to the mark with water. What is the concentration (in molarity) of the final solution? A. 0.1039 M B. 2.079 × 10^(-5) M C. 8.316 × 10^(-7) M d. none of the choices

C. 8.316 × 10^(-7) M

7. How much of a 2.0M stock solution do you need to prepare 50 ml of a 1.0 M solution? A. 75 ml B. 30 ml C. 25 ml D. 50 ml

C. 25 ml

8. A statement that sums up what you learned from an experiment and states if the hypothesis is proven or disproven is called? A. procedure B. control group C. hypothesis D. conclusion

D. conclusion

9. A prediction or a possible explanation to the question or problem which can be tested in an experiment is called? A. hypothesis B. procedure C. graph D. data

A. hypothesis

10. The number 2.34 x 10^(-7) is the scientific notation for A. 234000 B. 23400 C. 23400000 D. 2340000

C. 23400000 (typo given should be raise to 7)

11. Express the number 0.051065 to four significant figures A. 0.051 B. 0.051 C. 0.05106 D. 0.0511

C. 0.05106

12. The volume of a liquid is 20.5 mL. Which of the following sets of measurement represents the value with good accuracy? A. 19.2 mL, 19.3 mL, 18.8 mL, 18.6 mL B. 18.9 mL, 19.0 mL, 19.2 mL, 18.8 mL C. 18.6 mL, 17.8 mL, 19.6 mL, 17.2 mL D. 20.2 mL, 20.5 mL, 20.3 mL, 20.1 mL

D. 20.2 mL, 20.5 mL, 20.3 mL, 20.1 mL

13. What is the chemical formula of diphosphorus monobromide? A. PBr2 B. PBr C. P2Br2 D. P2Br

D. P2Br

14. Which of the following is a chemical reaction? A. an air conditioner cooling the air B. none of these choices C. bleaching your clothes D. melting of ice

C. bleaching your clothes

15. Noble gases are inert because they have completed outer electron shells. Which of these elements isn't a noble gas? A. Chlorine B. Krypton C. Helium D. Argon

A. Chlorine

16. What is the most common isotope of hydrogen? A. Hydrogen only has one isotope B. Deuterium C. Tritum D. Protium

D. Protium

17. As you move from top to bottom down the periodic table A. change in atomic radius cannot be predicted B. ionization energy Increases C. electronegativity decreases D. atomic radius decreases

C. electronegativity decreases

18. What do you call an atom that has more protons than electrons? A. an anion B. none of the choices C. a molecule D. an isotope

B. none of the choices (cation)

19. Which one of the following is a chemical equation? A. CO2 C. Ice + heat -> water B. C + O2 -> CO2 D. iron + oxygen -> rust

C. Ice + heat -> water

20. As you move from left to right across the periodic table A. atomic radius increases B. ionization energy decreases C. electronegativity decreases d. atomic radius decreases

d. atomic radius decreases

21. Balance the following equation: Ag + O2 → Ag2O A. Put a 2 in front of Ag B. Add a 4 in front of Ag and a 2 in front of Ag2O C. Add a subscript 2 to the end of Ag2O D. Add a 2 in front of Ag and a 1 in front of Ag2O

B. Add a 4 in front of Ag and a 2 in front of Ag2O

22. Which is NOT an acceptable name for Hg2Cl2? A. mercury (II) chloride B. mercury (1) chloride C. mercurous chloride D. dimercury dichloride

A. mercury (II) chloride

23. Under the Lewis concept of acids and bases, an acid is A. An electron pair donor B. a proton acceptor C. a proton donor D. an electron pair acceptor

D. an electron pair acceptor

24. Which of the following is NOT an acid? A. milk of magnesia B. apple juice C. milk D. gastric juice

A. milk of magnesia

25. Which of the following is NOT an acid-base conjugate pair? A. NH, and NH^+ B. H2S and OH^- C. H2O and OH^- D. HCN and CN^-

B. H2S and OH^-

26. When NH4CI hydrolyzes, the resulting solution is A. acidic B. basic C. neutral D. none of the choices

A. acidic (Cl will become HCl strong acid)

27. Aqua regia, the reagent that can be used to dissolve gold, is a 3:1 mixture of which acids? A. hydrochloric and nitric acids B. hydrofluoric and nitric acids C. hydrochloric and sulfuric acids D. perchloric and sulfuric acids

A. hydrochloric and nitric acids

28. Which of the following conjugate acid/base pairs should be used to prepare a buffer with pH near 7.15? A. Formic acid / sodium formate (pKa - 3.74) B. Sodium dihydrogen phosphate/ sodium hydrogen phosphate (pKa2 = 7.20) C. Succinic acid/sodium succinate (pKa = 5.64) D. Glycylglycine / sodium glycylglycate (pKa = 8.35)

B. Sodium dihydrogen phosphate/ sodium hydrogen phosphate (pKa2 = 7.20)

29. Predict the products of the following acid-base reaction: NHs(aq) + HNO3(aq) A. no reaction takes place B. NH4OH(aq) C. NH2OH(aq) + HNO2(aq) D. NH4NO3(aq)

D. NH4NO3(aq)

30. What is the gas which behaves the most like an ideal gas? A. oxygen B. nitrogen C. helium D. hydrogen

C. helium

31. What happens to the volume of a fully inflated balloon when it is taken outside on a cold day? A. its volume decreases B. its volume increases C. it remains the same D. its volume becomes equal to zero

A. its volume decreases

32. The standard pressure of the atmosphere at sea level is? A. 760 mm Hg B. all of the choices C. 760 torr D. 1 atm

B. all of the choices

33. Each of these flasks contains the same number of molecules. In which container is the pressure highest? (images show flasks in increasing size from Flask 1 - 4) A. Flask 2 B. Flask 1 C. Flask 3 D. Flask 4

B. Flask 1

34. What is the molar mass of an unknown gas if 1.60 grams of that gas occupies a volume of 2.24 L at STP? A. 35.8 g/mol B. 160 g/mol C. 16.0 g/mol D. 81.0 g/mol

C. 16.0 g/mol

35. When chromium changes from an oxidation state of +3 to that of +6, the Cr^3+ must: A. gain 6 electrons B. lose 6 electrons C. lose 3 electrons D. gain 3 electrons

C. lose 3 electrons

36. During the electroplating of silver, silver ions in solution. A. are oxidized at the anode B. are oxidized at the cathode C. are reduced at the cathode D. remain in solution unchanged

A. are oxidized at the anode

37. The equation that represents a reaction that is NOT a redox reaction is: Reaction 1: 2H2 + O2 -> 2H2O Reaction 2: Zn + CuSO4 -> ZnSO4 + Cu Reaction 3: 2H2O2 -> 2H2O + O2 Reaction 4: H2O + CO2 -> H2CO3 A. Reaction 3 B. Reaction 1 C. Reaction 4 D. Reaction 2

