ChT test bank Flashcards
(500 cards)
1
Q
Which among the following chemical bond were
described by Kossel and Lewis?
a) Metallic bond
b) Polar covalent bond
c) Coordinate bond
d) Ionic and Covalent bond
A
d) Ionic and Covalent bond
2
Q
State whether the given statement is true or false “Ionic bonds are non-directional”
a) True
b) False
A
a) True
3
Q
If a bond is made up of a large number of organic
compound, then the bond is termed as?
a) Ionic bond
b) Metallic bond
c) Covalent bond
d) Dipolar bond
A
c) Covalent bond
4
Q
Which among the following is not an example of
hydrogen bond?
a) H20
b) Liquid HCl
c) NH3
d) CHCl3
A
b) Liquid HCl
5
Q
Atoms undergo bonding in order to ?
a) Attain stability
b) Lose stability
c) Move freely
d) increase energy
A
a) Attain stability
6
Q
An atom differs from its ion in which among the
following ?
a) Mass number
b) Atomic number
c) Neutrons
d) Number of protons
A
d) Number of protons
7
Q
Which among the following is both a molecule and a
compound?
a) C6 H12 O6
b) H2O
c) CO2
d) NaCl
A
b) H2O
8
Q
Bond energy and the corresponding bond length vary
directly with each other. comment whether the statement
is true or false.
a) True
b) False
A
b) False
9
Q
The energy which must be transferred to any atom to
dislodge an electron is called?
a) Free energy
b) Ionization Energy
c) Quantum mechanical energy
d) Dissociation Energy
A
b) Ionization Energy
10
Q
Potassium Ion K+ has the same electronic configuration
as that of which noble gases mentioned below ?
a) Krypton
b) Xenon
c) Argon
d) Radon
A
c) Argon
11
Q
Ten covalent bonds in the Lewis structure of Propane
will account for how many valence electrons?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 14
d) 12
A
b) 20
12
Q
What is the hybridization of oxygen in water?
a) sp
b) sp2
c) sp3
d) sp3d
A
c) sp3
13
Q
The electronegativity difference between the covalently
bonded atoms is
a) Less than 0
b) 0-0.3
c) 0.3-1.7
d) Over 1.7
A
b) 0-0.3
14
Q
What is the hybridization of Carbon atom in CF4?
a) sp2
b) sp
c) sp3d
d) sp3
A
d) sp3
15
Q
Which one has zero dipole moment?
a) C6H6
b) NH3
c) H2S
d) NO
A
Answer: a
Explanation: The ring of benzene is completely closed and
is of perfect stability and hence it has zero dipole moment.
16
Q
Which one have both sigma and pi bonds?
a) H2S
b) NO2
c) HClO
d) NaCN
A
Answer: d
Explanation: In NaCN both double bond and triple bond is
present and hence it has both sigma
and pi bonds.
17
Q
PH3, So3, and HF are examples of polar molecules. State
true or false
a) True
b) False
A
Answer: b
Explanation: SO3 is not an example of polar molecule as it
does not contain a hydrogen bond.
18
Q
What is the hybridization of sulphur in H2S?
a) sp
b) sp2
c) sp3
d) sp3d
A
Answer: c
Explanation: S has two pairs of electrons and two atoms
bonded to H with a total of 4 electrons and hence it has a
hybridization of sp3.
19
Q
Name the geometry of the central oxygen atom in the
ozone molecule (o3)
a) Trigonal planar
b) Linear
c) Tetrahedral
d) Pyramidal
View Answer
A
Answer: a
Explanation: It forms a single bond with one oxygen atom,
double bond with another oxygen atom and there exists
one more non-bonded atom. Thus, it forms a trigonal
planar structure.
20
Q
In which molecule there is a complete linear
arrangement of all atoms?
a) BF3
b) NH3
c) CO2
d) CH4
A
Answer: c
Explanation: BF3 has trigonal planar structure,NH3 has a
trigonal bipyramidal structure, CH4 has tetragonal
structure and hence CO2 is the one with linear structure.
21
Q
Choose the one which is incorrect
a) BrO4 – tetrahedral
b) PF3 – pyramidal
c) ClO4 – tetrahedral
d) BeBr2 – linear
A
Answer: b
Explanation: PF3 has a trigonal pyramidal structure as it
has three bonding pairs and one non-bonding pair
22
Q
A crystalline solid possess which one of the following
property?
a) Irregularity
b) Non- symmetric
c) Perfect geometric pattern
d) non- stability
A
Answer: c
Explanation: A crystalline solid is one which possesses
perfect geometry, high stability, symmetric and regularly
arranged.
23
Q
Melting is process which can be stated by the below
statements except,
a) Change from a highly disordered stated to an ordered
state
b) Change from particles in crystal lattice to liquid state
c) Thermal energy of particles overcome the
intercrystalline forces that hold them
d) Change from low temperature to high temperature
A
Answer: a
Explanation: Melting is a process which proceeds by
changing from a highly ordered state to a disordered state.
24
Q
Which among the following statement is not true?
a) In liquid, particles are less regularly arranged and are
free to move
b) Boiling involves breaking up of group of molecules in
liquid
c) Boiling involves clubbing of oppositely charged ions
d) Thermal energy of particles overcome cohesive forces
that hold them
A
Answer: c
Explanation: Boiling involves separation of oppositely
charged ions and makes them as individual ions
25
Which among the following is not associated with
intermolecular forces?
a) They hold neutral molecules
b) Non- electrostatic in nature
c) attraction of oppositely charged particles
d) dipole-dipole interaction and van der Waals forces
Answer: b
Explanation: Intermolecular forces are electrostatic in
nature.
26
When one of the Hydrogen in Methane( CH4) is
replaced by a hydroxyl group, then structurally methane
resembles?
a) Methanol
b) Ethanol
c) Water
d) Both methanol and water
Answer: d
Explanation: Like water, it is a liquid with boiling point
which is abnormally high for a compound of its size and
polarity.
27
Which among the following does not match with the
term solubility?
a) The structural units get separated from each other
b) The ion-dipole bond is very strong
c) The spaces in between the structures are occupied by
solvent molecules
d) The electrostatic attraction between the oppositely
charged ions and their corresponding ends are called iondipole bond
Answer: b
Explanation: The bond is weak but in the aggregate they
supply enough energy to overcome the interionic forces.
28
A Strong acid is same as concentrated acid. State true or
false
a) False
b) True
Answer: a
Explanation: Concentration of an acid depends upon the
water content whereas the strength of an acid depends on
dissociation power.
29
When an acid reacts with a metal, which one of the
following gas is usually liberated?
a) ammonia gas
b) chlorine
c) oxygen
d) Hydrogen gas
Answer: d
Explanation: When metal reacts with acid, a soap bubble is
formed and the bubble contains Hydrogen gas (example:
HCl, H2SO4)
30
Select the one which is wrongly mapped
a) Sodium carbonate – Washing soda
b) Sodium chloride – common salt
c) Calcium carbonate – slaked lime
d) Sodium hydroxide – caustic soda
Answer: c
Explanation: calcium hydroxide is commonly referred as
slaked lime.
31
What is the pH of 0.0001 molar HCl solution?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: d
Explanation: It has a H+ concentration of 10-4
. The value of
negative exponent(^-4) gives pH value to be 4.
32
Choose the incorrect option regarding Isomerism:
a) They differ in both physical and chemical properties
b) They have the different molecular formula
c) There are two types of Isomerism : Structural and Stereo
Isomerism
d) Geometric and optical isomerism are two types of
Stereo Isomerism
Answer: b
Explanation: Isomers are compounds that have same
molecular formula.
33
What will be the product when HNO3 reacts with
NH4OH ?
a) NH4 NO3
b) 2NH4 NO3
c) NH4 (NO3)
Answer: a
Explanation: the reaction takes place as follows:
HNO3 + NH4OH —-> NH4NO3 + H2O.
34
Find the odd one out:
a) Neutral salt : NaCl
b) Acid salt : CuSO4.5H2O
c) Basic salt: CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
d) Nonhydrated salt: KNO3
Answer: b
Explanation: CuSO4.5H20 is a hydrated salt. An example of
acid salt is NaHCO3.
35
Isomerism that arises out of the difference in spatial
arrangement of atoms or groups about the doubly bonded
carbon atoms are called? (In specific)
a) Structural Isomerism
b) Stereo Isomerism
c) Geometrical Isomerism
d) Optical Isomerism
Answer: c
Explanation: These geometrical isomers are not mirror
images of each other and they differ in spatial
arrangement from one another.
36
Isomers with similar groups on the same side are called
as ” trans” isomers. State true or false
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: “Trans” isomers are those with similar groups
arranged in opposite direction. The Isomers with similar
groups on the same side are called as “cis” isomers.
37
Which among the following defines Meso forms of
isomers
a) Meso form is optically inactive due to external
compensation
b) The molecules of the meso isomers are chiral
c) It can be separated into optically active enantiometric
pairs
d) It is a single compound
Answer: d
Explanation: Meso forms of isomers are single compound
and their molecules are achiral
and hence they cannot be separated into pairs.
38
Which among the following does not exhibit geometric
isomerism
a) 1-hexene
b) 2-hexene
c) 3-hexene
d) 4-hexene
Answer: a
Explanation: Alkenes like 1-hexene when flipped from top
to bottom they have identical structures and also they
have C=CH2 unit which does not exist as cis- trans isomers.
39
Which among the following is formed when an alcohol is
dehydrated?
a) alkane
b) alkyne
c) alkene
d) aldehyde
Answer: c
Explanation: In elimination reaction, when protic acids
react with alcohol, they lose water molecule to form
alkenes.
40
A fat on hydrolysis would yield?
a) Glycerol and soap
b) Ethanol and soap
c) Ethanol and glycerol
d) Only soap
Answer: a
Explanation: During saponification process, fat on
hydrolysis will yield glycerol and soap
41
Which among the following correctly defines
Diastereomer?
a) These have same magnitude but different signs of
optical rotation
b) Nonsuperimposable object mirror relationship
c) These differ in all physical properties
d) Separation is very difficult
Answer: c
Explanation: Diastereomers differ in all physical properties.
The rest of the points are related to Enantiomers.
42
Ethane is obtained by electrolyzing
a) Potassium formate
b) Potassium succinate
c) Potassium acetate
d) Potassium fumarate
Answer: b
Explanation: By electrolyzing potassium succinate (the
process is generally called Kolbe’s electrolysis), ethane is
obtained.
43
“Methane is a product of aerobic respiration”. State
true or false
a) False
b) True
Answer: a
Explanation: Methane is the end product of anaerobic
decay of plants due to the breakdown of very complicated
molecules.
44
Calcium carbide on reaction with water gives?
a) Methane
b) Ethane
c) propane
d) Acetylene
Answer: d
Explanation: CaC2 + H20—-> C2H2 + Ca(OH)2.
45
The hydrocarbon in which all the 4 valencies of carbon
are fully occupied is called as
a) Alkene
b) Alkyne
c) Alkane
d) Cycloalkane
Answer: c
Explanation: Alkanes , the saturated hydrocarbons are
those in which the carbon atoms are bonded covalently to
each other (fully occupied). Each carbon atom is
tetrahedrally surrounded by H-atoms
46
Name the process associated with acylation of benzene
a) Friedel craft reaction
b) Wurtz reaction
c) Wurtz fitting reaction
d) Debey Huckel reaction
Answer: a
Explanation: The electrophilic substitution reaction that
takes place between ethanoyl chloride and benzene is
called as Friedel craft reaction
47
Liquid hydrocarbon is converted into gaseous
hydrocarbon by:
a) Oxidation
b) Hydrolysis
c) Cracking
d) Distillation
Answer: c
Explanation: Under cracking with high temperature, the
liquid form of hydrocarbon is converted into gaseous form
48
Chlorination of alkanes is an example of
a) Radical
b) Elimination
c) Free radical
d) Addition
Answer: c
Explanation: Free radical chlorination is a reaction that
substitutes a chlorine for a hydrogen on an alkane
49
When chlorine gas reacts with methane, the product
formed is
a) CHCl
b) CH2Cl
c) CH3Cl
d) CH4Cl
Answer: c
Explanation: Under the influence of UV light or with a temperature of 250-400(degree) chlorine and methane
react vigorously to give hydrogen chloride and
chloromethane (CH3Cl).
50
Methane reacts more readily with chlorine than with
Fluorine. State true or false
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Methane reacts with chlorine but not as
vigorously as with fluorine. The reactivity order is as
follows: F2 > Cl2 > Br2 >I2.
51
The methyl chloride undergoes substitution to form
a) CHCl
b) CH2Cl
c) CHCl2
d) CH2Cl2
Answer: d
Explanation: Chloromethane undergoes further
substitution to form hydrogen chloride and
dichloromethane (CH2Cl2).
52
Identify the one which is not a type of chlorination
a) Free radical chlorination
b) Electrophobic chlorination
c) Ketone chlorination
d) Chlorine addition reaction
Answer: b
Explanation: Electrophobic is not a kind of halogenation. It
is electrophilic chlorination, in which aromatic
substitutions takes place.
53
Which among the following on chlorination undergoes
substitution at the alkyl group
a) Ethers
b) Hydroxyl groups
c) Carbonyl compounds
d) Carboxylic acids
Answer: a
Explanation: In the absence of sunlight, the alpha
hydrogen of ethers undergoes substitution when treated
with chlorine.
54
In the presence of red phosphorous, chlorine converts
the fatty acids having alpha hydrogen atoms into
a) Halo acids
b) Alpha-halo acids
c) Alpha,alpha-dihalo acids
d) Trihalo acids
Answer: b
Explanation: The propionic acid, in the presence of Cl2/P
gets converted into alpha chloro propionic acid due to the
action of the halogen chlorine.
55
Chlorine in the presence of which among the following
generates positively charged species?
a) Ferric chloride
b) Anhydrous ferric chloride
c) Ferrous chloride
d) Anhydrous ferrous chloride
Answer: b
Explanation: Ferric chloride is a lewis acid catalyst and in
the presence of chlorine, it converts nitrobenzene into 3-
chloro nitro benzene.
56
p-nitrotoluene on reaction with chlorine forms
hydrogen chloride and
a) p-Nitrobenzyl chloride
b) o-Nitrobenzyl chloride
c) m-Nitrobenzyl chloride
d) Nitrobenzyl chloride
Answer: a
Explanation: p-Nitrotoluene reacts with chlorine in the
presence of CCl4 at 80 (degree) C to form p-nitrobenzyl
chloride under the conditions of photochemical initiation.
57
Chlorination of cyclobutane gives which among the
following in addition to hydrogen chloride
a) Cyclobutyl chloride
b) Cyclobutyl chlorite
c) 1-chlorobutene
d) 1,1-chlorobutene
Answer: b
Explanation: All the hydrogens of cyclobutane are
equivalent and substitution of any gives the same product
as that of others.
58
The step in which Cl-Cl bond homolysis occurs is called:
a) Initiation step
b) Propagation step
c) Intermediate step
d) Termination step
Answer: a
Explanation: Each Cl atom in the initiation step has several
valence electrons and is very reactive and hence it
abstracts a hydrogen atom from methane and homolysis
occurs
59
The rate of the reaction is equal to the product of three
factors listed below except
a) Collision frequency
b) Energy factor
c) Orientation factor
d) pH factor
Answer: d
Explanation: The reaction rate is given by the product of
collision frequency (deals with concentration, pressure,
and arrangement), energy factor ( deals with distribution
of kinetic energy), and orientation factor (probability
factor).