C. Reaction 4

38. In an electrolytic cell oxidation occurs A. at the anode B. between the cathode and the anode C. at either the cathode or the anode D. at the cathode

A. at the anode ( RED CAT AN OX) PANIC

39. For this reaction Mg+ H2O -> MgO + H2 which is FALSE? A. H is the oxidizing agent B. Mg lost electrons C.Mg is the oxidizing agent D. H gained electrons

C. Mg is the oxidizing agent

40. Which procedure is recommended for reading the level of an aqueous solution in a buret or graduated cylinder? A. Keep the eye level with the top of the meniscus and record that reading B. Read both the bottom and top of the meniscus and average those readings C. Keep the eye level with the bottom of the meniscus and record that reading D. Look down at the meniscus at an angle to obtain the average reading directly

C. Keep the eye level with the bottom of the meniscus and record that reading

41. What is the main ISO standard used by testing and calibration laboratories to gain accreditation and formal recognition of their competence to carry out tests and/or calibrations, including sampling? A. ISO/IEC 17025 B. EURACHEM C. AOAC D. ISO 9000:2000

A. ISO/IEC 17025

42. This detects contamination from reagents, sample handling, and the entire measurement process. A. matched-matrix blank B. method blank C. solvent blank D. calibration blank

B. method blank

43. There is a definite correlation between orderliness and level of safety in the laboratory. In addition, a disorderly laboratory can hinder or endanger emergency response personnel. Which of the following housekeeping rules should NOT be adhered to? A. never obstruct access to exits and emergency equipment B. properly label and store all chemicals C. store chemical containers on the floor D. clean work areas, including floors, regularly

C. store chemical containers on the floor

44. In order to ensure an accurate weighing when using the balances, one should _____________ A. leave the object on the balance for several minutes to ensure a stable reading B. not lean on the balance bench, close the draft doors on the balance and zero the balance prior to weighing C. turn the balance off to clear any previous weighings from its memory D. weigh the object several times on different balances and take the average of these weighings

B. not lean on the balance bench, close the draft doors on the balance and zero the balance prior to weighing

45. Which of the following is NOT part of the technique for pouring in a laboratory? A. Connect the pouring spout and receiving container using a stirring rod B. Pour fast enough to avoid spills C. Pour and allow the liquid to run along the stirring rod D. Hold containers at arms length, with elbows slightly bent

B. Pour fast enough to avoid spills

46. The method that is widely used for the determination of the protein content of meat and animal food is the? A. Kjeldahl method B. Mohr method C. McBride method D. Liebig method

A. Kjeldahl method

47. The water content of an 875.4-mg sample of cheese was determined with a moisture analyzer. What is the %w/w H2O in the cheese if the final mass was found to be 545.8 mg? A. 35.23% B. 30.6% C. 31.45% D. 37.66%

D. 37.66%

48. An analytical chemist needs to transfer his/her precipitants from the beaker to the filter paper. Which of the following would be the best procedure to adopt in order to ensure a quantitative transfer of the precipitate? A. none of the choices. B. Most of the liquid above the ppt is decanted first, then bulk of ppt is transferred to filter paper through a stirring rod, the beaker is washed with big volumes of wash solution. C. Most of the liquid above the ppt is decanted first, bulk of the ppt is transferred through a stirring rod, wash the beaker several times with small volumes of wash solution. D. Solution is shaken, then immediately filtered; beaker is washed with relatively big volumes of ash solution.

C. Most of the liquid above the ppt is decanted first, bulk of the ppt is transferred through a stirring rod, wash the beaker several times with small volumes of wash solution.

49. A water sample is collected for analysis of oil and grease. The analysis will not be done immediately. The sample should NOT be A. collected in plastic bottle B. preserved with sulfuric acid C. refrigerated til analyzed D. collected in all glass bottle

A. collected in plastic bottle

50. When two materials that have different densities, like oil and water, encounter one another, they will A. separate according to their densities B. exchange densities C. mix uniformly D. repel one another

A. separate according to their densities

51. Conductivity is defined as A. The ability of a substance to conduct electric current, which is the same as resistivity B. The ability of a substance to repel electric current C. The ability of a substance to conduct variable resistance D. The ability of a substance to conduct electric current, which is the reciprocal of resistivity

D. The ability of a substance to conduct electric current, which is the reciprocal of resistivity

52. Even though all solid states of other materials are denser than the liquid states of materials, what unique property of water? A. It is clear B. It is tasteless C. Solid water (ice) is less dense than liquid water (ice floats in water) D. It can freeze

C. Solid water (ice) is less dense than liquid water (ice floats in water)

53. The following statements are true about electrical conductivity EXCEPT ______________ A. a measure of a solution's capacity to conduct electricity B. a measure of the total dissolved solids in a solution C. increasing temperature has no effect on its value D. is directly affected by temperature

C. increasing temperature has no effect on its value

54. The following statements are true about pH EXCEPT _____________ A. the negative logarithm of hydrogen ions content in a solution B. a measure of the acidity or alkalinity of a solution C. a measure of the amount of hydrogen ions in solution D. does not change when there are changes in temperature

D. does not change when there are changes in temperature

55. In maintenance and storage of pH meters, which of the following procedure shall NOT be done? A. Mild soap solution may be used in general cleaning of the electrodes B. To keep the electrode bulb moist during storage, store the electrode in distilled water. C. Blot the electrode dry after rinsing the pH electrodes. D. Rinse pH electrodes in between measurements.

B. To keep the electrode bulb moist during storage, store the electrode in distilled water.

56. The apparatus shown below would be used to (image shows circular bottom) A. distill a liquid. B. chromatograph a mixture. C. filter a precipitate. D. reflux a solution.

D. reflux a solution.

57. In operating a UV-Vis spectrophotometer, the following shall be done, EXCEPT for A. Before turning on the power, check if the sample holder does not contain anything. B. After turning on, allow the spectrophotometer to Initialize and stabilize according to its user manual. C. If there are any spillage that gets onto the instrument, immediately wipe it away. D. Keep the sample compartment open during measurement.

D. Keep the sample compartment open during measurement.

58. In using fume hoods, the following shall be done, EXCEPT for A. Items contaminated with odorous or hazardous materials should be removed from the hood only after decontamination or if placed in a closed outer container to avoid releasing contaminants into the laboratory air. B. The hood shall be kept closed, except during apparatus set-up or when working within the hood. C. The hood may be used as a permanent storage area for volatile chemicals when an appropriate storage cabinet is not available. D. Ensure the exhaust is operating before using the hood.

C. The hood may be used as a permanent storage area for volatile chemicals when an appropriate storage cabinet is not available

59. In purifying a material by crystallization choose the solvent according to the following EXCEPT ____________ A. solubility B. vapor pressure C. reactivity D. polarity

B. vapor pressure

60. The dynamic range in analytical measurement refers to the range where ___________ A. the instrument reading is constant B. the detection limit lies C. the sensitivity of the instrument is highest D. the instrument reading is linearly related to the input value

D. the instrument reading is linearly related to the input value or B. the detection limit lies

61. What is the law that states the linear relationship between absorbance and concentration of an absorbing species? A. Boyles Law B. Beer-Lambert's Law C. Charles Law D. Avogadro's Law

B. Beer-Lambert's Law

62. Determine the actual volume contained in a 50.0 mL volumetric flask given the following data: Mass of water: 50.1227 g, Density of water at 25°C: 0.99707 g/mL A. 50.27 mL B. 50.37 mL C. 50.17 mL D. 50.45 mL

A. 50.27 mL

63. A lab analyst dissolved 4.021 g of NaOH in water and made up the solution to 1 litre with water. He then pipetted 10.00 mL of this solution into a flask and titrated it with 0.050 M HCl solution from a burette. A volume of 20.32 mL of acid had been used at the endpoint. Examining this result, the lab supervisor could deduce that _____________ A. the NaOH absorbed H2O from the air after its mass was measured B. the burette was rinsed with water instead of HCI C. the analysis is as accurate as can be expected using this apparatus D. the pipette was rinsed with water instead of NaOH

C. the analysis is as accurate as can be expected using this apparatus

64. In which of the following titrations does pH = 7.0 occur at the equivalence point? I. Strong acid/strong base II. Weak acid/strong base Ill. Strong acid/Weak base A. II and III only B. Ill only C. I only D. II only

C. I only

65. The following are good sampling practices EXCEPT A. Collect the sample in a container made of material that will chemically react with the sample. B. Sample frequently enough to allow for the identification or process cycles. C. Take several Increments and composite them to form the sample. D. if possible, mix the material before getting the sample.

A. Collect the sample in a container made of material that will chemically react with the sample.

66. In liquid-liquid extraction, it is often necessary to determine which liquid is aqueous and which liquid is nonaqueous. To test the liquids, add a drop of water to the top layer. If the drop dissolves in the top layer, the top layer is __________ A. aqueous B. denser C. miscible D. nonaqueous

A. aqueous

67. The process in which the sample is heated to the boiling point of the solvent and volatile analytes are concentrated in the vapour phase, condensed and collected. A. distillation B. liquid-liquid extraction C. evaporation D. oven drying

A. distillation

68. Glass container is NOT suitable for __________ A. oil and grease determination B. microbiological analyses C. all of the choices D. inorganic trace analyses

D. inorganic trace analyses

69. The maximum holding time for acid preserved samples that will be subjected to determination of metals is A. 48 hours B. 3 months C. 6 months D. 1 week

C. 6 months

70. The substance which does the dissolving and must be greater than 50% of the solution is called ___________. A. solute B. solvent C. mixture D. solution

B. solvent

71. Quantitative chemical analysis of weighing a sample, usually of a separated and dried precipitate is called __________. A. Gravimetric analysis B. Elemental analysis C. Volumetric analysis D. Titrimetric analysis

A. Gravimetric analysis

72. Which of the following is a primary standard for use in standardizing bases? A. Acetic acid B. Sulfuric acid C. Potassium hydrogen phthalate D. Ammonium hydroxide

C. Potassium hydrogen phthalate

73. How many grams of Sodium Persulfate (Na2S2O) are required to prepare a 1 L solution of Sodium Persulfate with concentration of 10% (w/v). This solution is widely used as oxidizing reagent for Total Organic Carbon analyzer (TOC). A. 100 g of Sodium Persulfate B. 101 g of Sodium Persulfate C. 102 g of Sodium Persulfate D. 99 g of Sodium Persulfate

A. 100 g of Sodium Persulfate

74. How many grams of sodium hydroxide is needed to prepare 500 mL of 0.5 N sodium hydroxide? (Sodium 22.99 g/mole, Oxygen 16.00 g/mole, Hydrogen= 1.008 g/mole) A. 13.8115 B. 15.7470 g C. 9.9995 g D. 10.2515 g

C. 9.9995 g

75. What is the light source used in the visible range to 340-1000 nm ? A. nerst blower (400-20,000) B. tungsten C. deuterium (190-370nm) D. Incandescent

B. tungsten

76. Minimum concentration of a substance that can be measured and reported with 99% confidence that the analyte concentration is greater than zero refers to A. Lower Warning Limit B. Method Detection Limit C. Lower Control Limit D. Limit of Quantitation

B. Method Detection Limit

77. Which of the following instruments uses a cuvette? A. Gas Chromolograph B. UV-Vis Spectrophotometer C. pH Meter D. Flame-AAS

B. UV-Vis Spectrophotometer

78. The most appropriate technique to determine levels of the Pb^2+ ion in blood is _____________ A. atomic absorption spectroscopy B. mass spectrometry C. infrared spectroscopy D. high-performance liquid chromatography

A. atomic absorption spectroscopy

79. Analytical methods or instruments' performance aim for ___________ A. Low signal-to-noise ratio B. High variability C. Low dynamic range D. High signal-to-noise ratio

D. High signal-to-noise ratio

80. A graphical representation of measuring signal as a function of quantity of analyte is called __________ A. Absorbance Chart B. Calibration curve C. Quality Control Chart D. none of the choices

B. Calibration curve

81. For the reaction, Fe^3+ (aq) + SCN^- (aq) <=> FeSCN^2+(aq). The equilibrium constant for this week's reaction can best be determined by means of A. lon-exchange B. Conductance C. Spectrophotometry D. Chromatography

C. Spectrophotometry

82. A food scientist has a sample of a plantoil and wants to determine if the oil contains saturated or unsaturated fatty acids. Which of the following spectroscopic techniques would be most useful for this purpose? A. mass spectroscopy/Gas Chromatography B. ultraviolet spectroscopy C. infrared spectroscopy D. visible spectroscopy

C. infrared spectroscopy

83. What is a graph showing the detectors response as a function of elution time: band's shapes, position, resolution? A. monitor display C. quality control chart B. chromatogram D. calibration curve

C. quality control chart

84. A stable light source in AAS analysis, which is necessary to emit the sharp characteristic spectrum of the element to be determined is called A. Tungsten lamp B. hollow cathode lamp C. deuterium lamp D. Nerst blower

B. hollow cathode lamp

85. It is a hazardous waste characteristic which applies to wastes that have the potential to contaminate groundwater if improperly disposed of. These materials are regulated as hazardous waste due to their potential to leach out specific toxic substances in a landfill. A. Reactivity B. Corrosivity C. Toxicity D. Ignitability

C. Toxicity

86. In handling acid wastes, what type of protective gloves should be used? A. Rubber gloves B. Cloth gloves C. Disposal plastic gloves D. Surgical gloves

A. Rubber gloves

87. According to Revised DAO 04-36, the appropriate waste labels shall include __________ A. all of the choices B. Generator ID Number C. Volume of Waste D. Container Material

A. all of the choices

88. The following acids and acid mixtures can be collected and placed in glass containers EXCEPT for __________ A. Sulfuric acid B. Hydrofluoric acid C. Aqua regia D. Hydrochloric acid