60
Temperature and pressure are the only factors which
affect the reaction rate. state true or false
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The rate of reaction is affected by three
factors temperature, pressure, and concentration. All the
three varies directly with the rate of the reaction.
61
The frequency of molecular collision increases if
a) The concentration of product increases
b) The concentration of product decreases
c) The concentration of reactant increases
d) The concentration of reactant decreases
Answer: c
Explanation: The frequency of molecular collision increases
varies directly with the concentration of the reactant
62
Identify the true statement regarding catalyst
a) Always decreases the rate of the reaction
b) Always increases the activation energy of the reaction
c) Actually participates in the reaction
d) Changes the equilibrium concentration of the product
Answer: c
Explanation: A catalyst is a substance which when added,
only alters the reaction rate temporarily and does not
have a permanent effect on them
63
Which among the following catalyst increases the rate
of the reaction
a) Calcium carbonate
b) Calcium chloride
c) Calcium hydroxide
d) Calcium sulphate
Answer: a
Explanation: Calcium carbonate has large surface area and
hence it increases the reaction rate.
64
Which is not a type of catalyst:
a) Positive catalyst
b) Negative catalyst
c) Autocatalyst
d) homogeneous catalysis
Answer: d
Explanation: Homogeneous catalysis is a phenomenon in
which the catalyst takes part in the reaction and it is not a
type of catalyst.
65
Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular
formula C30H62
a) Propdecane
b) Eicosane
c) Triacontane
d) Dodecane
Answer: c
Explanation: Triacontane is the alkane with the molecular
formula C30H62 as alkanes have the general formula
CnH2n+2.
66
Identify the smallest alkane which can form a ring
structure (cycloalkane)
a) Cyclomethane
b) Methane
c) Cyclopropane
d) Propane
Answer: c
Explanation: Cyclopropane is the only smallest alkane that
can form a successful ring structure with C-C bond on
removal of a hydrogen atom.
67
Dienes are the name given to compounds with
a) Exactly a double bond
b) Exactly a triple bond
c) Exactly two double bond
d) more than two double bond
Answer: c
Explanation: Alkenes are the name given to compound
with one double bond and dienes are the one given to
compounds with two double bond.
68
The first step in IUPAC nomenclature is to identify the
total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.
State true or false
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The first step is to find the number of carbon
atoms present only in the main/ longest chain of the
compound.
69
The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the
“ane” in the alkanes by
a) ene
b) ic
c) one
d) yl
Answer: d
Explanation: ene, ic and one are used for representing
alkenes, carboxylic acids, and ketones respectively, hence
yl is the term which is to be substituted in place on ane in
the alkanes.
70
The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered
is shown by
a) Specifying the number of carbon atoms associated with
the bond
b) Specifying the number of carbon atoms at beginning of
the C=C bond
c) Specifying the number of carbon atoms at end of the
C=C bond
d) Specifying the number of carbon atoms in the entire
chain
Answer: b
Explanation: According to the rules of IUPAC, The C=C
bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown
by specifying the number of carbon atoms at beginning of
the C=C bond.
71
The substituent groups that are commonly associated
with benzene ring are
a) Phenyl and benzyl
b) Propyl and phenyl
c) Methyl and benzyl
d) Butyl and phenyl
Answer: a
Explanation: Phenyl and benzyl are commonly associated
with benzene ring due to their closely associated structure
with difference in hydrogen atom
72
Organic compounds are broadly classified as
a) Open chain compounds and acyclic compounds
b) Open chain compounds and linear chain compounds
c) Cyclic compounds and alicyclic compounds
d) alicyclic compounds and acyclic compounds
Answer: d
Explanation: Organic compounds are broadly classified
into open chain and closed chain compounds
73
Aliphatic compound is the other name for
a) Acyclic compounds
b) Alicyclic compounds
c) Ring compounds
d) Closed chain compounds
Answer: a
Explanation: open chain compounds or acyclic compounds
are otherwise called as aliphatic compounds.
74
Which among the following is not an example of Acyclic
compound
a) Acetaldehyde
b) Ethane
c) Cyclopropane
d) Isobutane
Answer: c
Explanation: Cyclopropane is a ring (cyclic) compound and
hence it does not come with the examples of open chain
compounds.
75
Which among the following is not an example of alicyclic
compound
a) Cyclohexane
b) Cyclohexene
c) Tetrahydrofuran
d) Acetic acid
Answer: d
Explanation: Acetic acid is a linear chain compound
(acyclic) and hence it is not an example of ring compound
(alicyclic).
76
Which among the following is not an aromatic
compound(in specific)
a) Naphthalene
b) Aniline
c) Pyridine
d) Tropolone
Answer: c
Explanation: Pyridine is heterocyclic aromatic compound.
Whereas naphthalene and aniline are benzenoid aromatic
compounds and tropolone is a non-benzenoid aromatic
compound.
77
Find the odd one among the following:
a) Alicyclic compounds
b) Heterogeneous compounds
c) Branched chain compounds
d) Aromatic compounds
Answer: c
Explanation: Branched chain compound is a classification
of open-chain compounds. Whereas, alicyclic, aromatic
and heterogeneous compounds are sub-classifications of
cyclic compounds.
78
Identify the odd one among the following
a) Indene
b) Anthracene
c) o,m,p-xylene
d) Azulene
Answer: d
Explanation: Azulene is a non- benzenoid compound.
Whereas, Indene, anthracene, and o,m,p-Xylene are
examples of benzenoid aromatic compounds.
79
Organic compounds can be classified even based upon
the function groups. Identify the one which is not a
functional group
a) Isocyanide
b) Isocyano
c) Carboxyl
d) Carbonyl
Answer: a
Explanation: Isocyanide is a compound and it is not a
functional group.
80
Which among these is not associated with aliphatic
compounds
a) They contain (4n+2)pi electrons
b) Contain straight chain compounds
c) Contain branched chain compounds
d) Has appropriate number of H-atoms and functional groups
Answer: a
Explanation: The aromatic compounds (4n+2)pi electrons,
which comes under the classification of cyclic compounds
and hence they are not associated with aliphatic
compounds.
81
Resonance forms are in equilibrium with each other.
State true or false
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Resonance forms are hybrid in nature and
hence it is not correct to say that they are in equilibrium
with each other.
82
Identify the false statement regarding resonance
a) As the number of charges increases, the resonance
forms gets more significant
b) Zero charge of resonance is the most significant one
c) Atoms with full octet resonance form are more stable
when compared with the one with unfilled octet
d) Resonance is unstable in case of unfilled octet of
nitrogen atom
Answer: a
Explanation: Greater the number of charges, less stable
and less significant gets the resonance form.
83
Identify the correct sequence according to
electronegativity
a) F> NH2> CH3>OH`
b) NH2`> F`>CH3`> OH`
c) NH2`>OH`> CH3`>F`
d) F`> OH`>NH2`>CH3`
Answer: d
Explanation: In the sequence ” F`> OH`> NH2`> CH3`”, F’ is
the most stable one and CH3′ is the least stable one, as the
stability of the anions increases on moving towards the
right of the periodic table
84
Identify the correct sequence with respect to Inductive
effects
a) CF3`> CH2F`> CHF2`> CF3`
b) CF3`> CHF2`> CH2F`> CH3`
c) CH3`> CH2F`> CHF2`> CF3`
d) CH3`> CHF2`> CH2F`v CF3`
Answer: b
Explanation: As electron withdrawing substituent is
greater in CF3, it is more stable and CH3 is the least stable
one and hence the sequence
85
Stability sequence: primary carbocation> secondary
carbocation > tertiary carbocation.
Is this sequence correct?
a) Yes
b) No
Answer: b
Explanation: The tertiary carbocation has the highest
stability and the primary carbocation has the least
stability, as it lies close to electron withdrawing group and
hence the sequence is not correct.
86
Identify the incorrect statement regarding aromaticity
a) It is the extra stability possessed by a molecule
b) p-orbitals must be planar and overlap
c) Cyclic delocalization takes place
d) It does not follow Huckel’s rule
Answer: d
Explanation: It follows Huckel’s rule, according to which a
molecule must possess specific number of pi electrons
within a closed ring of p-orbitals.
87
Aromatic rings do not have resonance structures. State
true or false
a) False
b) True
Answer: a
Explanation: Aromatic rings have resonance structure due
to cycling double bonds and all aromatic rings must have
resonance but the converse need not be satisfied.
88
Select the correct statement regarding the aromatic
nitrogen molecule
a) It is not hybridized
b) It is sp hybridized
c) It is sp2 hybridized
d) It is sp3 hybridized
Answer: c
Explanation: As a result of its overall structure and
electron delocalization, it becomes a sp2 hybridized,
aromatic molecule
89
Can a linear molecule have aromaticity?
a) Yes
b) No
Answer: b
Explanation: A molecule can have aromaticity if it is closed
loop or ring-shaped or has p-orbitals and hence linear
molecule cannot have aromaticity.
90
Select the incorrect statement:
a) A resonance may sometimes cause sp3 atoms to
become sp2 hybridized
b) Delocalizing one lone pair causes aromaticity
c) One lone pair will be counted as two pi electrons
according to Huckel’s equation
d) Two sigma bonds make up a double bond
Answer: d
Explanation: A double bond is one which has a sigma bond
and a pi bond. Each pi bond has two pi electrons
91
Identify the one which does not come under the organic
addition reaction
a) Hydration
b) Dehydration
c) Halogenation
d) Hydrohalogenation
Answer: b
Explanation: Dehydration comes under elimination
reaction and hence it does not come under addition
reaction.
92
Choose the correct one which will react faster in the
SN2 nucleophilic substitution reaction
a) CH2-CH=CH2=Br
b) CH2 = CH- CH2 – Br
c) CH2 = CH- CH2 = Br
d) CH= CH2 – CH2 – Br
Answer: b
Explanation: The carbocation character in the transition
state causes stabilization of the resonance and hence CH2
= CH- CH2 – Br (2- bromobutane) is the one which will
react faster compared to the others.
93
What will be the reactivity of chlorobenzene in an
electrophilic substitution reaction with benzene?
a) Reacts very slowly than benzene
b) Reacts in the same way as benzene
c) Reacts faster than benzene
d) Does not react with benzene
Answer: a
Explanation: The rate of the reaction depends on the
electron density in the ring and here in this case resonance
is not favorable and the electronegativity dipole
dominates. This slows down the reactivity of
chlorobenzene
94
Alcohol on refluxing with Cr2O7 gives:
a) Ester
b) Aldehyde
c) Sugar
d) Carboxylic acid
Answer: d
Explanation: Alcohol (R-OH), when it is refluxed with
Cr2O7, it forms carboxylic acid (R-COOH).
95
Alkene under high temperature and high-pressure forms
a) Alcohol
b) Polyalkyne
c) Polyalkane
d) Polyalkene
Answer:c
Explanation: Alkenes undergoes polymerization reaction
under high temperature and pressure to form poly alkanes
-(C-C)-n.
96
Identify the one which on reaction with carboxylic acid
at high temperature gives Ester
a) Ketone
b) Alcohol
c) Aldehyde
d) Sugars
Answer: b
Explanation: Alcohols on reaction with carboxylic acid at
high temperature, in the presence of sulphuric acid gives
Ester.
97
Primary alcohols undergo what reaction to form
alkenes?
a) Elimination
b) Oxidation
c) Reduction
d) Hydrolysis
Answer: a
Explanation: Upon elimination or dehydration, the primary
alcohols form alkenes.
98
Answer: a
Explanation: Upon elimination or dehydration, the primary
alcohols form alkenes.
Answer: b
Explanation: Ketones in the presence of NaBH4 undergoes
reduction to form secondary alcohols.
99
Primary amides get converted into primary amines by:
a) Addition
b) Oxidation
c) Reduction
d) Acylation
Answer: b
Explanation: Primary amides upon heating in the presence
of hydrogen and nickel catalyst, gets reduced to form
primary amines.
100
Identify the one which does not come under the
chemical methods of quantitative analysis
a) Gravimetric
b) Titrimetric
c) Volumetric
d) Magnetic suceptibility
Answer: d
Explanation: Magnetic suceptibility comes under physical
methods of qunatitative analysis and hence the answer.
101
Quantitative analysis is one which is used for separating
out the specific constituents from a mixture. This
statement is:
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Quantitative analysis is used to measure the
quantity, (i.e the amount) present and the above
mentioned statement defines qualitative analysis.
102
Select the incorrect statement regarding analytical
balance
a) It is the fundamental kit in quantitative analysis
b) It measures samples very accurately
c) It could measure the difference in mass upto 0.1 mg
d) It is not a sensitive instrument
Answer: d
Explanation: It is a very sensitive instrument as it could
accurately measure the weight of a particular compound
of upto 0.1 mg
103
Which among the following is not a physical method:
a) X-ray fluorescence spectroscopy
b) Atomic emission spectroscopy
c) Inert gas fusion
d) Trace element analysis
Answer: c
Explanation: Inert gas fusion is an example of chemical
methods of quantitative analysis, as it involves chemical
reaction such as oxidation.
104
Select the inappropriate statement regarding
quantitative analysis
a) It helps in determining the outcome of the product
b) It helps in determining the impurities in the sample
c) It fails to indicate the presence of lead in some
compound
d) It could identify the amounts of dosage present in the
drug
Answer: c
Explanation: It can identify the presence of lead and could
also account for its concentration in case of paints and
toys.
105
. Identify the test which is not a part of qualitative
analysis:
a) Litmus test
b) Kastle-Meyer test
c) Iodine test
d) Flame test
Answer: a
Explanation: Kastle-meyer test is done for identification of
blood, Iodine test is done for identification of starch and
Flame test is done to identify Barium.
106
Covalent molecules can be identified using quantitative
methods. State true or false
a) False
b) True
Answer: a
Explanation: The qualitative analysis is used to identify
covalent molecules by distinguishing them using physical
properties such as melting point, etc.
107
Identify the reagent which is not commonly used in
qualitative analysis
a) 6M NaOH
b) 6M HCl
c) 6M HNO3
d) 6M NH4
Answer: d
Explanation: 6M NH3 (not NH4) is the reagent commonly used in
qualitative analysis because it is used in almost every
group procedures.
108
Select the correct statement about the reagent 6M
HNO3
a) It forms hydroxo complexes
b) It destroys hydroxo and ammonia complexes
c) It forms NH3 complexes
d) It decreases the H+ ion concentration
Answer: b
Explanation: It is a good oxidizing agent, dissolves in
insoluble hydroxides and it destroys hydroxo and ammonia
complexes
109
Identify the incorrect statement regarding the reagent
6M NH3
a) It increases hydroxide and NH3 concentration
b) It decreases H+ concentration
c) It is capable of precipitating insoluble hydroxides
d) It is capable of forming hydro complexes
Answer: d
Explanation: It forms only NH3 complexes and does not
form hydro complexes.
110
Select the minimum number of carbon atoms, a
molecule must possess so as to be regarded as a higher
alkane
a) 15
b) 16
c) 17
d) 18
Answer: c
Explanation: A molecule with more than 17 carbon atoms
are regarded as higher alkanes such as waxes and solids.
111
Which among the following is not an alkane isomer with
6 carbon atoms
a) Hexane
b) 2,3-dimethylbutane
c) 2,2-dimethylbutane
d) Neopentane
Answer: d
Explanation: Neopentane is an isomer with 5 carbon atoms
and hence it is not an isomer with 6 carbon atoms.