B. Hydrofluoric acid

89. When working with concentrated acids except hydrofluoric acid, which of the following statements are TRUE? I. Acid-resistant gloves covering the whole arm or Nitrile gloves should be worn. II. Half- or full-faced masks with gas- and/or vapor removing respirators should be worn. III. Wearing safety boots or foot covering is optional as long as the person is working under the hood. IV. Wearing of apron is optional as long as laboratory gown is worn. A. I & II B. II & III C. all of the choices D. I & IV

A. I & II

90. The fire triangle consists of which of the following? A. Oxygen, Heat, Material C. Air, Fuel, Spark B. Air, Heat, Fire D. Oxygen, Heat, Fuel

D. Oxygen, Heat, Fuel

91. In order to properly maintain chemical laboratory equipment one should perform the following EXCEPT _________ A. place the equipment in hot humid location B. regular calibration of equipment C. regular inspection of operational components D. thorough cleaning with the proper materials

A. place the equipment in hot humid location

92. Which is TRUE about laboratory fume hoods? A. all of the choices B. Provides further protection by diluting low concentration of flammable gases below explosion limits. C. It protect you from being exposed in chemical fume. D. Must always be on.

A. all of the choices

93. What is the type of chemical that can cause an allergic reaction in the airways following inhalation of the chemical? A. Corrosive B. Respiratory Sensitizer C. Oxidizer D. Carcinogen

B. Respiratory Sensitizer

94. Which of the following may be disposed in the sink? A. 0.1M H2SO4 B. 1 g/ml PC14 C. none of the choices D. 200g/ml PC14

C. none of the choices

95. Ammonia solution can be stored with following chemicals EXCEPT for _________ A. cyclohexane solution B. acetic acid solution C. 2-propanol solution D. sodium hydroxide solution

B. acetic acid solution

96. Which of the following can cause ERRORS during the sample preparation stage? I. Loss of sample during weighing or dissolution II. Contamination by impurities in reagents and in the environment III. Changes in mass due to varying humidity and temperature IV. Obtaining inhomogeneous sample from the bulk A. I and II only B. I, III, and IV C. I, II, and III D. I, II, III, and IV

D. I, II, III, and IV

97. What will you perform to know that the Atomic absorption spectrometer continues to work properly? A. Calibration check B. Blank C. QC sample recoveries D. Standard addition

A. Calibration check

98. Consider that you are working with Vitamin C tablet production, to which standard/s should your quality management should subscribe? A. GMP B. HACCP C. ISO 9001:2008 D. All of the choices

D. All of the choices

99. The test that decides whether a datum from a given set could be rejected or NOT is A. T-test B. Z-test C. Q-test D. F-test

C. Q-test

Saying that the concentration of Total cyanide (CN) In drinking water is 0.05 mg/L, which is below the maximum allowable level of 0.07 mg/L as per DOH DAO No. 20070012 when it is actually above that limit is A. accurate B. false negative C. precise D. false positive

B. false negative

1. Which of the following structures represents a molecule different from the others? I. /\\/°\/\ III. /\\/°\/°\/ | | °\ \ II. /\\/°\/°\ IV. /\\/°\/\ | /\ \ H OMe A. I B. IV C. II D. III

D. III

2. Which is the correct molecular formula of the following molecule? / /// //\//\/ I. C8H8 Il. C8H10 III. C7H8 IV. C7H10 A. II B. IV C. I D. III

A. II

3. Which of the following compounds has an ionic bond? I. H2O II. NH4Cl III. CH3Cl IV. CH3Li A. II B. IV C. I D. III

A. II

4. How many hydrogen atoms are in one molecule of propene? A. 4 B. 3 C. 6 D. 8

C. 6

5. Which is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound? Br CH2CH3 | | CH3CH2CHCH=CCH2CH3 A. 5-bromo-3-ethylhept-3-ene B. 3-ethyl-5-bromohept-3-ene C. 3-bromo-5-ethylhept-4-ene D. 1,1-diethyl-3-bromopent-1-ene

A. 5-bromo-3-ethylhept-3-ene

6. In which species are all the carbon atoms considered to be sp2 hybridized? I. C2H2 II. C2H4 III. C3H8 IV. C4H10 A. IV B. II C. I D. III

B. II

7. For which compound are the empirical and molecular formulas the same? I. C6H5COOH II. C6H4(COOH)2 III. HOOCCOOH IV. CH3COOH A. III B. I C. IV D. II

B. I

8. How many different compounds have the formula C5H12? A. 5 B. 2 C. 4 D. 3

D. 3

9. In which species is the carbon-nitrogen bond the shortest? I. CH3NH2 II. CH2NH III (CH3)4N^+ IV CH3CN A. II B. I C. IV D. III

C. IV

10. What is the hybridization of the carbon atom in a carboxyl group? A. sp B. sp^3 C. sp^2 D. dsp^3

C. sp^2

11. Which compound is an aldehyde? I. /\\/\ III. /\/\\ OH O O II. /\\/ \ O || IV. /\\/ \ A. II B. III C. IV D. I

B. III

12. Which compound is NOT an ether? I. CH.CH.OCH.CH III. CHCOCH.CH O II. //\/ \/ IV. //\/\ / | || | ||O \\/ \\/ A. IV B. I C. II D. III

D. III

13. Which compound is a tertiary amine? I. (CH)CNH III. (CH.CH)NH CH3 CH3 | | II. CH3.CH2.CNH2 IV. CH3.CH2.NCH3 | CH3 A. II B. III C. I D. IV

D. IV

14. Which of the following hydrocarbon has the lowest boiling point? I. C4H10 II. CH4 III. C6H6 IV. C2H6 A. IV B. II C. I D. III

B. II

15. Which compound is a tertiary alcohol? I. (CH)COH III. (CH.CH.) CHOH OH H | | II. CH3.CH2.CH.CH3 IV. CH3.CH2.O.CH3 A. III B. IV C. II D. I

D. I

16. How many different alcohols have the molecular formula C4.H10.O? A. 2 B. 4 C. 3 D. 5

B. 4

17. Which compound is expected to be most soluble in water at 25 °C I. N2 (g) II. O2 (g) III. (C2H5)2.NH (l) IV. C2H5.O.C2H5 (l) A. III B. IV C. I D. II

B. IV

18. The gentle oxidation of ethanol, CH3.CH2.OH, produces I. ethanal, CH3.CHO Il. ethanoic acid, CH3.CO2.H Ill. carbon monoxide, CO IV. carbon dioxide, CO2 A. IV B. I C. II D. III

B. I

19. The following compounds have very similar molar masses. What would be the correct order when they are arranged in order of increasing strength of their intermolecular forces. I. C3H8 II. CH3.O.CH3 Ill. CH3.CH2.OH A. II < I < III B. III < I < II C. I