112
The other name for branched chain alkanes is
a) Paraffins
b) Isoparaffins
c) Neoparaffins
d) Naphthenes
Answer: b
Explanation: Linear and branched chain alkanes have
difference in their physical properties and hence they are
given different prefix like n- and iso- respectively.
113
Select the incorrect statement regarding the boiling
points of alkanes
a) Boiling point increases with stronger Vander Waal’s
forces
b) Surface area is the only factor which determines the
boiling point of alkane
c) Boiling point of straight chain alkanes is greater than
that of branched chain alkanes
d) The boiling point of cycloalkanes is always higher than
that of linear alkanes
Answer: b
Explanation: Number of electrons and surface area are the
two factors which determine the boiling point.
114
Choose the correct statement :
a) Alkanes have poor conductivity
b) They form hydrogen bonds
c) They have good solubility in non polar solvents than
polar solvents
d) Alkanes have less density than that of water
Answer: b
Explanation: They undergo polarization and hence they do
not form hydrogen bonds.
115
Liquified petroleum gas is mainly composed of :
a) Methane and ethane
b) Ethane and propane
c) Propane and butane
d) Butane and hexane
Answer: c
Explanation: At low pressure both propane and butane
gets liquefied, hence they form the main components of
LPG
116
An alkane with 6 carbon atoms will have how many
hydrogen atoms?
a) 11
b) 12
c) 13
d) 14
Answer: d
Explanation: From the formula CnH2n+2, if n=6 then
(2*6)+2=14.
117
Which among these is not a structural isomer of the
compound C4H8
a) But-1-ene
b) But-2-ene
c) But-3-ene
d) 2-methylpropene
Answer: c
Explanation: The compound but-3-ene have a structural
formula different from the above three and hence it is not
a structural isomer of C4H8.
118
Select the incorrect statement regarding alkenes
a) In alkenes, the carbons are connected by pi bonds
b) Alkenes have almost same physical properties as that of
the alkanes
c) Alkenes are less reactive than alkanes
d) Alkenes undergo polymerization reaction
Answer: c
Explanation: Alkenes are not less reactive than alkanes,
indeed they are very reactive compared with them due to
the presence of C=C.
119
Identify the addition reaction which is not undergone by
the alkenes
a) Mercuration
b) Oxymercuration
c) Hydroboration
d) Halogenation
Answer: a
Explanation: Alkenes do not undergo mercuration, indeed
they undergo oxymercuration , a process in which an
alkene is converted into an alcohol.
120
Identify the incorrect statement regarding the synthesis
of alkenes
a) Cracking of a hydrocarbon yields alkenes
b) The reactions are exothermic
c) Zeolite catalyst helps in the synthesis of alkenes
d) The synthesis of alkenes is otherwise known as
reforming
Answer: b
Explanation: The reactions takes place at high
temperatures and hence they are endothermic
121
The major alkyne, acetylene compound is produced by
which among the following application on natural gas
a) Hydrogenation
b) Partial oxidation
c) Cracking
d) Hydrohalogenation
Answer: b
Explanation: A huge quantity of acetylene is produced by
partial oxidation of the natural gas.
122
Which among the following alkynes is used as a rocket
fuel?
a) Ethyne
b) Propyne
c) But-1-yne
d) Pent-1-yne
Answer: b
Explanation: Propyne has many advantages and it is not as
hazardous as compared to the other fuels, so they are
used in rocket fuels.
123
Which among the following product is formed when
ethyne undergoes hydrogenation?
a) Formaldehyde
b) Formic acid
c) Acetaldehyde
d) Acetic acid
Answer: c
Explanation: When ethyne undergoes hydrogenation in
the presence of sulphuric acid, it forms ethanal.
124
Cycloalkanes have the same melting and boiling points
as their corresponding alkanes. State true or false
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The melting and boiling points of the
cycloalkanes are much more than the corresponding
alkanes
125
Identify the compound with the highest ring strain
a) Cyclomethane
b) Cyclopropane
c) Cyclobutane
d) Cyclopentane
Answer: b
Explanation: Cyclopropane is the compound with the
highest ring strain. This is because the carbon atoms are
arranged in the shape of a triangle thus forming C-C-C.
126
Which among the following compounds explodes on
contact with oxygen
a) Cyclopropane
b) Cyclobutane
c) Cyclopentane
d) Cyclohexane
Answer: a
Explanation: Cyclopropane reacts very aggressively at
ordinary temperatures and hence it explodes when comes
in contact with oxygen.
127
Identify the alicyclic hydrocarbon which is highly
flammable
a) Cycloheptane
b) Cyclopentane
c) Cyclopropane
d) Cyclooctane
Answer: b
Explanation: cyclopentane is a hydrocarbon with 5 carbon
atoms and they are highly flammable.
128
Alkadienes are classified into how many types?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
Explanation: Based on the position and location of the
double bonds, they are classified into three types.
cumulative, conjugated, isolated dienes
129
Conjugated diene reacts with which among the
following to form a cyclohexene
a) Phenol
b) Dienophile
c) Hexane
d) Tribromo phenol
Answer: b
Explanation: Dienophile on reaction with conjugated
dienes forms cyclohexene and this reaction is known as
Diels-alder reaction
130
Identify the correct statement which is related to
aromatic hydrocarbon
a) It has only sigma bonds
b) It has only pi bonds
c) It has a sigma and two pi bonds
d) It has a sigma and delocalized pi bond
Answer: d
Explanation: An aromatic hydrocarbon always has a sigma
as well as a delocalized pi bond found between the carbon
atoms.
131
Which among these is the simplest example for
polycyclic arenes?
a) Benzacephenanthrylene
b) Naphthalene
c) Pyrene
d) Dibenz-anthracene
Answer: b
Explanation: Naphthalene has fused ring of aromaticity
and has the simplest structure when compared with other
polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons.
132
Arenes are:
a) volatile
b) Water soluble
c) Non-carcinogenic
d) Mostly gases
Answer: a
Explanation: Arenes have a very low boiling point and
hence they are volatile in nature.
133
Isolated dienes are similar in property to
a) Monoolefins
b) Diolefins
c) Triolefins
d) Tetraolefins
Answer: a
Explanation: Isolated dienes behave more like monoolefins
and have properties similar to them.
134
A molecule in which more than one single bond
separates two double bonds are called as:
a) Coordinate bond
b) Isolated double bond
c) Cumulative double bond
d) Conjugated double bond
Answer: b
Explanation: As per the definition of isolation, a double
bond is separated by more than a single bond.
135
Identify the one which is the perfect example for
Isolated double bond:
a) 1,4 pentadiene
b) 1,2 pentadiene
c) 1,3 pentadiene
d) 1,5 butadiene
Answer: a
Explanation: Only the 1,4 alkadiene compounds exhibit
isolated double bonds
136
Select the incorrect statement regarding carboxylic acids
a) They form acyl chlorides on reaction with PCl5
b) Aldehydes in the presence of H+/ Cr2O7 forms
carboxylic acids
c) They combine with alcohols to form esters
d) Upon polymerization, they form polymers
Answer: d
Explanation: Carboxylic acids do not undergo
polymerization reaction.
137
Which among the following is not a class of organic
compound
a) Carbonyl compound
b) Nitro compound
c) Amides
d) Electro compounds
Answer: d
Explanation: Classes of organic compounds are those
which involves organic compounds such as carbon,
hydrogen and oxygen. Hence, electro compounds is not a
class of organic compounds.
138
Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is
called
a) Methnyl group
b) Ethynyl group
c) Propionyl group
d) Propargyl group
Answer: b
Explanation: Triple bond with two atoms on either side are
called as ethynyl group and those with one carbon on one
side and two carbon on another side are called as
propargyl group
139
In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is
displaced so as to form a compactly structure with the
resemblance of a butterfly wing
a) Cyclopropane
b) Cyclobutane
c) Cyclopentane
d) Cyclohexane
Answer: b
Explanation: If one of the carbon atoms of cyclobutane is
not displaced, then the C-C bond would be exactly at right
angles to each other and they do not form a cyclic
structure.
140
A fractionating column's efficiency is measured by ______
the number of theoretical plates
141
Once crystallization is complete, the mother liquors and crystals are vacuum-filtered through a small ____ funnel
Hirsch
142
An ______ is a mixture of two or more liquid components under constant boiling, and distillation processes are performed as if they were a pure compound
azeotrope
143
The given compound is steam volatile, insoluble in water and decomposes at its boiling point. So, ____ distillation techniques will be used for purification
steam
144
When the solid and liquid phase are in equilibrium, the temperature ____________
Increases
Decreases
First increases and then decreases
Remains same
Remains same
145
aldehydes and ketones generally react by
nucleophilic addition
146
hydrogenation of an alkene yields
alkane
147
Which of the following reactions are favoured by polar aprotic solvent?
>SN1
>SN2
SN2
Explanation: SN1 reactions are favored by polar protic solvents whereas SN2 reactions are favored by polar aprotic solvent.
148
In chromatography, which of the following can the
mobile phase be made of?
a) Solid or liquid
b) Liquid or gas
c) Gas only
d) Liquid only
b) Liquid or gas
149
What is the main ISO standard used by testing and calibration laboratories to gain accreditation and formal recognition of their competence to carry out tests including sampling?
ISO/IEC 17025
150
A _______ is designed to detect potential quantitative errors in the actual analyses of each sample
surrogate spike
151
A __________ is designed to test the ability of the method to detect known concentrations of the target compounds.
matrix spike
152
a ______ blank is prepared in the laboratory and is designed to
detect contamination that could arise from the reagents and laboratory equipment used in
the analysis
reagent/method
153
the method that is widely used for the determination of the protein content of meat and animal food
kjeldahl method
154
During the electroplating of silver, silver ions in solution are reduced at the _______
cathode
155
Glass container is not suitable for
a. inorganic trace analyses
b. oil and grease determination
c. microbiological analyses
d. all of the above
a. inorganic trace analyses
156
Chemical derivatization is used to increase or decrease volatility for _________ analysis
a. AAS
b. GC and HPLC
c. PCR
d. none of the above
b. GC and HPLC
157
Implies that the constituent determined was present in high concentration
a. Trace analysis
b. Macro analysis
c. Elemental analysis
d. All of the above
b. Macro analysis
158
A chemical grade of highest purity and meets or exceeds purity standards set by American Chemical Society
a. Technical grade
b. Laboratory grade
c. Pure or practical grade
d. ACS grade
d. ACS grade
159
Which of the following is a primary standard for use in standardizing bases?
a. Ammonium hydroxide
b. Sulfuric acid
c. Acetic acid
d. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
d. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
160
For most metals, the maximum holding time for acid-preserved samples is _____
6 months.
161
what is the light source used in the visible range to 340-1000nm
Tungsten Halogen
162
The ______ is defined as the minimum concentration of a substance that can be measured and reported with 99% confidence that the analyte concentration is greater than zero and is determined from analysis of a sample
method detection limit (MDL)
163
which laboratory apparatus uses a cuvette?
spectrophotometer
164
The most appropriate technique to determine levels of the Pb2+ ion in blood is
atomic absorption spectroscopy
165
Aanalytical methods or instruments performance aim for ___
a. low signal-to-noise ratio
b. high variability
c. low dynamic range
d. high signal-to-noise ratio
d. high signal-to-noise ratio
166
a graphical representation of measuring signal as a function of quantity of analyte is called ___
calibration curve. It is also sometimes referred to as a standard curve or working curve
167
For the reaction Fe3+ + SCN- ---> FeSCN2+. The equilibrium constant for this reaction can best be determined by means of what?
Spectrophotometry
168
A food scientist has a sample of a plantoil and wants to determine if the oil contains saturated or unsaturated fatty acids. Which of the following spectroscopic techniques would be most useful for this purpose?
A. Mass spectroscopy
B. Ultraviolet spectroscopy
C. Infrared spectroscopy
D. Visible spectroscopy
C. Infrared spectroscopy
169
what is a graph showing the detectors response as a function of elution time: band's shapes position, resolution?
chromatogram
170
A stable light source in Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy (AAS) analysis, which is necessary to emit the sharp characteristic spectrum of the element to be determined is called ____
hollow cathode lamp (HCL)
171
It is a hazardous waste characteristic which applies to wastes that have the potential to contaminate groundwater if improperly disposed of. Those materials are regulated as hazardous waste due to their potential to leach out specific toxic substances in a landfill.
Toxicity
172
In handling acid wastes, what type of protective gloves should be used?
A. Rubber gloves
B. Cloth gloves
C. Disposal plastic gloves
D. Surgical gloves
A. Rubber gloves
173
According to Revised DAO 04-36, the appropriate waste labels shall include ____.
A. all of the choices
B. generator ID number
c. volume of waste
d. container materials
A. all of the choices
174
The following acids and acid mixtures can be collected and placed in glass containers EXCEPT ___.
A. sulfuric acid
B. hydrofluoric acid
C. aqua regia
D. hydrochloric acid
B. hydrofluoric acid
Hydrofluoric acid reacts with glass
175
Ammonia solution can be stored with the following chemicals EXCEPT for
A. cyclohexane solution
B. acetic acid solution
C. 2-propanol solution
D. sodium hydroxide solution
D. sodium hydroxide solution
Incompatible chemicals: Ammonia and sodium hydroxide are both strong bases. When combined, they can react violently, generating heat and releasing toxic ammonia gas. This can create a hazardous situation and potentially cause injuries.
176
What will you perform to know that the atomic absorption spectrometer continues to work properly?
A. calibration check
B. blank
C. QC sample recoveries
D. standard addition
A. calibration check
177
This test is used to compare the variances of two groups.
A. T-test
B. Z-test
C. Q-test
D. F-test
D. F-test
178
Saying that the concentration of total cyanide (CN-) in drinking water is 0.05 mg/L, which is below the maximum allowable level of 0.07 mg/L as per DOH DAO No. 20070012 when it is actually above the limit is____
A. accurate
B. false negative
C. precise
D. false positive
B. false negative
False negative: A false negative occurs when a test incorrectly indicates the absence of a condition or substance that is actually present. In this case, the test result shows a cyanide concentration below the safe limit when it is actually higher, potentially leading to health risks for consumers.
179
Which of the following is not a common method used for purification?
a) Sublimation
b) Crystallisation
c) Electrolysis
d) Chromatography
c) Electrolysis
180
Crystallisation is based on the ____________
a) Difference in melting point
b) Difference in boiling point
c) Difference in pressure
d) Difference in solubility
Answer: d
Explanation: Crystallisation is based on the difference in the solubility of the compound and the impurities in a suitable solvent.
181
Which of the following is the example of crystallisation process?
a) Purification of alum
b) Purification of sea water
c) Separation of gases from air
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: An impure sample of alum or copper sulphate is purified by crystallisation process. Purification of sea water is example of distillation process.
182
At room temperature, the impure compound in crystallisation is ____________
a) Soluble
b) Sparingly soluble
c) Insoluble
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The impure compound is sparingly soluble in a solvent at room temperature but appreciably soluble at higher temperatures.
183
Which of the following is known as mother liquor?
a) Solvent
b) Solute
c) Solution
d) Filtrate
Answer: d
Explanation: The filtrate is also known as mother liquor. A mother liquor is the part of a solution that is left over after crystallization. It is encountered in chemical processes including sugar refining.
184
The solution of impure compound and solvent is concentrated to get ____________
a) Unsaturated solution
b) Undersaturaed solution
c) Saturated solution
d) Oversaturated solution
Answer: c
Explanation: The solution of impure compound and solvent is concentrated to get a saturated solution. The solution is filtered to remove insoluble impurities.
185
Insoluble impurities from solution during crystallization are removed by ____________
a) Drying
b) Filtration
c) Heating
d) Cooling
Answer: b
Explanation: Insoluble impurities from solution during crystallization are removed by filtration. The solution is filtered to remove insoluble impurities.
186
The solution which is obtained after filtration is ____________
a) Suspended solution
b) Clear solution
c) Colloidal solution
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The solution which is obtained after filtration is a clear solution. The solution is filtered to remove insoluble impurities.
187
The nature of the crystallization process is governed by _____________
a) Thermodynamics
b) Kinetic factors
c) Thermodynamics and Kinetic factors
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The nature of the crystallization process is governed by both thermodynamic and kinetic factors.
188
Which of the following separation techniques is dependent on difference in volatility?
a) Distillation
b) Crystallization
c) Magnetic separation
d) Fractional crystallization
Answer: a
Explanation: Distillation process is dependent on difference in volatility. Example:- Vapor pressure, Boiling point.
189
Crystallization exploits difference in which factors?
a) Specific heat
b) Boiling point
c) Melting point
d) Bubble point
Answer: c
Explanation: The difference in melting point in case of crystallization leads to the separation of the mixture.
190
Which of the following separation techniques exploits differences in electric charge and diffusivity?
a) Chromatography
b) Electrophoresis
c) Distillation
d) Liquid Chromatography
Answer: b
Explanation: Electrophoresis is based on the difference in the electrical charges and their diffusivity. Based on the difference in diffusivity of electrical charges, the components are separated.
191
Which of the following is not an important property that governs the extent of separation?
a) Polarizability
b) Vapor pressure
c) Temperature
d) Radius of gyration
Answer: c
Explanation: The temperature of the feed will decide the state of the feed and in turn will decide the separation technique to be used. However it will have no effect on extent of separation.
192
What is the size of equipment determined by?
a) Rate of mass transfer from one phase to another
b) Rate of heat transfer from one phase to another
c) The number of reactions taking place
d) The amount of byproduct formed
Answer: a
Explanation: The amount of the feed i.e. the amount of mass transferred from one part of the separation process to another will determine the equipment size. More the mass transfer, larger shall be the equipment.
193
Which of the following methods are to be applied to separate Oxygen rich components and Nitrogen rich components?
a) Crystallization
b) Zone melting
c) Magnetic separation
d) Distillation
Answer: d
Explanation: The difference between the boiling point of oxygen (-183oC) and Nitrogen (-195.8oC) is frequently large to be separated by distillation.
194
How will you separate o-Xylene and m-Xylene products of the same compounds?
a) Crystallization
b) Distillation
c) Polymer membrane
d) Electrophoresis
Answer: a
Explanation: The above mentioned components have same boiling points. So distillation cannot be used. Since they have a difference in melting point, crystallization is used.
195
How is Oil and Hexane separated?
a) Distillation
b) Separating funnel
c) Crystallization
d) Electrophoresis
Answer: b
Explanation: Oil and Hexane will have huge differences in the molecular weights. Hence they will form two phases in a separating funnel. Thus the layer that settles down can be removed. Distillation cannot be used here because oil might get damaged.
196
How a mixture of isopropyl alcohol and water is be separated?
a) One step distillation
b) Two step distillation
c) Two step crystallization
d) Separating funnel
Answer: b
Explanation: A two-step distillation is employed where there is an addition of benzene which is soluble in IPA and thus forms a layer. Now IPA and benzene mixture can be separated from water using a separating funnel. Further distilling, we get benzene and IPA.
197
How can the DNA fragments be separated from DNA?
a) Crystallization
b) Electrophoresis
c) Distillation
d) Zone melting
Answer: b
Explanation: DNA fragments migrate to positive electrode in the electric field.
198
In crystallization, solvent should dissolve large amount of solute at:
a) Room temperature
b) Boiling point
c) Freezing point
d) Slip melting point
Answer: b
Explanation: Solvent should dissolve large amount of solute at boiling point of solvent.
199
The crystals obtained in crystallization are dried by:
a) Dryer
b) Oven
c) Filter paper
d) Exposing to sun
Answer: c
Explanation: The moisture is sucked with the help of a filter paper and the crystals are dried.
200
Which of the following is not an assumption of MSMPR model?
a) Perfect mixing of the magma
b) No crystal breakage
c) Continuous, steady-flow, steady-state operation
d) Crystals are of various sizes.
Answer: d
Explanation: The crystals are assumed to be of same size in the MSMPR model.
201
Fractional distillation is a process of separation of ____________
a) 2 miscible liquids
b) 2 immiscible liquids
c) 1 miscible and 1 immiscible liquid
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Fractional distillation is a process of separation of 2 immiscible liquids. Fractional distillation is the separation of a mixture into its component parts, or fractions, separating chemical compounds by their boiling point by heating them to a temperature at which one or more fractions of the compound will vaporize.
202
The difference in boiling point of 2 liquid in fractional distillation is ____________
a) Greater than 25 K
b) Less than 25 K
c) Equal to 25 K
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Difference in the boiling point of 2 liquid in fractional distillation is is less than 25 K. Fractional distillation is the separation of a mixture into its component parts, or fractions, separating chemical compounds by their boiling point by heating them to a temperature at which one or more fractions of the compound will vaporize.
203
A simple fractional tube is packed with ____________
a) Wooden beads
b) Plastic beads
c) Metal beads
d) Glass beads
Answer: d
Explanation: A simple fractional tube is packed with glass beads. The fractional distillation column is set up with the heat source at the bottom on the still pot.
204
Fractional distillation is different from distillation because of the presence of ____________
a) Fractionating column
b) Condenser
c) Distillation flask
d) Conical flask
Answer: a
Explanation: Fractional distillation is different from distillation because of the presence of fractionating column. A laboratory fractionating column is a piece of glassware used to separate vaporized mixtures of liquid compounds with close volatility.
205
The beads are provided in fractional column for ____________
a) Vapours to generate
b) Vapours to condense
c) Vapours to evaporate
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The beads are provided in fractional column for vapours to condense. The fractional distillation column is set up with the heat source at the bottom of the still pot.
206
Select the incorrect statement from the following options.
a) Fractionating columns are available in various design and size
b) Fractionating columns are available according to one fixed standard
c) A simple fractionating column is a tube packed with glass beads
d) Fractional distillation is the process of separation of different gases from air
Answer: b
Explanation: Fractionating columns are available in various design and sizes and not according to one fixed standard.
207
Which of the following gases cannot be separated from air using fractional distillation?
a) Argon
b) Oxygen
c) Helium
d) Nitrogen
Answer: c
Explanation: Helium gas cannot be separated from air using fractional distillation. Fractional distillation is used in air separation, producing liquid oxygen, liquid nitrogen, and highly concentrated argon.
208
Initially, the temperature at the top of the distillation column is _______________ than at its bottom.
a) Greater
b) Lesser
c) Equal
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The temperature at the top of the column is lesser than at its bottom. The two major types of distillation columns used are tray and packing columns.
209
Which of the following is more suitable for fractional distillation process?
a) Oil bath
b) Water bath
c) Glycerine bath
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Oil bath is the most suitable option for the fractional distillation process. Vacuum distillation systems operate at reduced pressure, thereby lowering the boiling points of the materials. Anti-bumping granules, however, become ineffective at reduced pressures.
210
Number of steps required for the separation of two liquids in fractional distillation is _________
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: Number of steps required for the separation of two liquids in fractional distillation is 2. Vacuum distillation systems operate at reduced pressure, thereby lowering the boiling points of the materials. Anti-bumping granules, however, become ineffective at reduced pressures.
211
The process of heating a liquid mixture to form vapours and then cooling the vapours to get pure component is called ____________
a) Crystallisation
b) Distillation
c) Chromatography
d) Sublimation
Answer: b
Explanation: The process of heating a liquid mixture to form vapours and then cooling the vapours to get pure component is called distillation. Distillation is a process of separating the component substances from a liquid mixture by selective evaporation and condensation.
212
The boiling point of chloroform is ____________
a) 334 K
b) 286 K
c) 350 K
d) 298 K
Answer: a
Explanation: The boiling point of chloroform is 334 K. Chloroform is an organic compound with formula CHCl3. It is a colorless, sweet-smelling, dense liquid that is produced on a large scale as a precursor to PTFE and refrigerants.
213
The boiling point of aniline is ____________
a) 438 K
b) 370 K
c) 338 K
d) 457 K
Answer: d
Explanation: The boiling point of aniline is 457 K. Aniline is a toxic organic compound with the formula C6H5NH2.
214
How aniline and chloroform can be separated?
a) Sublimation
b) Condensation
c) Distillation
d) Evaporation
Answer: c
Explanation: Aniline and chloroform can be separated through the distillation process. Aniline is a toxic organic compound with the formula C6H5NH2. Chloroform is an organic compound with formula CHCl3. It is a colorless, sweet-smelling, dense liquid that is produced on a large scale as a precursor to PTFE and refrigerants.
215
Which of the following is not separated through distillation process?
a) Acetone and water
b) Aniline and chloroform
c) Impurities in Sea water
d) Milk and water
Answer: d
Explanation: Milk and water are not separated through the distillation process. All the other options can be separated through a distillation process.
7. Which of the following will vaporize faster?
216
The distilled water is collected in ____________
a) Receiver
b) Adapter
c) Condenser
d) Round bottom flask
Answer: a
Explanation: The distilled water is collected in the receiver. An installation for distillation, especially of alcohol, is a distillery. The distillation equipment is still.
217
Which of the following will vaporize faster?
a) Aniline
b) Chloroform
c) Water
d) Kerosene
Answer: b
Explanation: Chloroform will vaporize faster than aniline and water. Chloroform is an organic compound with formula CHCl3. It is a colorless, sweet-smelling, dense liquid that is produced on a large scale as a precursor to PTFE and refrigerants.
218
The residue in the round bottom flask is ____________
a) Volatile
b) Non volatile
c) None of the mentioned
d) Volatile & Non volatile
Answer: b
Explanation: The residue salt int he round bottom flask is non volatile in nature. The process of distillation is used for the liquids having a sufficient difference in their boiling point. Distillation also permits the separation of air into its components.
219
The process of distillation is used for the liquids having ____________
a) Sufficient difference in their boiling point
b) Sufficient difference in their melting point
c) Sufficient difference in their solubility
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The process of distillation is used for the liquids having a sufficient difference in their boiling point. Distillation also permits the separation of air into its components.
220
The principle on which thin layer chromatography is based is that the ____________
a) Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to different degrees
b) Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to same degrees
c) Different compounds are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different degrees
d) Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to same degrees
Answer: c
Explanation: Thin layer chromatography is based on the fact that different compounds are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different degrees. It is a chromatography technique used to separate non-volatile mixtures.
221
The size of a thin layer of adsorbent is about ____________
a) 0.1 mm
b) 0.2 mm
c) 0.3 mm
d) 0.4 mm
Answer: b
Explanation: The size of a thin layer of adsorbent is about 0.2 mm. TLC plates are usually commercially available, with standard particle size ranges to improve reproducibility.
222
In Thin Layer Chromatography, The eluant filled in the closed jar is ____________
a) Mixture of gases
b) Mixture of a liquid and a gas
c) Mixture of solids
d) Mixture of liquids
Answer: d
Explanation: The eluant filled in the closed jar is liquid or mixture of liquids.
223
In Thin Layer Chromatography, Select the incorrect statement from the following options.
a) The spots of colorless compounds are invisible to the eyes
b) These spots can be detected by putting the plate under ultraviolet light
c) These spots can be detected by placing the plate in a covered jar containing iodine crystals
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned options are correct. The spots of colorless compounds are invisible to the eyes, can be detected by putting the plate under ultraviolet light and can be detected by placing the plate in a covered jar containing iodine crystals.
224
In Thin Layer Chromatography, The relative adsorption of each component of the mixture is expressed in terms of its ____________
a) Acceleration factor
b) Retardation factor
c) Both acceleration and retardation factor
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The relative adsorption of each component of the mixture is expressed in terms of its retardation factor (Rf).
225
Select the correct statement from the following.
a) Paper chromatography is a type of partition chromatography
b) A special quality paper is used in paper chromatography
c) Chromatography paper contains water trapped in it, which acts as stationary phase
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Paper chromatography is a type of partition chromatography. A special quality paper is used in paper chromatography which contains water trapped in it, which acts as a stationary phase.
226
Amino acids detected by spraying the plate with ninhydrin solution is an example of ____________
a) Column chromatography
b) Thin layer chromatography
c) Paper chromatography
d) Liquid chromatography
Answer: c
Explanation: Amino acids detected by spraying the plate with a ninhydrin solution is an example of paper chromatography. Paper chromatography is an analytical method that is used to separate colored chemicals or substances.
227
Paper chromatography is based on continuous differential partitioning of components of a mixture between stationary and mobile phases.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Paper chromatography is based on a continuous differential partitioning of components of a mixture between stationary and mobile phases. It is an analytical method that is used to separate colored chemicals or substances.
228
Retardation factor is the ratio of ____________
a) Distance moved by substance from base line to distance moved by the solvent from base line
b) Distance moved by solvent from base line to distance moved by the substance from base line
c) Distance moved by substance from top line to distance moved by the solvent from top line
d) Distance moved by solvent from top line to distance moved by the substance from top line
Answer: a
Explanation: Retardation factor is the ratio of the distance moved by substance from base line to distance moved by the solvent from base line.
229
What are the uses of partition chromatography?
a) Separation of amino acids
b) Analysis of closely related aliphatic alcohols
c) Separation of sugar derivatives
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The uses of partition chromatography are separation of amino acids, analysis of closely related aliphatic alcohols and separation of sugar derivatives.
230
Which type of chromatography is used for the structural analysis?
a) Column chromatography
b) Paper chromatography
c) Partition chromatography
d) Affinity chromatography
Answer: b
Explanation: Paper chromatography is used for structural analysis. Paper chromatography is an analytical method that is used to separate colored chemicals or substances.
231
Which of the following is not done using column chromatography?
a) The identification of unknown compounds
b) The determination of homogeneity of chemical substances
c) Separation of inorganic cations or complexes
d) Separation of geometric isomers
Answer: c
Explanation: Separation of inorganic cations or complexes is done using paper chromatography. Column chromatography is a method used to purify individual chemical compounds from mixtures of compounds.
232
Affinity chromatography is used for the analysis and isolation of ____________
a) Insoluble starch substances
b) Enzyme tyrosinase
c) Antibodies bound with a covalently-attached antigen on cellulose column
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Affinity chromatography is used for the analysis and isolation of insoluble starch substances, enzyme tyrosinase and antibodies bound with a covalently-attached antigen on cellulose column.
233
Purification of enzymes and proteins is done using ____________
a) Affinity chromatography
b) Liquid chromatography
c) Column chromatography
d) Thin layer chromatography
Answer: a
Explanation: Affinity chromatography is used for the purification of enzymes and proteins. Affinity chromatography is also used for the analysis and isolation of insoluble starch substances, enzyme tyrosinase and antibodies bound with a covalently-attached antigen on cellulose column.