C. I

20. A reaction in which a carboxylic acid reacts with an alcohol to form an organic compound and water is called A. saponification B. esterification C. neutralization D. hydrolysis

B. esterification

21. Which class of compounds consists exclusively of saturated hydrocarbons? A. alkenes B. aromatics C. alkynes D. alkanes

D. alkanes

22. What is the position of the bromine atom relative to the methyl group in 3-bromotoluene? A. meta B. para C. ortho D. trans

A. meta

23. The smell of rancid butter is due to the presence of butyric (butanoic) acid. What is the formula for this compound? I. C4H8.O2 Il C4H10.O Il. C5H10.O2 IV. C5H12.O A. IV B. II C. III D. I

D. I

24. Which compound has the highest boiling point? I. CH3.CH2.CH3 III. CH3.OCH2.CH3 II. CH3--C--CH3 IV. CH3.CH2.CH2.OH || O A. I B. III C. II D. IV

D. IV

25. Which combination of reactants produces an ester? A. aldehyde and potassium permanganate B. acid and alcohol C. acid and aldehyde D. alcohol and aldehyde

B. acid and alcohol

26. In crystallization, the solution which is obtained after filtration is the ___________. A. clear solution B. colloidal solution C. suspended solution D. None of the given answers

A. clear solution

27. In crystallization, the crystal phases can be inter-converted by varying ____________ A. temperature B. pressure C. viscosity D. size

A. temperature

28. Which separation technique is based on differences in the volatility of the compounds to be separated? A. solvent extraction B. distillation C. paper chromatography D. filtration

B. distillation

29. Fractional distillation is different from distillation because of the presence of a A. Fractionating column B. Condenser C. Conical flask D. Distillation flask

A. Fractionating column

30. The process of heating a liquid mixture to form vapors and then cooling the vapors to get a pure component is called A. Distillation B. Chromatography C. Crystallization D. Sublimation

A. Distillation

31. A common measure of efficiency in a fractionating column is the A. length of the condenser used in the setup B. number of distillation types C. number of components in the solution D. number of theoretical plates in the column

D. number of theoretical plates in the column

32. Five grams of an organic solid was dissolved in 100 mL of distilled water. Which of the following extraction methods can remove the largest amount of organic solid from an aqueous solution? A. Extract the aqueous solution with a 150-mL portion of ether. B: Extract the aqueous solution with three 50-mL portions of ether. C. Extract the aqueous solution with a 150-mL portion of acetic acid. D. Extract the aqueous solution with three 50-mL portions of acetic acid.

B. Extract the aqueous solution with three 50-mL portions of ether.

33. Which of the following funnels should be used to filter hot mother liquor during recrystallization? A. Buchner funnel B. Hirsch funnel C. Long stem funnel D. Short stem funnel

D. Short stem funnel

34. What is the key step in a recrystallization process? A. Taking the melting point of wet crystals B. Dissolving the solid in a large quantity of cold solvent C. Allowing the hot solution to cool slowly and let crystals grow D. Removing the soluble impurities by vacuum filtration

C. Allowing the hot solution to cool slowly and let crystals grow

35. Which of the following is the example of crystallisation process? A. Purification of alum B. None of the given answers C. Separation of gases from air D. Purification of sea water

A. Purification of alum

36. A constant boiling mixture of two or more components in a solution is called a/an A. azeotrope B. Ideal solution C. non-ideal solution D. eutectic mixture

A. azeotrope

37. A compound is known to decompose at its boiling point. Which of the following methods can be used to purify this substance? A. Steam distillation B. Fractional distillation C. Liquid-liquid extraction D. Vacuum distillation

A. Steam distillation

38. When the solid and liquid phases are in equilibrium, the temperature of the system A. decreases gradually B. none of the given answers C. increases gradually D. remains constant

D. remains constant

39. Which is the INCORRECT statement among the following? A. An impure sample of the substance has a different melting point. B. Two different pure substances have the same melting points. C. Melting point serves as the criterion of purity of a solid substance. D. Every pure solid crystalline substance has a characteristic and unique melting point.

B. Two different pure substances have the same melting points.

40. The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which the vapor pressure is A. lesser than internal pressure B. equal to internal pressure C. equal to external pressure D. greater than internal pressure

C. equal to external pressure

41. Which of the following statements is correct? A. Solid reactants can be weighed directly in the weighing pan of the analytical balance. B. Weight of liquids is approximately equal to its density. C. Solid reactants can be transferred to a reaction flask by using a metal spatula. D. Volatile liquids can be weighed by getting the mass of the empty vial with cap first.

D. Volatile liquids can be weighed by getting the mass of the empty vial with cap first.

42. A reaction mixture needs to be cooled to -77°C after refluxing. What is the best method to be used? A. Place the reaction vessel in an ice bath. B. Pace the reaction vessel in the freezer. C. Place the reaction vessel in a salt and crushed ice mixture. D. Place the reaction mixture in a dry ice-acetone mixture.

D. Place the reaction mixture in a dry ice-acetone mixture.

43. What should be the buret reading as shown? A. 22.40 B. 22.30 C. 22.3 D. 22.36

D. 22.36

44. Which of the following reactions will consume the most oxygen? A. complete combustion of one mole of octane B. complete combustion of one mole of 2,3-dimethylhexane C. complete combustion of one mole of 2,3,4-trimethylpentane D. All the given compounds will consume the same amount of oxygen.

D. All the given compounds will consume the same amount of oxygen.

45. Which of the following techniques can be used to heat a reaction to 200°C? A. Use a Bunsen burner to heat the reaction vessel. B. Use a heating mantle with stirring. C. Place the reaction vessel in a sand bath with stirring. D. Place the reaction vessel in a water bath with stirring.

C. Place the reaction vessel in a sand bath with stirring.

46. When proteins are broken down by enzymes, the products are A. amino acids B. fatty acids C. nucleic acids D. carbohydrates

A. amino acids

47. Which alkyl halide will most likely undergo SN2 mechanism? A. 2-bromobutane B. bromomethane C. 2-bromo-2-methylpropane D. 1-bromobutane

B. bromomethane

48. Aldehydes and ketones generally react by A. nucleophilic substitution B. nucleophilic addition C. electrophilic addition D. electrophilic substitution

B. nucleophilic addition

49. AICI, is a catalyst used in the alkylation of aromatic compounds. It is a A. a Lewis acid B. a Lowry-Bronsted C. an Arrhenius acid D. a Lewis base

A. a Lewis acid

50. An industrial source of alcohol is A. Fats B. Coal C. Sugar acid D. Ethers

C. Sugar acid

51. The reaction rate is defined as the rate at which the concentration of the reactants _________ time or the rate at which the concentration of products __________ with time. A. decrease, decrease B. increase, increase C. decrease, increase D. increase, decrease

C. decrease, increase

52. Hydrogenation of an alkene yields A. alcohol B. aldehyde C. alkane D. alkyne

C. alkane

53. Which of the following is produced when hydrogen is reacted with 2-butanone A. tertiary alcohol B. aldehyde C. primary alcohol D. secondary alcohol