234
Which of the following is not an application of high performance liquid chromatography?
a) Analysis of proteins, drugs and explosives
b) Separation of pharmaceutical drugs
c) Elimination of undesirable substances from blood
d) Separation of lipids, fatty acids and steroids
Answer: c
Explanation: Elimination of undesirable substances from blood is done using affinity chromatography. All the other options are the application of high performance liquid chromatography.
235
The analysis and separation of industrial products like soap and synthetic detergents is done using ____________
a) Thin layer chromatography
b) Gas chromatography
c) Ion exchange chromatography
d) Partition chromatography
Answer: b
Explanation: The analysis and separation of industrial products like soap and synthetic detergents is done using gas chromatography. It is a common type of chromatography used in analytical chemistry for separating and analyzing compounds that can be vaporized without decomposition.
236
The checking of purity of samples is the application of thin layer chromatography.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The checking of purity of samples is the application of thin layer chromatography. It is a chromatography technique used to separate non-volatile mixtures.
237
Which of the following is the application of ion exchange chromatography?
a) The softening of hard water
b) The demineralisation of water
c) The separation and determination of anions
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The application of ion exchange chromatography is softening of hard water, demineralisation of water and the separation and determination of anions
238
The quantitative analysis is done using ____________
a) Ion exchange chromatography
b) Thin layer chromatography
c) Gas chromatography
d) Liquid chromatography
Answer: c
Explanation: Gas chromatography is used for the quantitative analysis. It is a common type of chromatography used in analytical chemistry for separating and analyzing compounds that can be vaporized without decomposition.
239
Chromatography is the process for identification, purification and separation of components of a mixture on the basis of ____________
a) Difference in their boiling point
b) Difference in their melting point
c) Difference in their affinity for mobile and stationary phase
d) Difference in their solubility
Answer: c
Explanation: Chromatography is the process for identification, purification and separation of components of a mixture on the basis of difference in their affinity for mobile and stationary phases. The mixture is dissolved in a fluid called the mobile phase, which carries it through a structure holding another material called the stationary phase.
240
Chromatography involves two mutually ____________
a) Immiscible phases
b) Miscible phases
c) Soluble phases
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Chromatography involves two mutually immiscible phases (stationary and mobile phases). The mixture is dissolved in a fluid called the mobile phase, which carries it through a structure holding another material called the stationary phase.
241
There is no need of support if packed into a column when the stationary phase is ____________
a) Gas
b) Liquid
c) Solid
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: If the stationary phase is solid, there is no need of support if packed into a column. In solid phase, all the molecules are already in closed packing.
242
Which of the following is not a stationary phase?
a) Liquid-liquid chromatography
b) Gas-liquid chromatography
c) Gas-solid chromatography
d) Solid-solid chromatography
Answer: d
Explanation: Solid-solid chromatography is not a stationary phase because solid-solid phase cannot provide any fluidity.
243
Liquid chromatography is a technique for separating ____________
a) Ions that are not dissolved in a solvent
b) Ions that are dissolved in a solvent
c) Ions that are dissolved in a solute
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Liquid chromatography is a technique for separating ions that are dissolved in a solvent. Solute is the material which is dissolved and solvent is the solution in which it is dissolved.
244
In exclusion chromatography, solute molecules are separated based on ____________
a) Molecular geometry and size
b) Molecular composition
c) Molecular phase
d) Molecular formula
Answer: a
Explanation: In exclusion chromatography, solute molecules are separated based on molecular geometry and size. These two physical characteristics have a significance role in exclusion chromatography.
245
The gas-solid chromatography is ______________ chromatography as per basic principle involved.
a) Exclusion
b) Ion-exchange
c) Adsorption
d) Absorption
Answer: c
Explanation: The gas-solid chromatography is adsorption chromatography as per basic principle involved as the gas molecules are adsorbed on the solid surface.
246
A proper solvent that is passed through the column for elution so that separated components can be collected is called ____________
a) Adsorbent
b) Buffer solution
c) Mobile phase
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: A proper solvent that is passed through the column for elution so that separated components can be collected is called buffer solution. The eluate is the mobile phase leaving the column. The eluent is the solvent that carries the analyte.
247
In chromatography, the relative solubility of solute in both the phases determines the ____________
a) Rate of movement of solvent
b) Rate of disappearance of solvent
c) Rate of movement of solute
d) Rate of disappearance of solute
Answer: c
Explanation: The relative solubility of solute in both the phases determines the rate of movement of solute as solute is added to the solution.
248
If the mobile phase is gas, movement of solute is determined by its ____________
a) Boiling point
b) Melting point
c) Solubility
d) Volatility
Answer: d
Explanation: If the mobile phase is gas, movement of solute is determined by its volatility because gas is always measured as volatility not as solubility or melting point or boiling point.
249
Column chromatography is based on the principle of _______________
a) Ion-exchange
b) Exclusion principle
c) Differential adsorption
d) Absorption
Answer: c
Explanation: Column chromatography is based on the principle of differential adsorption. It means different compounds have different tendencies to get adsorb on a particular surface.
250
Arrange the following compounds in order of their increasing adsorption tendencies.
a) Cellulose >> starch >> calcium carbonate >> alumina
b) Cellulose >> starch >> alumina >> charcoal
c) Charcoal >> cellulose >> alumina >> starch
d) Calcium carbonate >>; alumina >> starch >> cellulose
Answer: a
Explanation: Cellulose >> starch >> calcium carbonate >> charcoal >> alumina is the correct order of increasing adsorption tendencies.
251
What is the factor responsible for the separation in column chromatography?
a) Polarity differences between the solvent
b) Polarity differences between the solute
c) Polarity indifference between the solvent
d) Polarity indifference between the solute
Answer: b
Explanation: Polarity differences between the solute molecules are responsible for the separation in column chromatography.
252
Select the correct statement from the following options. Column Chromatography
a) The lesser the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface
b) The greater the polarity of solute, more weakly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface
c) The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface
d) All of the mentioned option
Answer: c
Explanation: The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface.
253
The components of the mixture in column chromatography are eluted in order of ____________
a) Increasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio
b) Increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
c) Decreasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
d) Decreasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio
Answer: b
Explanation: The components of the mixture in column chromatography are eluted in order of increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio.
254
The elution power of a solvent is determined by ____________
a) Its overall polarity
b) The polarity of the stationary phase
c) The nature of the sample components
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The elution power of a solvent is determined by its overall polarity, the polarity of the stationary phase and the nature of the sample components.
255
Which of the following is separated through column chromatography?
a) Chlorophyll and carotenoids
b) Inorganic cations or complexes
c) Sugar derivatives
d) Amino acids formed by hydrolysis of a protein molecule
Answer: a
Explanation: The main application of column chromatography is to separate plant pigment (Chlorophyll and carotenoids).
256
The mixture of petroleum ether and benzene is used in the elution ratio of ____________
a) 1 : 2
b) 1 : 5
c) 1 : 9
d) 1 : 12
Answer: c
Explanation: The mixture of petroleum ether and benzene is used in the elution ratio of 1:9 (V/V).
257
What is the wavelength range for UV spectrum of light?
a) 400 nm – 700 nm
b) 700 nm to 1 mm
c) 0.01 nm to 10 nm
d) 10 nm to 400 nm
Answer: d
Explanation: Ultraviolet (UV) is an electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength from 10 nm to 400 nm, shorter than that of visible light but longer than X-rays (the visible region fall between 380-750 nm and X- rays region fall between 0.01 to 10nm).
258
The analysis of electromagnetic radiation scattered, absorbed or emitted by the molecule is called __________
a) Kaleidoscopy
b) Astronomy
c) Spectroscopy
d) Anatomy
Answer: c
Explanation: The analysis of electromagnetic radiation scattered, absorbed or emitted by the molecule is called spectroscopy. Astronomy is the study of celestial objects and processes the physics, chemistry, and evolution of such objects and processes. A kaleidoscope is an optical instrument, typically a cylinder with mirrors containing loose, colored objects such as beads or pebbles and bits of glass. Anatomy is the branch of biology concerned with the study of the structure of organisms and their parts.
259
The energy level with lower energy is called __________
a) Ground state energy level
b) Initial state energy level
c) Excited state energy level
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The lower energy level is called the ground state and the higher energy level is called excited state. The excited state of a system (such as an atom, molecule or nucleus) is any quantum state of the system that has higher energy than the ground state.
260
Absorption spectrum results when an electron in an atom undergoes a transition from __________
a) Higher energy level to a lower one
b) Lower energy level to a higher one
c) Intermediate levels
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Absorption spectrum results when an electron in an atom undergoes a transition from lower energy level to a higher one.
261
The energy of a photon is given by __________
a) h/ν
b) ν/h
c) 1/hν
d) hν
Answer: d
Explanation: The energy of a photon is given by hν where ν is the frequency and h is plank constant.
262
Select the incorrect statement from the following option.
a) Emission spectrum results when an electron in an atom undergoes a transition from excited state to the ground state
b) In the emission spectrum, transition takes place with the emission of a photon of energy hν
c) In the emission spectrum, transition takes place with the absorption of a photon of energy hν
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: In the emission spectrum, transition takes place with the emission of a photon of energy hν. All the other options are correct. Emission spectrum results when an electron in an atom undergoes a transition from excited state to the ground state.
263
The spectra can be broadly classified into two categories. They are __________
a) Atomic and molecular spectra
b) Atomic and electronic spectra
c) Molecular and electronic spectra
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The spectra can be broadly classified into two categories: atomic and molecular spectra. Atomic spectra are the spectrum of frequencies of electromagnetic radiation emitted or absorbed during transitions of electrons between energy levels within an atom. Molecular spectra arises from the transition of an electron between the molecular energy levels.
264
Select the correct statement from the following options.
a) Molecular spectra arises from the transition of an electron between the molecular energy levels
b) In molecular transitions, electronic, rotational and vibration transitions occurs
c) Molecular spectra is more complicated than atomic spectra
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Molecular spectra arises from the transition of an electron between the molecular energy levels. In molecular transitions, electronic, rotational and vibration transitions occurs and molecular spectra is more complicated than atomic spectra.
265
The necessary condition for absorption spectrum is that __________
a) hν should be greater than the energy difference
b) hν should be smaller than the energy difference
c) hν should be equal to the energy difference
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The necessary condition for absorption spectrum is that hν should be equal to the energy difference(ΔE = Ee – Eg).
266
The different types of energies associated with a molecule are __________
a) Electronic energy
b) Vibrational energy
c) Rotational energy
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The different types of energies associated with a molecule are electronic energy, vibrational energy, rotational energy and translational energy.
267
The region of electromagnetic spectrum for nuclear magnetic resonance is __________
a) Microwave
b) Radio frequency
c) Infrared
d) UV-rays
Answer: b
Explanation: The region of the electromagnetic spectrum for nuclear magnetic resonance is radio frequency.
268
Which of the following is an application of molecular spectroscopy?
a) Structural investigation
b) Basis of understanding of colors
c) Study of energetically excited reaction products
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The various applications of molecular spectroscopy are- Structural investigation, basis of understanding of colors and study of energetically excited reaction products.
269
Select the correct statement from the following option.
a) Spectroscopic methods require less time and more amount of sample than classical methods
b) Spectroscopic methods require more time and more amount of sample than classical methods
c) Spectroscopic methods require less time and less amount of sample than classical methods
d) Spectroscopic methods require more time and less amount of sample than classical methods
Answer: c
Explanation: Spectroscopic methods require less time and less amount of sample than classical methods (1 mg).
270
The transition zone for Raman spectra is __________
a) Between vibrational and rotational levels
b) Between electronic levels
c) Between magnetic levels of nuclei
d) Between magnetic levels of unpaired electrons
Answer: a
Explanation: The transition zone for Raman spectra is between vibrational and rotational levels. Raman spectroscopy is a spectroscopic technique used to observe vibrational, rotational, and other low-frequency modes in a system.
271
The criteria for electronic spin resonance is ____________
a) Periodic change in polarisability
b) Spin quantum number of nuclei > 0
c) Presence of unpaired electron in a molecule
d) Presence of chromophore in a molecule
Answer: c
Explanation: The criterion for electronic spin resonance is the presence of unpaired electron in a molecule. This spectroscopy is a method for studying materials with unpaired electrons.
272
The electronic spectra in the visible range span is __________
a) 25000-72000 cm-1
b) 25000-50000 cm-1
c) 12500-25000 cm-1
d) 15000-30000 cm-1
Answer: c
Explanation: The electronic spectra in the visible range span 12500-25000 cm-1 and in the UV region span 25000-72000 cm-1
273
Which of the following transitions are of weak intensities and lie in the visible region?
a) n→n*
b) σ→σ*
c) π→π*
d) n→σ*
Answer: a
Explanation: n→n* transitions are of weak intensities and lie in the visible region.
274
In Electronic Spectroscopy, What is the position of the band of alkanes?
a) 190 nm
b) 185 nm
c) 217 nm
d) 150 nm
Answer: d
Explanation: The position of the band of alkanes is ≈150 nm. Alkanes refer to any of the series of saturated hydrocarbons including methane, ethane, propane, and higher members.
275
In Electronic Spectroscopy, Which of the following organic compound shows transition due to conjugation?
a) Alkenes
b) Saturated aliphatic ketones
c) Conjugated dienes
d) Alkanes
Answer: c
Explanation: Conjugated dienes shows the transitions of low energy and is due to conjugation.
276
Which of the following is not an auxochrome group?
a) –OH
b) –SH
c) –OR
d) –O2
d) –O2
277
Which of the following shift leads to the decreased intensity of absorption?
a) Hypochromic
b) Hyperchromic
c) Hypsochromic
d) Bathochromic
Answer: a
Explanation: Hypochromic shift leads to the decreased intensity of absorption. Hypochromicity describes a material’s decreasing ability to absorb light. Hyperchromicity is the material’s increasing ability to absorb light.
278
Which of the following is an application of electronic spectroscopy?
a) Detection of impurities
b) Control of purification
c) Study of kinetics of the chemical reaction
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Detection of impurities, control of purification, study of the kinetics of the chemical reaction, determination of molecular weight and determination of unknown concentration are the applications of electronic spectroscopy.
279
Which of the following is a limitation of the Lambert-Beer’s law?
a) Scattering of light due to particles
b) Fluorescence of sample
c) Non-monochromatic radiation
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Scattering of light due to particles, fluorescence of the sample and non-monochromatic radiation are some of the limitations of Lambert-Beer’s law. It relates the attenuation of light to the properties of the material through which the light is traveling.
280
A student has to measure out 9.40 mL of a liquid and selects a 100 mL graduated cylinder. To improve the accuracy of the measurement, it would be most effective to:
a. take the average of multiple measurements using the graduated cylinder.
b. measure the liquid using a 25 mL graduated cylinder instead.
c. estimate the measurement obtained from the graduated cylinder to an additional significant figure.
d. measure the liquid using a 10 mL graduated pipette instead.
d. measure the liquid using a 10 mL graduated pipette instead.
281
A soluble ionic compound is thought to contain either sodium or calcium as the cation. Which of the following solutions could be added to an aqueous sample of the compound to determine the identity of the cation?
a. hydrochloric acid
b. nitric acid
c. potassium bromide
d. potassium carbonate
d. potassium carbonate
282
In living cells, nonspontaneous metabolic reactions are made thermodynamically possible primarily through:
a. direct interaction of the bonds in carbohydrates with those in the molecules involved in the metabolic reaction.
b. coupling with the energy-releasing reaction of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to adenosine diphosphate (ADP).
c. the compartmentalization of the various steps of the metabolic pathway within membranes.
d. heating of the immediate environment through the breaking of carbon-carbon bonds in large organic molecules.
b. coupling with the energy-releasing reaction of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to adenosine diphosphate (ADP).
283
During the motion, if the centre of gravity of molecule changes, the molecule possess __________
a) Electronic energy
b) Rotational energy
c) Translational energy
d) Vibrational energy
Answer: c
Explanation: During the motion, if the centre of gravity of molecule changes, the molecule possess translational energy. Translational refers to the movement in horizontal or vertical direction.
284
The correct order of increasing strength of adsorption is ____________
a) Alkanes >> Esters >> Aldehydes >> Phenols >> Ketones
b) Aldehydes >> Phenols >> Ketones >> Esters >> Alkanes
c) Aldehydes >> Ketones >> Esters >> Alkanes >> Phenols
d) Alkanes >> Esters >> Ketones >> Aldehydes >> Phenols
d) Alkanes >> Esters >> Ketones >> Aldehydes >> Phenols
285
The chromaplate or thin layer chromatography plate is made up of ____________
a) Glass
b) Wood
c) Fibre
d) Metal
Answer: a
Explanation: The chromaplate or thin layer chromatography plate is made up of glass. TLC plates are usually commercially available, with standard particle size ranges to improve reproducibility. They are prepared by mixing the adsorbent, such as silica gel, with a small amount of inert binder like calcium sulfate (gypsum) and water.
286
Porcelain pieces are put into the distillation flask to avoid ____________
a) Overheating
b) Uniform boiling
c) Bumping of the solution
d) None of the mentioned options
Answer: c
Explanation: Porcelain pieces are put into the distillation flask to avoid bumping of the solution due to uneven heating.
287
How a mixture of iron and copper fillings is be separated?
a) Magnetic separation
b) Crystallization
c) Evaporation
d) Distillation
Answer: a
Explanation: Magnetic separation is employed since the components have difference in magnetic properties.
288
What is the separation by polymer membrane?
a) Exploits the difference in volatility
b) Exploits the difference in diffusivity
c) Exploits the difference in flowability
d) Exploits the difference in permeability
Answer: d
Explanation: In a polymer membrane, only the substances which are suitable to the membrane are passed and the rest do not pass.It can be based on the pore size of the membrane.
289
Crystal phases can be inter-converted by varying ____________
a) Temperature
b) Pressure
c) Size
d) Viscosity
Answer: a
Explanation: Crystal phases can be inter-converted by varying factors such as temperature.
290
The test that decides whether a datum from a given set could be rejected or NOT is ____
A. T-test
B. Z-test
C. Q-test
D. F-test
C. Q-test
The Q-test, also known as the Dixon's Q-test or outlier test, is a statistical test specifically designed to identify and potentially remove outliers from a dataset.
291
what is the law that states the linear relationship between absorbance and concentration of an absorbing species?
Beer-Lambert law
292
The quantitative analysis is done using
a) Ion exchange chromatography
b) Thin layer chromatography
c) Gas chromatography
d) Liquid chromatography
c
293
Sampling type that eliminates questions of bias in selection
a. composite c. systematic
b. stratified d. random
d. random
294
When aqueous and nonaqueous liquids are combined, they usually form an immiscible mixture,
such as oil and water. A ________ helps in separating the liquids into two samples.
a. pipet c. separatory funnel
b. beaker d. rotary evaporator
c. separatory funnel
295
Mixtures of liquids and solids are usually separated prior analysis by
a. filtering
b.decanting
c. centrifuging
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
296
In the decomposition and dissolution of solids during sample preparation, which of the following is
expensive and often the last resort?
a. Acid treatment using oxidation c. Dissolution using ultrasound&appropriate solvent
b. Fusion technique d. Simple dissolution
b. Fusion technique
297
Reliability of the results decreases with a decrease in the level or concentration of the:
a. matrix c. reactant
b. analyte d. product
b. analyte
298
Properties of nitric acid making it the preferred acid for digesting samples for the analysis of
metals
a. acts as a strong acid
b. as an oxidizing agent
c. does not form insoluble compounds with metals/nonmetals
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
299
Primary sample preparation method for organics
a. Sonication
b. Acid-digestion
c. Extraction
d. All of the above
c. Extraction
300
Possible sources of contamination during sample preparation include:
a. Reagents (tracers)
b. Glassware/equipment
c. Cross-contamination between high- and low-activity samples
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
301
. Containers that should not be used for dry ashing because the elevated temperatures
exceed the melting point of these materials
a. zirconium
b. platinum
c. Glass and plastic
d. porcelain
c. Glass and plastic
302
The size of the sample taken for analysis depends on the concentration of the
a. analyte
b. equipment to be used
c. specific tests
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
303
Equipment commonly used to homogenize the contents of an open beaker.
a. Magnetic stirrer
b V-blenders
c. Ball and rod mills
d. tube rotator
a. Magnetic stirrer
304
The maximum holding time for acid preserved samples that will be subjected to determination of
metals is
a. 3 months c. 6 months
b. 1 week d. 48 hours
c. 6 months
305
A fraction of the sample actually used in the final laboratory analysis.
a. composite sample c. laboratory sample
b. sub-sample d. a, b and c
c. laboratory sample
306
A change in the analytical signal caused by anything in the sample other than analyte.
a. matrix effect c. absorbance
b. interference d. transmittance
a. matrix effect
307
Medium containing analyte.
a. reactant
b. matrix
c. solute
d. reference material
b. matrix
308
The total error of an analytical result is the sum of
a. sampling
b. sample preparation
c. analytical errors
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
309
The holding time for samples for metal determination preserved using nitric acid, 4 mL of dilute
3:1 is
a. 28 days c. 3 days
b. 2 weeks d. 1 year
a. 28 days
310
When samples cannot be dried because they decompose at the temperatures necessary to drive off the
water, the samples can be analyzed as
a. wet basis
b. dry basis
c. received basis
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
311
Organic components in solid samples are extracted from the matrix by continuously washing
the solid with a volatile solvent in a specialized piece of glassware
a. Soxhlet extraction
b. Ultrasonic extraction
c. Filtration
d. Rotary evaporation
a. Soxhlet extraction
312
In liquid-liquid extraction, it is often necessary to determine which liquid is aqueous and which
liquid is nonaqueous. To test the liquids, add a drop of water to the top layer. If the drop
dissolves
in the top layer, the top layer is
a. nonaqueous
b. aqueous
c. miscible
d. denser
b. aqueous
313
. It is important to discard containers that are scratched or abraded on their interior surfaces. The
internal surface area of a container, whether used for sample preparation or storage, may cause
loss of
a. matrix
b. analyte
c. weight
d. ash
b. analyte
314
Process by which a sample population is reduced in size to an amount of homogeneous material
that can be conveniently handled in the lab in which the composition is representative of the
population.
a. selection
b monitoring
c. sampling
d. segregation
c. sampling
315
As a general rule, the error in sampling and the sample preparation portion of an analytical
procedure is considerably higher than that in the
a. methodology
b treatment
c. preservation
d. subsampling
a. methodology
316
Locating the adulterated portion of the lot for sampling is an example of
a. random sampling
b. selective sampling
c. composite sampling
d. stratified sampling
b. selective sampling
317
Homogenization during sample preparation can be achieved using ___
a. mechanical devices (mixers, blenders, etc.)
b enzymatic methods
c. chemical methods
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
318
Glass container is not suitable for
a. inorganic trace analyses
b. oil and grease determination
c. microbiological analyses
d. all of the above
a. inorganic trace analyses
319
To increase/decrease analyte concentration, pre-concentration is needed for almost all trace
analysis, ________ is used for the analysis of highly contaminated samples so the
concentration
falls within the calibration range.
a. centrifugation
b. separation
c. dilution
d. none of the above
c. dilution
320
Chemical derivatization is used to increase or decrease volatility for _________ analysis
a. AAS
b. GC and HPLC
c. PCR
d. none of the above
b. GC and HPLC
321
Acid digestion via hot-plate digestion or microwave-assisted is one way of sample preparation
in the analysis of
a. Total metal
b. Bioactive compounds
c. Alcohols
d. Sugars
a. Total metal
322
GFAA (Graphite Furnace Atomic Absorption) do not use HCl since Cl- interferes. Diluted
______ acid is used.
a. Phosphoric Acid
b. Acetic acid
c. Nitric Acid
d. Sulfuric Acid
c. Nitric Acid
323
Partitioning of analytes between water phase and organic phase
a. Liquid-liquid extraction
b. Soli phase extraction
c. Ultrasonic extraction
d. Pressured Fluid Extraction (PFE)
a. Liquid-liquid extraction
324
The amounts of all constituents in the samples were determined
a. Complete (or ultimate) analysis
b. Partial analysis
c. Elemental analysis
d. All of the above
a. Complete (or ultimate) analysis
325
Implies that the constituent determined was present in high concentration
a. Trace analysis
b. Macro analysis
c. Elemental analysis
d. All of the above
b. Macro analysis
326
Quantitative chemical analysis of weighing a sample, usually of a separated and dried precipitate.
a. Titrimetric analysis
b. Volumetric analysis
c. Gravimetric analysis
d. Elemental analysis
c. Gravimetric analysis
327
A chemical grade of highest purity and meets or exceeds purity standards set by American
Chemical Society
a. Technical grade
b. Laboratory grade
c. Pure or practical grade
d. ACS grade
d. ACS grade
328
Which of the following is a primary standard for use in standardizing bases?
a. Ammonium hydroxide
b. Sulfuric acid
c. Acetic acid
d. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
d. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
329
How would you prepare 500.0 mL of 0.2500 M NaOH solution starting from a concentration of
1.000 M?
a. Transfer 125 mL from initial solution (1.000 M) and complete with solvent to 500.0
mL.
b. Transfer 121 mL from initial solution (1.000 M) and complete with solvent to 500.0
mL.
c. Transfer 122 mL from initial solution (1.000 M) and complete with solvent to 500.0
mL.
d. Transfer 112 mL from initial solution (1.000 M) and complete with solvent to 500.0
mL.
a. Transfer 125 mL from initial solution (1.000 M) and complete with solvent to 500.0
mL.
330
A student performs five titrations and obtains a mean result of 0.110 M, with a standard
deviation of 0.001 M. If the actual concentration of the titrated solution is 0.100 M, which of the
following is true about the titration results?
a. Accurate but not precise
b. Precise but not accurate
c. Both accurate and precise
d. Neither accurate nor precise
b. Precise but not accurate
331
How many grams of Sodium Persulfate (Na2S2O8) required to prepare a 1 L solution of Sodium
Persulfate with concentration of 10% (w/v). This solution is widely used as oxidizing reagent for
Total Organic Carbon analyzer (TOC).
a. 100 g of Sodium Persulfate
b. 101 g of Sodium Persulfate
c. 102 g of Sodium Persulfate
d. 99 g of Sodium Persulfate
a. 100 g of Sodium Persulfate
332
A solution has been prepared by transfer 60 mL from Ortho-phosphoric acid 85 % (v/v) H3PO4
and dilute to 1.0 L, what is the concentration of the new solution.
a. 10.10%
b. 9.25%
c. 12.2%
d. 5.10%
d. 5.10%
333
Bidirectional harpoons or double arrows (⇆) should be used to indicate ________ reactions
a. one sided
b. resonance
c. dynamic
d. reversible
d. reversible
334
Naphthalene (C10H8) is one of aromatic hydrocarbons measured by GC-MS. If molecular weight of
naphthalene is 128.6 g/mol; how many milligrams are required to prepare 100 mL of 2,000 ppb stock
standard solution of naphthalene from powder Naphthalene (purity of 91.5 % w/w)?
a. 2.18
b. 2.1858
c. 2.186
d. 2.1859
b. 2.1858
335
Used to measure volumes approximately, typically with errors of several percent except for one.
a. Beakers
b. pipettes
c. reagent bottles
d. graduated cylinders
d. graduated cylinders
336
If the theoretical yield for a reaction was 156 grams and I actually made 122 grams of the
product, what is my percent yield?
a. 78.2%
b. 128%
c. 19.0%
d. none of these
a. 78.2%
337
The method of standardization can be used if a _______________ reacts quantitatively with the
reagent needed in the standard solution.
a. primary standard
b. secondary standard
c. working standards
d. intermediate solution
a. primary standard
338
You have a stock solution of 15.8 M HNO3. How many mL of this solution should you dilute
using only a graduated pipette to make 100.0 mL of .250 M HNO3?
a. 1.58
b. 1.582
c. 1.50
d. 1.583
a. 1.58
339
HCl cannot be considered to be a primary standard because of its gaseous form at room
temperature, but its solutions may be standardized against anhydrous ______.
a. NaSO4
b. NaHCO3
c. Na2CO3
d. All of the above
c. Na2CO3
340
Requirements of a primary standards.
a. High Purity, 99.9% or better
b. Stability in air
c. Absence of hydrate water
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
341
Blank samples are prepared so that you have a measure of the amount that needs always to be
added to or subtracted from the end point to achieve the ________point.
a. titration error
b. equivalence
c. accuracy
d. precision
b. equivalence
342
Property which depends on the number of particles dissolved in a given mass of solvent.
a. vapor pressure lowering
b. boiling point elevation
c. freezing point depression
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
343
Boiling occur if the vapor pressure of the liquid is less than the atmospheric pressure.
a. True
b. False
c. not all the time
d. Always
b. False
344
What is the relationship between the temperature and the solubility of a solid in a liquid?
a. directly proportional
b. inversely proportional
c. no relationship
d. geometric
a. directly proportional
345
What is boiling point elevation?
a. it is the difference between the boiling points of a pure solvent and a solution
b. it is the sum of the boiling points of a pure solvent and a solution
c. it is the difference between the boiling points of a pure solute and a pure solvent
d. it is the boiling point of a solution
a. it is the difference between the boiling points of a pure solvent and a solution
346
A membrane that allows the passage of solvent molecules through but not solute molecules is
called
a. animal membrane
b. semipermeable membrane
c. permeable membrane
d. plant membrane
b. semipermeable membrane
347
The excess pressure required to stop the flow and keep the solution in equilibrium with the pure
solvent is
a. partial pressure
b. vapor pressure
c. osmotic pressure
d. atmospheric pressure
c. osmotic pressure
348
The separation of a mixture of substances into pure components on the basis of their differing
solubilities is
a. fractional distillation
b. vacuum crystallization
c. vacuum distillation
d. fractional crystallization
d. fractional crystallization
349
Which has a lower freezing point?
a. water
b. NaCl
c. NaCl solution
d. all of the above
c. NaCl solution
350
The reactant which is present in the smallest stoichiometric amount and which limits the amount
of product that can be formed in a reaction is
a. the limiting reagent
b. the reagent with the least number of grams
c. the excess reagent
d. the reagent with the most number of grams
a. the limiting reagent
351
Which of the following hastens the rate of solution?
a. pulverization
b. scratching the sides of the container
c. seeding
d. cooling
a. pulverization
352
A polar solute usually dissolves in a polar solvent and a nonpolar solute usually
dissolves in a nonpolar solvent. This is
a. the solubility rule
b. the “like dissolves like” rule
c. Henry’s law
d. Hund’s rule
b. the “like dissolves like” rule
353
A solution is _______ if more solute can dissolve in it.