D. secondary alcohol

54. Which of the following reactions are favored by polar aprotic solvent? A. Both SN1 and SN2 reactions B. SN1 reactions C. None of the given choices D. SN2 reactions

D. SN2 reactions

55. Benzene and its derivatives undergo substitution reactions instead of addition reactions because A. the integrity of the benzene ring and the stable pi-bonding pattern remains intact B. the benzene ring is sterically crowded, hence, only substitution can occur C. the hydrogens of benzene are relatively loosely bound D. the benzene ring is electron rich

A. the integrity of the benzene ring and the stable pi-bonding pattern remains intact

56. Quantitative analysis of compounds can be done using A. Ion exchange chromatography B. Liquid chromatography C. Gas chromatography D. Thin layer chromatography

C. Gas chromatography

57. A mobile phase can be classified as I Solid Il Liquid III Gas A. Il only B. III only C. II and III only D. I only

C. II and III only

58. The lon exchange resin with a functional group of HSO3 exchanges ions with A. Small cations and anions B. Cations C. Large cations and anions D. Anions

B. Cations

59. In thin layer chromatography, the solvent or mobile phase contained in a closed chamber is a mixture of A. a liquid and a gas B. liquids C. solids D. gases

B. liquids

60. The chromaplate or thin layer chromatography plate is made up of A. Wood B. Fibre C. Metal D. Glass

D. Glass

61. Affinity chromatography is used for the analysis and isolation of A. All of the given answers B. Insoluble starch substances C. Enzyme tyrosinase D. Antibodies bound with a covalently-attached antigen on cellulose column

A. All of the given answers

62. Retardation factor is the ratio of A. Distance moved by solvent from base line to distance moved by the substance from base line B. Distance moved by substance from base line to distance moved by the solvent from base line C. Distance moved by solvent from top line to distance moved by the substance from top line D. Distance moved by substance from top line to distance moved by the solvent from top line

B. Distance moved by substance from base line to distance moved by the solvent from base line

63. Gas-solid chromatography is __________ chromatography as per basic principle involved. A. Absorption B. Adsorption C. lon-exchange D. Exclusion

C. lon-exchange

64. In chromatography, the relative solubility of solute in both the phases determines the A. Rate of disappearance of solute B. Rate of movement of solvent C. Rate of disappearance of solvent D. Rate of movement of solute

D. Rate of movement of solute

65. Which of the following chromatographic methods is most suitable for the analysis of high molecular weight compounds that are soluble in non-polar solvents? A. gas-liquid B. gel filtration C. ion-exchange D. gel permeation

D. gel permeation

66. In thin layer chromatography, the relative adsorption of each components of the mixture is expressed in terms of its ____________ | A. Retardation factor B. Solubility factor C. Acceleration factor D. Both acceleration and retardation factor

A. Retardation factor

67. Column chromatography is based on the principle of __________ A. lon-exchange B. Differential adsorption C. Absorption D. Exclusion principle

B. Differential adsorption

68. The components of the mixture in column chromatography are eluted in order of _________ A. Increasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio B. Decreasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio C. Increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio D. Decreasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio

C. Increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio

69. Benzene has a smaller distribution ratio, D, in squalene than cyclohexane. Squalene is a aliphatic type of hydrocarbon. What is the order of elution of the two compounds from the GC column? D = [concentration of sample in stationary phase]/ [concentration of sample in mobile phase] A. Benzene will be eluted first. B. Cyclohexane will be eluted first. C. The order of elution cannot be determined. D. The two peaks will overlap.

A. Benzene will be eluted first.

70. The elution power of a solvent is determined by ________ A. Its overall polarity B. The polarity of the stationary phase C. All of the given answers D. The nature of the sample components

C. All of the given answers

71. What is the wavelength range for UV spectrum of light? A. 400 nm - 700 nm B. 10 nm to 400 nm C. 700 nm to 1 mm D. 0.01 nm to 10 nm

B. 10 nm to 400 nm

72. Which is the correct statement from the following? A. Molecular spectra is more complicated than atomic spectra B. Molecular spectra arises from the transition of an electron between the molecular energy levels C. In molecular transitions, electronic, rotational and vibration transitions occurs D. All of the given choices

D. All of the given choices

73. The different types of energies associated with a molecule are _______ A. Electronic energy B. Rotational energy C. All of the given answers D. Vibrational energy

C. All of the given answers

74. Alcohol and ether are often used as solvents. What is the disadvantage of using these compounds to dissolve analytes for spectroscopic analysis in the UV-visible region? A. They react with the analyte given the energy at this region. B. There solvents prevent the analyte from absorbing light. C. They also absorb light at the UV-visible region. D. They interfere in the transition of the electrons of the analyte.

D. They interfere in the transition of the electrons of the analyte.

75. Which of the following compounds would show the longest wavelength max in its UV spectrum? O O || || /\ /\ / \ / \ /\\ | || | || || || || | \/ \/ \ / \// || O I. II. III. IV. A. I B. III C. II D. IV

B. III

76. Which of the following is an application of electronic spectroscopy? A. Study of kinetics of chemical reaction B. Control of purification C. All of the given answers D. Detection of impurities

C. All of the given answers

77. Which of the following is a NOT a characteristic of chromophores? A. May contain extensive conjugated double bonds B. Contains unsaturated functional group C. Added to ions that do not strongly absorb light in the UV-visible region D. Absorbs strongly at 800 nm

D. Absorbs strongly at 800 nm

78. Which of the following is an application of molecular spectroscopy? A. All of the given answers B. Basis of understanding of colors C. Structural investigation D. Study of energetically excited reaction products

A. All of the given answers

79. A compound with a formula of C7H14O exhibits an IR peak at 1715 cm-1. The compound may be a/an A. ketone B. ether C. ester D. alcohol

A. ketone

80. At which region can be found the peaks due to N-H, C-H and O-H stretching and bending motions? A. 2500 to 2000 cm-1 B. 1500 to 1000 cm-1 C. 4000 to 2500 cm-1 D. 2000 to 1500 cm-1

C. 4000 to 2500 cm-1

81. Hazardous wastes by definition may be all of the following EXCEPT _______ A. Explosive B. Toxic C. Corrosive D. Reactive

A. Explosive

82. Which treatment of wastes can be done in site? A. Air stripping C. All of the given answers B. Chemical degradation D. Biodegradation

B. Chemical degradation

83. Which treatment method is NOT typically used to remove organic compounds? A. Thermal B. Biological C. Physical D. Chemical

A. Thermal

84. The following are requirements for hazardous waste storage EXCEPT ________ A. The floors should be impermeable to liquids and resistant to attack by chemicals. B. Drums should be preferably stored upright or pallets and stacked no more than four drums high. C. The facility should be enclosed but ventilated. D. The facility should be properly secured and can be easily accessed by anyone.