a. saturated
b. supersaturated
c. unsaturated
d. concentrated
c. unsaturated
354
The maximum amount of solute that will dissolve in a definite amount of solvent to produce a
stable system at a specified temperature is called
a. dilution
b. solubility
c. saturation
d. concentration
b. solubility
355
The normality of a solution is always _______ the molarity.
a. greater than or equal to
b. greater than
c. less than or equal to
d. less than
a. greater than or equal to
356
Which of the following concentration units is independent of temperature?
a. molarity
b. normality
c. molality
d. percent volume
c. molality
357
Which is not a volumetric glassware?
a. beaker
b. burette
c. pipette
d. volumetric flask
a. beaker
358
Ambient laboratory conditions are not the same to standard conditions, therefore the volumes dispensed in volumetric glassware are often not the same as the manufacturer's specifications, but within some acceptable limits determined by the manufacturer. This slight variation in volume will cause a _________ error that are based on volume-volume or mass-volume concentrations.
a. random
b. systematic
c. gross
d. all of the above
b. systematic
359
Glass cuvettes are typically for use in the wavelength range of visible light, whereas fused quartz tends to be used for ____________ applications.
a. microwave
b. IR
c. UV / visible
d. none of the above
c. UV / visible
360
In this column type, the retention is governed by the interaction of the polar parts of the stationary
phase and solute.
a. reverse phase
b. ion exchange
c. column guard
d. normal phase
d. normal phase
361
A stable light source in AAS analysis, which is necessary to emit the sharp characteristic spectrum
of the element to be determined
a. Tungsten lamp
b. hollow cathode lamp
c. deuterium lamp
d. Nerst blower
b. hollow cathode lamp
362
The HPLC column type in which molecules are separated according to size.
a. Ion exchange
b. size exclusion
c. normal phase
d. reverse phase
b. size exclusion
363
Non Polar Reverse phase and C8 (octyl bonded silica) are commonly used for hydrophobic
Analytes in solid phase extraction. An example is
a. C18 (octadecyl bonded silica)
b. Resins
c. Florisil
d. alumina
a. C18 (octadecyl bonded silica)
364
Filters that can be heated and used in gravimetric analysis.
a. ordinary filter paper
b. GFF
c. Sintered glass fibers
d. none of the above
b. GFF
Google: Sintered glass fiber
Sintered glass fibers are made by fusing glass fibers together at high temperatures. This creates a filter that is highly resistant to heat and chemicals. It can withstand temperatures up to 1200°C, making it ideal for gravimetric analysis where the precipitate needs to be dried or ignited.
365
Objects cannot be weighed when hot or warm. But if you were to take a sample out and wait for
it to cool it would pick up moisture like that so put it in ________.
a. an oven
b. a dessicator
c. at room temperature
d. fumehood
b. a dessicator
366
Weighing to constant weight means a weighing difference of _____ mg using a calibrated
analytical balance.
a. ±1.0 mg
b. ±0.01g
c. ±0.01mg
d. ±0.1mg
d. ±0.1mg
367
The following are common desiccants except for _______
a. Calcium Sulfate
b. Ammonium Acetate
c. Calcium Chloride
d. Magnesium Oxide
b. Ammonium Acetate
368
During ignition for ashing, muffle furnaces that go up to 1100oC are used primarily for this and
________ is needed to contain the sample.
a. porcelain crucible
b. evaporating dish
c. beaker
d. all of the above
a. porcelain crucible
369
In making standard solutions, ______ are used for measuring liquid with high accuracy.
a. beakers
b. volumetric flasks
c. Erlenmeyer flasks
d. Nesslers Tubes
b. volumetric flasks
370
Used for distillation or heating of liquids, allows uniform heating.
a. round bottom flask
b. Erlenmeyer flask
c. test tube
d. Florence flask
a. round bottom flask
371
Most popular burettes are 10 mL, 25 mL and 50 mL types. Which has the highest resolution?
a. 25 mL
b. 10 mL
c. 50 mL
d. All of the above
c. 50 mL
372
Used for vacuum filtration using filter paper.
a. gooch crucible
b. Buchner funnel
c. rotary evaporator
d. rubber aspirator
b. Buchner funnel
373
In chromatography, ________ is carried out on glass plates or strips of plastic or metal coated
on one side with a thin layer of adsorbent.
a. HPLC
b. GC
c. Paper Chromatography
d. Thin Layer Chromatography
d. Thin Layer Chromatography
374
The nominal volume of water (or mercury) contained, or delivered by an article of volumetric
glassware, at its reference temperature.
a. capacity
b. liter
c. mL
d. uL
a. capacity
375
In verification of laboratory glassware, ________ is usually measured in terms of the tolerance,
which is the uncertainty in a measurement made with the glassware. Class A volumetric
glassware has a lower tolerance than Class B.
a. mean
b. accuracy
c. difference
d. precision
b. accuracy
376
Glass apparatus that are generally received with calibration certificates from suppliers.
a. Class B
b. Class A
c. Erlenmeyer flasks
d. Beakers
b. Class A
377
All proteins absorb electromagnetic radiation of wavelength around 190 nm, which corresponds
to a excitation in the protein molecule. In which region of the spectrum is this wavelength found?
a. X-ray
b. ultraviolet
c. Visible
d. Infrared
b. ultraviolet
378
Chromatography is used to
a. Separate two or more compounds based on their polarities.
b. Separate two or more compounds based on their masses.
c. Separate two or more compounds based on how strongly they interact with other
compounds.
d) all of the above.
d) all of the above.
379
A food scientist has a sample of a plantoil and wants to determine if the oil contains saturated or
unsaturated fatty acids. Which of the following spectroscopic techniques would be most
useful for this purpose?
a.ultraviolet spectroscopy
b.visible spectroscopy
c.infrared spectroscopy
d.mass spectroscopy
c.infrared spectroscopy
380
The concentration at which the calibration curve departs from linearity by a specified amount
a. Limit of Blank
b. Dynamic Range
c. Limit of Linearity
d. Limit of quantitation
c. Limit of Linearity
381
What is the path of light through a spectrophotometer?
a. meter, photodetector, filter, sample, light source
b. meter, filter sample, photodetector, light source
c. light source, filter, sample, photodetector, meter
d. light source, sample, filter, photodetector, meter
c. light source, filter, sample, photodetector, meter
382
With a “standard” sample with a known absorbance and concentration and a measured absorbance, it is
easy to determine an unknown concentration of †the same substance by.
a. Beer’s Law
b. Beer and Lambert’s Law
c. Law of mass conservation
d. none of the above
a. Beer’s Law
383
Motion of the mobile phase through the stationary phase.
a. Elution
b. Retention time
c. Eluent
d. Elution time
a. Elution
384
The highest apparent analyte concentration expected to be found when replicates of a blank sample
containing no analyte are tested..
a. Limit of Detection
b. Limit of Blank
c. Limit of Linearity
d. Limit of Quantitation
b. Limit of Blank
385
In spectrophotometric methods, the _________ isolates the specific spectrum line emitted by
the light source through spectral dispersion.
a. monochromator
b. prism
c. sample compartment
d. detector
a. monochromator
386
A phase which sample is dissolved in may be gas, liquid, or supercritical fluid
a. stationary phase
b. reverse phase
c. normal phase
d. mobile phase
d. mobile phase
387
In AAS method, If the sample concentration is too high to permit accurate analysis in linearity
response range, there are alternatives that may help bring the absorbance into the optimum
working range.
a. sample dilution
b. using an alternative wavelength having a lower absorptivity
c. reducing the path length by rotating the burner hand
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
388
A technique for separating mixtures into their components in order to analyze, identify, purify, and/or
quantify the mixture or components.
a. Spectrocopy
b. Chromatography
c. Gravimetry
d. Titrimetry
b. Chromatography
389
A “modified” stationary phase where polar solutes run fast
a. Normal phase
b. Reverse phase
c. mobile phase
d. none of the above
b. Reverse phase
390
A graph showing the detectors response as a function of elution time : band’s shapes, position,
resolution
a. monitor display
b. quality control chart
c. calibration curve
d. chromatogram
d. chromatogram
391
The pH meter glass probe has two electrodes, one is a glass sensor electrode and the
other is a _______electrode.
a. reference
b. anode
c. cathode
d. none of the above
a. reference
392
Conductivity could be determined using the distance between the electrodes and their surface area
using Ohm's law but, for accuracy, a calibration is employed using ____of well-known conductivity.
a. acid solution
b. basic solution
c. electrolytes
d. buffer solution
c. electrolytes
393
The electrical conductivity of water is directly related to the concentration of dissolved ionized
solids in the water or
a. Total Suspended Solids
b. Total Dissolved Solids
c. Volatile Solids
d. Total Solids
b. Total Dissolved Solids
394
At 510 nm, the iron orthophenanthroline complex has a molar absorptivity of 1.2 x 104. What is the concentration of iron (in ppm) in a solution which gives an absorbance of 0.002 in a
1.00-cm path length cell?
a. 7.3 x 10-3 ppm
b.8.3 x 10-3 ppm
c. 9.3 x 10-3 ppm
d.6.3x 10-3 ppm
c. 9.3 x 10-3 ppm
A=elc
e = 1/M-cm (molar absorptivity)
l = cm (path length)
c = M (concentration)
A= unitless (absorbance)
395
The light source used in the visible range to 340-1000 nm.
a.deuterium
b. nerst blower
c. tungsten
d.incandescent
c. tungsten
396
The % T of a solution in a 2.00 cm cell is 50. Calculate the %T of this solution in a 1.0 cm cell
path length.
a. 71
b. 19
c. 27
d. 20
a. 71
397
An air sampling canister was evacuated by the local fire dep’t and brought to the environmental lab
for analysis. It was said that the sample was taken very near the site where a rusty 55-gal drum was found
by some children. A reported unpleasant smell near the site was reported. Results of gravimetric analysis
of the gas in the canister: C – 40%, H- 6.7% , O – 53.33%. What is the liquid in the drum?
a. CH2O
b. CH3OH
c. CH3CH2O
d. none of the above
a. CH2O
398
A student has to measure out 9.40 mL of a liquid and selects a 100 mL graduated cylinder. To
improve the accuracy of the measurement, it would be most
effective to:
a. take the average of multiple measurements using the graduated cylinder.
b. measure the liquid using a 25 mL graduated cylinder instead.
c. estimate the measurement obtained from the graduated cylinder to an additional
significant figure.
d. measure the liquid using a 10 mL graduated pipette instead.
d. measure the liquid using a 10 mL graduated pipette instead.
399
Under the Bronsted concept of acids and bases, a base is
A. a proton donor
B. a proton acceptor
C. a hydroxide donor
D. an electron pair donor
B. a proton acceptor
400
Under the Lewis concept of acids and bases, an acid is
A. a proton donor
B. a proton acceptor
C. An electron pair donor
D. an electron pair acceptor
D. an electron pair acceptor
401
Under the Bronsted concept of acids and bases, an acid is
A. a proton donor
B. a proton acceptor
C. an electron pair donor
D. an electron pair acceptor
A. a proton donor
402
Which of the following is NOT an acid-base conjugate pair?
A. HCN and CN−
B. H2O and OH−
C. H2S and OH−
D. NH3 and NH4+
C. H2S and OH−
403
Predict the products of the following acid-base reaction:HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) →
A. H3O+(aq) + OH−
B. Na+(aq) + Cl−(aq)
C. NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)
D. no reaction takes place
C. NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)
404
What effect will addition of sodium acetate have on the pH of a solution of acetic acid?
A. increase the pH
B. decrease the pH
C. no effect
D. cannot tell from information given
A. increase the pH
405
What effect will addition of excess of HCl have on the pH of a solution of NH3?
A. increase the pH
B. decrease the pH
C. no effect
D. cannot tell from information given
B. decrease the pH
406
A solution that causes only a relatively small change in pH upon addition of small amounts of acids and bases is
A. saturated
B. a salt
C. a buffer
D. unsaturated
C. a buffer
407
Which of the following is buffer?
A. NaCl/NH4Cl
B. NH3/NH4Cl
C. NH3/CH3COOH
D. CH3COOH/NaOH
B. NH3/NH4Cl
408
A buffer solution may be a mixture of
A. a weak acid and its salt
B. a weak base and its salt
C. an excess of a weak acid with a strong base
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
409
The conjugate base of acetic acid is
A. HCOOH
B. NH3
C. CH3COO−
D. OH−
C. CH3COO−
410
The conjugate acid of ammonia is
A. H3O+
B. NH4+
C. HCOOH
D. OH−
B. NH4+
411
Effect produced by an ion, say from a salt, which is the same ion produced by the dissociation of a weak acid or
base is called
A. colloidal effect
B. precipitation effect
C. common ion effect
D. ligand effect
C. common ion effect
412
A principle stating that if stress is applied to a system at equilibrium, the equilibrium is shifted in the
direction that tends to reduce the stress.
A. Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle
B. Le Chatelier’s Principle
C. Hund’s Rule
D. Debye-Huckel Principle
B. Le Chatelier’s Principle
413
Water cannot function as which one of the following?
A. a Bronsted acid
B. a Bronsted base
C. a Lewis acid
D. a Lewis base
C. a Lewis acid
414
HCOOK is a/an
A. acid
B. base
C. salt
D. oxide
C. salt
415
When a strong acid is titrated with a weak base, the pH at the equivalence point is
A. basic
B. acidic
C. neutral
D. none of the above
B. acidic
416
When a strong acid is titrated with a strong base, the pH at the equivalence point is
A. basic
B. acidic
C. neutral
D. none of the above
C. neutral
417
When NH4Cl hydrolyzes, the resulting solution is
A. acidic
B. basic
C. neutral
D. none of the above
A. acidic
418
Acids and Bases Which statement is true?
a. The value of the equilibrium constant increases with the addition of a catalyst
b. A catalyst speeds up both the forward and reverse reaction rates
c. The greater the activation energy, the faster the rate of reaction.
d. A catalyst increases the rate of reaction by decreasing the number of collisions
b. A catalyst speeds up both the forward and reverse reaction rates
419
The lining of the stomach contains cells that secrete a solution of HCl. Which drink would best
alleviate heartburn (excess acid in the stomach)?
a. milk, pH = 6.5
b. wine, pH = 3.8
c. diet soda, pH = 4.3
d. milk of magnesia, pH = 10.5
d. milk of magnesia, pH = 10.5
420
Which equation correctly describes the relationship between Kb and Ka for a conjugate acid/base pair?
a. Kb = Kw Ka
b. Kb = Ka / Kw
c. Kb = Kw / Ka
d. Kb = Ka + Kw
c. Kb = Kw / Ka
421
The following are observed characteristics of gases except for
a. gases can be compressed by application of pressure
b. gases diffuse and spontaneously mix with each other
c. pressure exerted by a gas decreases with increase in temperature
d. there is negligible attraction between particles of an ideal gas
c. pressure exerted by a gas decreases with increase in temperature
422
As altitude increases, air becomes less dense and
a. pressure increases
b. pressure decreases
c. pressure remains the same
d. none of the above
b. pressure decreases
423
Raising the temperature of an enclosed gas
a. slows down the kinetic energy of the gas molecules
b. decreases the momentum of the gas molecules
c. forces the gas particles to collide with the walls harder
d. decreases the volume of the gas
c. forces the gas particles to collide with the walls harder
424
At constant temperature and pressure, the rate of diffusion of a gas varies
a. inversely as its density
b. directly as its molecular mass
c. directly as the square root of its density
d. inversely as the square of its molecular mass
d. inversely as the square of its molecular mass
425
If the temperature of a confined gas is doubled, while the volume is held constant, what will happen to
the pressure?
a. it will be doubled
b. it will be half as large
c. it will be four times as large
d. cannot be determined
a. it will be doubled
426
Molecular oxygen is highly soluble in the blood because
a. the hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four oxygen molecules
b. the solubility of oxygen is increased by the higher temperature of the body
c. pressure is increased inside the body
d. pressure inside the body is different outside of it
a. the hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four oxygen molecules
427
What happens to the volume of a fully inflated balloon when it is taken outside on a cold day?
a. its volume decreases
b. it remains the same
c. its volume increases
d. its volume becomes equal to zero
a. its volume decreases
428
The process by which a gas under pressure escapes from a compartment of a container to another by
passing through a small opening is called
a. effervescence
b. effusion
c. diffusion
d. sublimation
b. effusion
429
As a bubble of air rises from a diver’s helmet to the surface of the water, it continuously expands.