D. The facility should be properly secured and can be easily accessed by anyone.

85. Waste solvents which are halogenated should be placed in separate containers from non- halogenated waste solvents because _________ A. Non-halogenated waste solvents are more toxic. B. They are not compatible with each other. C. They will react with each other. D. The cost to properly dispose halogenated waste solvents is higher.

D. The cost to properly dispose halogenated waste solvents is higher.

86. All of the following about hazardous waste containers are true, EXCEPT for the following ________ A. Containers must be closed except when removing or adding waste. B. Any type of container, including food containers, can be used to contain hazardous waste. C. Contents must be compatible with the type of waste containers. D. Containers must be clean on the outside.

B. Any type of container, including food containers, can be used to contain hazardous waste.

87. Segregation of waste organic solvents is very important because _________ A. The costs for disposal of waste solvents differ. B. Some waste solvents can still be recycled. C. Waste solvents differ in proper treatment. D. All of the given answers

D. All of the given answers

88. Which method is considered an unacceptable means of disposing waste? A. All methods given are unacceptable B. Pouring down the sink C. Placing in the regular trash D. Pouring down the drainage canal

A. All methods given are unacceptable

89. If you discover that a hazardous waste container has a minor leak, what should you do? A. Patch the leaking hazardous waste container. B. Place the leaking container on to a secondary container so that the waste will be properly collected until it is removed from the laboratory. C. Immediately transfer the hazardous waste to another empty container in good condition. D. Immediately notify the Pollution Control Officer so that an environmental report may be filed with the regulatory agency.

C. Immediately transfer the hazardous waste to another empty container in good condition.

90. How is clean, unbroken or broken glass waste to be disposed of? A. Into a cardboard box lined with a black bag and taped. For small quantities of broken glass, put into sharps containers. B. Into containers lined with black bags C. Into containers lined with yellow bags. D. Into containers lined with clear bags

A. Into a cardboard box lined with a black bag and taped. For small quantities of broken glass, put into sharps containers.

91. When a chemical splashes in the eye, rinse for A. 10 seconds B. 30 seconds C. 5 minutes D. 15 minutes

D. 15 minutes

92. Which of the following colors used on the "NFPA diamond" chemical hazard warning label represents the health hazard? A. Red B. Blue C. Yellow D. White

B. Blue

93. Which is the correct procedure for mixing acid and water? A. Pour acid into water B. Pour them at the same time C. Pour water into acid D. Let the supervisor pour them

A. Pour acid into water

94. The sign shown below indicates what type of safety hazard? (there is fire in image) A. Chemical-hazardous liquids; danger to skin and other materials B. Flammable - possible burn hazard; use caution C. Toxic-poisonous if touched, swallowed, or inhaled D. Radioactivity - radioactive materials; use caution

B. Flammable - possible burn hazard; use caution

95. Which of the sign shown below indicates warning about corrosive chemicals? I. Chemicals II. Skull III. Fire IV. Lightning A. II B. IV C. I D. III

C. I

96. Which of the following is an acceptable practice when working in a chemical laboratory? A. Wearing a laboratory coat and safety goggles while performing the analysis B. Wearing sandals or open-toed shoes C. Eating and drinking inside the chemical laboratory D. Wearing gloves to touch door handles, elevator buttons, etc.

A. Wearing a laboratory coat and safety goggles while performing the analysis

97. Which of the following pair is not correct about NFPA diamond chemical label hazard warning? A. Blue: 0 highly toxic B. Blue: health C. Red: flammability D. Red: 0 non-flammable

A. Blue: 0 highly toxic

98. What type of safety hazard is indicated by the sign shown below (image shows fan like picture) A. Toxic - poisonous if touched, swallowed, or inhaled B. Biological - harmful to humans. C. Radioactivity - radioactive materials; use caution D. Chemical-hazardous liquids; danger to skin and other materials

C. Radioactivity - radioactive materials; use caution

99. Flammable liquids burn only when their vapor is mixed with air in the appropriate concentration. When handling flammable liquids you should _____ A. avoid nearby sources of ignition B. use adequately ventilated work areas C. keep containers closed except during transfer of contents D. minimize the creation of flammable vapors

D. minimize the creation of flammable vapors

100. Organic peroxides are particularly dangerous when _________ A. concentrated B. all of the above C. when ethyl ether or tetrahydrofuran is left open to the air and allowed to evaporate D. heated

B. all of the above

An organic compound formed when an acid reacts with an alcohol. A. ketone B. aldehyde C. ether D. ester

D. ester

The simplest ketone is _________ A. cyclohexanone B. acetone C. lactone D. ethyl methyl ketone

B. acetone

Hydrogenation of an alkene yields _________ A. alkane B. alcohol C. alkyne D. aldehyde

A. alkane

An aldehyde that smells like green apple is ________ A. propanal B. ethanal C. butanal D. methanal

B. ethanal

The acid responsible for the irritating sting of ants. A. formic acid B. citric acid C. lactic acid D. acetic acid

A. formic acid

Which of the following physical properties differ for each pair of enantiomers? A. Solubility in ethanol B. Direction of rotation of plane-polarized light C. Index of refraction D. Boiling point and melting point

B. Direction of rotation of plane-polarized light

Number of double bonds in geraniol A. 2 B. 3 C. 1 D. 0

A. 2

Which of the following functional groups is present in the melamine molecule? A. nitrile B. alkene C. amine D. alkyne

C. amine

Fatty acid such as lauric acid and palmitic acid and oleic acid are long unbranched carboxylic acids consisting of 12 to 20 carbon atoms. Which type of fatty acid should people avoid ingesting, saturated or unsaturated and why? A. Unsaturated, because the risk of cardiovascular disease is increased B. Fatty acids are safe to ingest C. Saturated, because the risk of cardiovascular disease is increased D.. Both fatty acids, because the risk of cardiovascular disease is increased

C. Saturated, because the risk of cardiovascular disease is increased

Name the organic compound CH3 | H3C\//\CH3 A. 1,1-dimethylpropene B. 3,3-dimethyl-2-propene C. 3-methyl-2-butene D. 2-methyl-2-butene

D. 2-methyl-2-butene

Whatever the compound, the gram molecular weight contains the same number of molecules, known as Avogadro’s number. It is expressed as: A. 6.02x10^23 ions per mole B. 6.02x10^23 electrons per mole C. 6.02x10^23 atoms per mole D. 6.02x10^23 particles per mole

D. 6.02x10^23 particles per mole

Which of the following objects are chiral (assume that there is no label or other identifying mark) a) Pair of scissors b) Tennis ball c) Paper clip d) Beaker e) The swirl created in water as it drains out of a sink or bathtub A. achiral, chiral, chiral, achiral, chiral B. chiral, achiral, chiral, chiral, achiral C. chiral, achiral, achiral, achiral, chiral D. chiral, chiral, chiral, chiral, chiral