What law is illustrated?
a. Dalton’s law
b. Avogadro’s law
c. Boyle’s law
d. Charles’ law
c. Boyle’s law
430
A fatal condition known as “bends” occurs when a diver ascends too quickly to the surface of the
water. This is due to
a. nitrogen in the blood boiling off rapidly as its partial pressure decreases, forming bubbles
in the blood
b. lack of oxygen in water at depths of more than 15 meters
c. the solubility of oxygen gas is very much decreased at greater depths
d. the solubility of oxygen decreases in the blood as the diver ascends
a. nitrogen in the blood boiling off rapidly as its partial pressure decreases, forming bubbles
in the blood
431
When water is heated in a beaker, bubbles of air form on the side of the glass before the water boils.
This shows that
a. the solubility of gases in water decreases with increasing temperature
b. the solubility of gases in water increases with increasing temperature
c. the solubility of gases in water decreases with decreasing temperature
d. the solubility of gases in water increases with decreasing temperature
a. the solubility of gases in water decreases with increasing temperature
432
Water boils at a lower temperature such as on top of a mountain than at sea level. This illustrates
a. Boyle’s law
b. Charles’ law
c. Graham’s law
d. Avogadro’s law
b. Charles’ law
433
A graphical representation of measuring signal as a function of quantity of analyte.
a. Calibration curve
b. Quality Control Chart
c. Absorbance Chart
d. None of the above
a. Calibration curve
434
When making a solution from a solid reagent, if necessary, dry the solid reagent on a clean, oven
dried, watch glass at 105 ºC for 2 hours and cool it in a desiccator.
a. 121 ºC
b. 105 ºC
c. 80 ºC
d. 118 ºC
b. 105 ºC
435
The number of formula mass of any solute dissolved in 1 liter of solution
a. formality
b. normality
c. molality
d. molarity
a. formality
436
Pre-treatment of solid samples prior analysis.
a. Leaching and extraction of soluble components
b. Filtering of mixtures of solids, liquids and gases to leave particulate (solid) matter
c. Grinding
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
437
Benzene and its derivatives undergo substitution reactions instead of addition reactions because
a. the integrity of the benzene ring and the stable pi-bonding pattern remains intact
b. the hydrogens of benzene are relatively loosely bound
c. the benzene ring is sterically crowded hence only substitution can occur
d. the benzene ring is electron rich
a. the integrity of the benzene ring and the stable pi-bonding pattern remains intact
438
Electrophiles are
a. electron deficient species
b. electron rich species
c. electrically neutral species
d. positively charged ion
a. electron deficient species
439
SN2 means
a. two step nucleophilic substitution mechanism involving both alkyl halide and nucleophile
b. one step nucleophilic substitution mechanism involving both alkyl halide and nucleophile
c. two step nucleophilic substitution mechanism involving only the alkyl halide
d. one step nucleophilic substitution mechanism involving only the nucleophile
b. one step nucleophilic substitution mechanism involving both alkyl halide and nucleophile
440
In the decomposition and dissolution of solids during sample preparation, which of the following
is expensive and often the last resort?
a. Acid treatment using oxidation
b. Fusion technique
c. dissolution using ultrasound & appropriate solvent
d. Simple dissolution
b. Fusion technique
441
It is important to discard containers that are scratched or abraded on their interior surfaces. The
internal surface area of a container, whether used for sample preparation or storage, may cause
loss of
a. matrix
b. analyte
c. weight
d. ash
b. analyte
442
Glass container is not suitable for
a. inorganic trace analyses
b. oil and grease determination
c. microbiological analyses
d. all of the above
a. inorganic trace analyses
443
The HPLC column type in which molecules are separated according to size.
a. Ion exchange
b. size exclusion
c. normal phase
d. reverse phase
b. size exclusion
444
During ignition for ashing, muffle furnaces that go up to 1100oC are used primarily for this and
________ is needed to contain the sample.
a. porcelain crucible
b. evaporating dish
c. beaker
d. all of the above
a. porcelain crucible
445
. A graphical representation of measuring signal as a function of quantity of analyte.
a. Calibration curve
b. Quality Control Chart
c. Absorbance Chart
d. None of the above
a. Calibration curve
446
In AAS method, If the sample concentration is too high to permit accurate analysis in linearity
response range, there are alternatives that may help bring the absorbance into the optimum
working range.
a. sample dilution
b. using an alternative wavelength having a lower absorptivity
c. reducing the path length by rotating the burner hand
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
447
A buffer solution may be a mixture of
a. a weak acid and its salt
b. a weak base and its salt
c. an excess of a weak acid with a strong base
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
448
Which statement is true?
a. The value of the equilibrium constant increases with the addition of a catalyst
b. A catalyst speeds up both the forward and reverse reaction rates
c. The greater the activation energy, the faster the rate of reaction.
d. A catalyst increases the rate of reaction by decreasing the number of collisions
b. A catalyst speeds up both the forward and reverse reaction rates
449
Molecular oxygen is highly soluble in the blood because
a. the hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four oxygen molecules
b. the solubility of oxygen is increased by the higher temperature of the body
c. pressure is increased inside the body
d. pressure inside the body is different outside of it
a. the hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four oxygen molecules
450
When water is heated in a beaker, bubbles of air form on the side of the glass before the water
boils. This shows that
a. the solubility of gases in water decreases with increasing temperature
b. the solubility of gases in water increases with increasing temperature
c. the solubility of gases in water decreases with decreasing temperature
d. the solubility of gases in water increases with decreasing temperature
a. the solubility of gases in water decreases with increasing temperature
451
Method of passing the sample through a metal or plastic mesh of a uniform cross-sectional area to separate particles into uniform sizes.
a. sieving
b. pulverizing
c. macerating
d. milling
a. sieving
452
In handling acid wastes, what type of protective gloves should be used?
a. Cloth gloves
b. Surgical gloves
c. Rubber gloves
d. Disposal plastic gloves
c. Rubber gloves
453
What type of container must be used for acid or alkali wastes?
a. Polyethylene Drums
b. Metal drums
c. Fiber Drums
d. Cloth container
a. Polyethylene Drums
454
A solid waste management practice which refers to the controlled decomposition of organic matter by microorganisms, mainly bacteria and fungi, into a humus-like product.
a. Composting
b. Recycling
c. Bioremediation
d. Reducing
a. Composting
455
A series of reference standards solutions that have known and accurate pH values at different
temperatures used for pH meter calibration.
a. Buffer Solutions
b. QC Solutions
c. pH solutions
d. None of the above
a. Buffer Solutions
456
Law that states the linear relationship between absorbance and concentration of an absorbing
species
a. Beer-Lambert’s Law
b. Charles Law
c. Boyles Law
d. Avogadro’s Law
a. Beer-Lambert’s Law
457
Type of quality-control sample used to evaluate the effects of sample matrices on the
performance of an analytical method
a. Matrix Duplicate
b. Matrix Spike
c. Method Blank
d. Reagent Blank
b. Matrix Spike
458
It is a pure dry solid substance of known chemical composition used in the direct standardization
of solution.
a. primary standard
b. secondary standard
c. analytical standard
d. indicator
a. primary standard
459
It is the closeness of the agreement between the result of a measured value and a true value.
a. Accuracy
b. Precision
c. Mean
d. Error
a. Accuracy
460
Sample preparation technique used prior to instrumental analysis of metals.
a. acid digestion
b. liquid-liquid extraction
c. sieving
d. clean-up
a. acid digestion
461
Which of the following chemicals may be used to neutralize waste containing caustic soda?
a. Potassium Hydroxide
b. Ammonia
c. Hydrochloric Acid
d. Buffer 10 Solution
c. Hydrochloric Acid
462
Which of the following are possible routes of exposure of the hazardous effect of waste?
a. Inhalation
b. Dermal
c. Ingestion
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
463
. According to Revised DAO 04-36, the appropriate waste labels shall include:
a. Volume of Waste
b. Generator ID Number
c. Container Material
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
464
Sampling type that eliminates questions of bias in selection
a. composite
b. stratified
c. systematic
d. random
d. random
465
Reliability of the results decreases with a decrease in the level or concentration of the:
a. matrix
b. analyte
c. reactant
d. product
b. analyte
466
Properties of nitric acid making it the preferred acid for digesting samples for the analysis of
metals.
a. acts as a strong acid
b. as an oxidizing agent
c. does not form insoluble compounds with metals/nonmetals
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
467
Possible sources of contamination during sample preparation include:
a. Reagents (tracers)
b. Glassware/equipment
c. Cross-contamination between high- and low-activity samples
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
468
The size of the sample taken for analysis depends on the concentration of the
a. analyte
b. equipment to be used
c. specific tests
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
469
Locating the adulterated portion of the lot for sampling is an example of
a. random sampling
b. selective sampling
c. composite sampling
d. stratified sampling
b. selective sampling
470
The substance which does the dissolving and must be greater than 50% of the solution.
a. solvent
b. solute
c. mixture
d. solution
a. solvent
471
Requirements of a primary standard.
a. High Purity, 99.9% or better
b. Stability in air
c. Absence of hydrate water
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
472
Used for vacuum filtration using filter paper.
a. gooch crucible
b. Buchner funnel
c. rotary evaporator
d. rubber aspirator
b. Buchner funnel
473
In chromatography, ________ is carried out on glass plates or strips of plastic or metal coated
on one side with a thin layer of adsorbent.
a. HPLC
b. GC
c. Paper Chromatography
d. Thin Layer Chromatography
d. Thin Layer Chromatography
474
Chromatography is used to
a. Separate two or more compounds based on their polarities.
b. Separate two or more compounds based on their masses.
c. Separate two or more compounds based on how strongly they interact with other
d. compounds.
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
475
A technique for separating mixtures into their components in order to analyze, identify, purify,
and/or quantify the mixture or components.
a. Spectroscopy
b. Chromatography
c. Gravimetry
d. Titrimetry
b. Chromatography
476
A graph showing the detectors response as a function of elution time : band’s shapes, position,
resolution
a. monitor display
b. quality control chart
c. calibration curve
d. chromatogram
d. chromatogram
477
Under the Bronsted concept of acids and bases, a base is
a. a proton donor
b. a proton acceptor
c. a hydroxide donor
d. an electron pair donor
b. a proton acceptor
478
Which of the following is not a common method used for purification?
a. Sublimation
b. Crystallisation
c. Electrolysis
d. Chromatography
c. Electrolysis
479
The solution of impure compound and solvent is concentrated to get ____________
a. Unsaturated solution
b. Undersaturated solution
c. Saturated solution
d. Oversaturated solution
c. Saturated solution
480
Insoluble impurities from solution during crystallization are removed by ____________
a. Drying
b. Filtration
c. Heating
d. Cooling
b. Filtration
481
Crystal phases can be interconverted by varying ____________
a. Temperature
b. Pressure
c. Size
d. Viscosity
a. Temperature
482
Which of the following is not separated through distillation process?
a. Acetone and water
b. Aniline and chloroform
c. Impurities in seawater
d. Milk and water
d. Milk and water
483
Column chromatography is based on the principle of _______________ (this question appeared
twice)
a. Ion-exchange
b. Exclusion principle
c. Differential adsorption
d. Absorption
c. Differential adsorption
484
Select the correct statement from the following options.
a. The lesser the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface
b. The greater the polarity of solute, more weakly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface
c. The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface
d. All of the mentioned option
c. The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface
485
The elution power of a solvent is determined by ____________
a. Its overall polarity
b. The polarity of the stationary phase
c. The nature of the sample components
d. All of the mentioned
d. All of the mentioned
486
The principle on which thin layer chromatography is based is that the ____________
a. Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to different degrees
b. Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to same degrees
c. Different compounds are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different degrees
d. Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to same degrees
c. Different compounds are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different degrees
487
Which type of chromatography is used for the structural analysis?
a. Column chromatography
b. Paper chromatography
c. Partition chromatography
d. Affinity chromatography
b. Paper chromatography
488
Affinity chromatography is used for the analysis and isolation of ____________
a. Insoluble starch substances
b. Enzyme tyrosinase
c. Antibodies bound with a covalently-attached antigen on cellulose column
d. All of the mentioned
d. All of the mentioned
489
Which of the following is not an application of high performance liquid chromatography?
a. Analysis of proteins, drugs and explosives
b. Separation of pharmaceutical drugs
c. Elimination of undesirable substances from blood
d. Separation of lipids, fatty acids and steroids
c. Elimination of undesirable substances from blood
490
Which of the following is the application of ion exchange chromatography?
a. The softening of hard water
b. The demineralisation of water
c. The separation and determination of anions
d. All of the mentioned
d. All of the mentioned
491
The quantitative analysis is done using ____________
a. Ion exchange chromatography
b. Thin layer chromatography
c. Gas chromatography
d. Liquid chromatography
c. Gas chromatography
492
The temperature at which solid and liquid coexist in equilibrium is called ____________
a. Melting point of liquid
b. Freezing point of liquid
c. Freezing point of solid
d. All of the mentioned
b. Freezing point of liquid
493
The analysis of electromagnetic radiation scattered, absorbed or emitted by the molecule is called
__________
a. Kaleidoscopy
b. Astronomy
c. Spectroscopy
d. Anatomy
c. Spectroscopy
494
The different types of energies associated with a molecule are __________
a. Electronic energy
b. Vibrational energy
c. Rotational energy
d. All of the mentioned
d. All of the mentioned
495
Select the correct statement from the following option.
a. Spectroscopic methods require less time and more amount of sample than classical methods
b. Spectroscopic methods require more time and more amount of sample than classical methods
c. Spectroscopic methods require less time and less amount of sample than classical methods
d. Spectroscopic methods require more time and less amount of sample than classical methods
c. Spectroscopic methods require less time and less amount of sample than classical methods
496
Which of the following is not in the infrared spectrum?
a. HCl
b. H2O
c. CO2
d. CH4
d. CH4
497
The components of the mixture in column chromatography are eluted in order of
a. increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio.
b. increasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio.
c. decreasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio.
d. decreasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio.
a. increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio.
498
Which equipment must be used in the detection of Pb2+ in blood?
a. AAS
b. NMR Spectrometer
c. IR Spectrometer
d. Mass Spectrometer
a. AAS
499
An industrial source of alcohol.
a. Coal
b. Fats
c. Sugar
d. Ether
c. Sugar
500
What is the most common isotope of hydrogen?
a. H has only one isotope
b. Protium
c. Deuterium
d. Tritium
b. Protium