C. chiral, achiral, achiral, achiral, chiral

Propanoic acid and methyl acetate are constitutional isomers, and both are liquids at room temperature. One of these compounds has a boiling point of 141°C; the other has a boiling point of 57°C. Which compound has a higher boiling point? A. (1) propanoic acid B. (2) methyl acetate C. either (1) or (2) D. same

A. (1) propanoic acid

O2 gas effused through a pinhole in 5 sec. How long will it take an equivalent amount of CO2 to effuse under the same conditions? A. 3.8 s B. 4.3 s C. 2.2 s D. 5.9 s

D. 5.9 s

Waxes are A. Fatty acids alcohol esters B. Salts of fatty acids C. Alkyl sulfonates D. Triglyceride

B. Salts of fatty acids

The rate of nucleophilic substitution reaction of tert-butyl bromide with OH– is found to be independent of the concentration of OH– at any instant. It can be inferred that the reaction is: A. Zero-order B. First-order (SN1) C. Second-order (SN2) D. Pseudo-first-orde

B. First-order (SN1)

Reduction of ethyl cinnamate using LiAlH4 produces the alcohol A. 2-phenylprop-2-en-2-ol B. 3-phenylprop-2-en-1-ol C. 2-cyclohexylprop-2-en-2-ol D. 3-cyclohexylprop-2-en-1-ol

B. 3-phenylprop-2-en-1-ol

Styrene undergoes ozonolysis to yield two carbonyl compounds. Which of the following pairs is produced by this reaction? A. Benzoic acid and carbonic acid B. Benzaldehyde and formaldehyde C. Formaldehyde and benzoic acid D. Acetone and benzaldehyde

B. Benzaldehyde and formaldehyde

In which reaction of alkyne can keto-enol tautomerism exist? A. Markovnikov hydrohalogenation B. Acid-catalyzed hydration C. Ozonolysis D. Catalytic hydrogenation

C. Ozonolysis

Which of the following compounds is not aromatic? A. Anthracene B. Tetrahydrofuran C. Penanthrene D. Hydroquinone

B. Tetrahydrofuran

Palmitate has 16 carbon atoms with A. None of these B. 3 double bond C. 1 double bond D. 2 double bonds

A. None of these

Reaction of benzene with chlorine gas to produce tri-chlorobenzene exemplifies a/an __________ A. elementary B. series C. parallel D. autocatalytic

B. series

All of the following are o- and p- directing substituents EXCEPT A. -NO2 B. -OH C. -F D. -OR

A. -NO2

How many isomers does xylene have? A. 3 B. 1 C. 2 D. 4

A. 3

Which of the following is a ketone? A. CH3COCH3 B. CH3OCH2CH3 C. CH3CHO D. (CH3)2CHOH

A. CH3COCH3

Hydrogenation of one mole of allene (CH2=C=CH2) with 2 moles of hydrogen gas in the presence of Lindlar catalyst yields A. propane B. 2-propene C. propylene D. 2-butene

A. propane

All of the following contains carbonyl group EXCEPT A. carboxylic acid B. aldehyde C. ketone D. ether

D. ether

Which of the following is not an aliphatic hydrocarbon? A. n-octane B. n-tridecane C. toluene D. propylene

C. toluene

Name the organic compound OH | // \ | || CH3 \\ / \ | /\ CH3 CH3 A. 4-methyl-2-tert-octylphenol B. 3-tert-butylphenol C. 3,5-di-tert-butylphenol D. none of these

B. 3-tert-butylphenol

Friedel-Crafts acylation of benzene with acetyl chloride in AlCl3 yields A. chlorobenzene B. cumene C. acetophenone D. styrene

C. acetophenone

Which of the following contains sp-hybridized carbon? A. C4H8 B. C3H6 C. C5H8 D. C6H12

C. C5H8

Vinylbenzene is also known as A. styrene B. durene C. cumene D. mesitylene

A. styrene

Oxidation of isopropyl alcohol with KMnO4 yields A. acetaldehyde B. diethyl ether C. acetone D. acetic acid

C. acetone

Which of the following alcohols will undergo bimolecular nucleophilic substitution? A. 2-methyl-2-propanol B. 2-propanol C. all of these D. 1-propanol

D. 1-propanol

In Williamson synthesis of methyl isopropyl ether, the alcohol used is A. isopropanol B. linalool C. ethanol D. methanol

A. isopropanol

Hydrocarbon derivatives used as a main ingredient in automobile antifreeze A. propylene B. ethylene glycol C. isopropanol D. toluene

B. ethylene glycol

The following reagents will give an alkyl halide from an alcohol EXCEPT A. SOCl2 B. PCl3 C. NaCl D. PBr3

C. NaCl

Carbonyl compounds can be obtained by reduction using the following except A. acyl chloride B. ester C. nitrile D. amide

C. nitrile

Hexanedionic acid is also known as A. glutamic acid B. adipic acid C. succinic acid D. malonic acid

B. adipic acid

Reaction of alcohol and a carboxylic acid is known as A. esterification B. epoxidation C. neutralization D. none of these

A. esterification

Which of the following alkanes is gas at room temperature? A. undecane B. octane C. eicosane D. propane

D. propane

Hydrogenation of alkenes in the presence of a poisoned Pd catalyst produces A. alkane B. alkyl halide C. alcohol D. alkyne

A. alkane

Same chemical formula but different in geometric/structural orientation A. prism B. optimism C. isomerism D. polymerism

C. isomerism

Which of the following straight-chain alkanes can be conveniently prepared by Wurtz reaction? A. nonane B. heptadecane C. icosane D. none of these

C. icosane

In nucleophilic addition reactions of alkenes with HZ in which nucleophile Z attaches to more alkyl-substituted carbon and the H attaches to the carbon that already has the greater number of H atoms, the rule being followed by the reaction is A. Huckel rule B. Knoevenagel's rule C. none of these D. Markovnikov's rule

D. Markovnikov's rule

In the Grignard synthesis of an alkane using sec-butyl bromide, which of the following alkane will be produced? A. n-butane B. isopentane C. isobutane D. none of these

A. n-butane

Addition of hydrazine to carbonyl compounds produces a/an A. semicarbazone B. hydrazone C. oxime D. imine

B. hydrazone

Addition of an alcohol to acyl halides produces A. carboxylic acid B. ester C. none of these D. carboxamide

B. ester

Cyclic esters are known as A. osazone B. acetals C. lactones D. diglyme

C. lactones

In each case, tell whether the bond is ionic, polar covalent, or nonpolar covalent: Br2, BrCl, HCl, SrF2, SiH4, CO, N2, CsCl A. nonpolar covalent, nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, nonpolar covalent, ionic B. nonpolar covalent, nonpolar covalent, ionic, nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, nonpolar covalent, ionic C. polar covalent, ionic, polar covalent, nonpolar covalent, nonpolar covalent, nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, polar covalent D. nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, nonpolar covalent, nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, polar covalent

A. nonpolar covalent, nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, nonpolar covalent, ionic

ChT Squaredel Flashcards

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