Areas to focus on.. Flashcards
(143 cards)
1
Q
What is the normal heart rate for an adult?
A
60-100
2
Q
What is the normal heart rate for children?
A
90-100
3
Q
What is the normal heart rate for infants?
A
80-120
4
Q
What is the normal blood pressure for adults?
A
110-140 (systolic)
60-80 (diastolic)
5
Q
What is the normal blood pressure for children?
A
70-112 (systolic)
26-70 (diastolic)
6
Q
What is the normal blood pressure for infants?
A
60-105 (systolic)
22-60 (diastolic)
7
Q
What is the unit of exposure:
A
1 R = 2.58 x 10^-4 coulomb/Kg
8
Q
Rank dosimeters from most sensitive to least:
A
Pocket
OSL
TLD
Film badge
9
Q
Advantages of film badges
A
Effective for radiation monitoring over an extended period of time
Provide a permanent record
10
Q
What is the functional component in a TLD?
A
Lithium fluoride
11
Q
What is used to read TLDs?
A
Heat
12
Q
Advantages of TLDs?
A
Can monitor extended periods of time
13
Q
Disadvantges of TLDs?
A
Once the chip is heated, it is destroyed; no permanent record
14
Q
What type of dosimeter provides an immediate reading?
A
15
Q
Advantages of pocket dosimeters?
A
Good for short term monitoring; may be recharged and reused
16
Q
Disadvantages of pocket dosimeters?
A
Prone to inaccurate readings; no permanent record
17
Q
What is the functional component of an OSL?
A
Aluminium oxide
18
Q
What is used to read an OSL?
A
Laser light
19
Q
What are filters made of in OSLs?
A
Aluminum, tin, and copper
20
Q
What is the positioning for the Homblad method?
A
Patient kneeling on all fours
Lower leg parallel to IR
Femur is angled 70 degrees from IR
21
Q
What is the positioning for the Camp-Coventry method?
A
Patient is prone
Femur parallel with IR
Lower leg forms a 40 degree angle with IR
CR is angled to match lower leg
22
Q
What is the positioning for the Beclare method?
A
Patient supine
Leg is flexed 30 degrees
CR is angled to match lower leg
23
Q
What is the positioning for the Merchant view?
A
Patient seated with knees flexed 45 degrees
Femurs paralled to table
IR is perp to tib/fib
CR is angled 30 degrees caudal
24
Q
What is the positioning for the Settegast view?
A
Patient is prone
Knee is flexed to place patella perp to IR
CR is perp to patellofemoral joint space
25
Examples of gliding joints:
Intermetacarpal
Carpometacarpal
Intercarpal
26
Examples of condyloid joints:
2nd - 5th metacarpophalangeal
27
What type of movements are seen in condyloid joints?
Flexion
Extension
Abduction
Adduction
Circumduction
28
How are saddle joints constructed?
One surface of the joint forming a concave recess and the other surface bring convex
29
Examples of saddle joints:
1st carpometacarpal joint and the 1st metacarpophalangeal joint
30
What type of movements are seen in ball and socket?
Flexion
Extension
Abduction
Adduction
Circumduction
Medial and lateral rotiation
31
A dose of .25 Gy to the fetus during the early part of the first trimester of pregnancy can potentially cause:
Skeletal abnormalities
32
What post-processing technique should be used when the signal average incldues few pixels in the neighborhood. Fine details in an image are shown with some blur.
Edge enhancement
33
What processing technique is responsible for correcting the brightness and contrast of an image, regardless of technique used?
Rescaling
34
Which of the following cells do not undergo cell division, are mature bone cells, and maintain the metabolism of bone tissue?
Osteoblasts
Chondroblasts
Osteocytes
Osteoclasts
Osteocytes
35
Which of the following conditions presents as reduced bone mass?
Osteopenia
Osteomyelitis
Osteoarthritis
Osteomalacia
Osteopenia
36
Why is lithium fluoride the most widely used material for TLD?
It can measure doses as low as 50 uGy
37
Technologists must be able to schedule medical imaging exams, view orders, track patients, and store imaging reports. Which imaging informatics system is responsible for these tasks?
RIS
38
When performing radiographic exams on a patient after pacemaker placement, the radiographer should avoid abducting or elevating the left arm for how many hours after the pacemaker placement procedure?
24
39
When positioning for the lateral upper airway projection, where should the CR enter if the area of interest is the distal larynx and trachea?
T1-2
40
Which of the following factors can affect patient ESE (entrance skin exposure)?
1. Efficiency of x-ray production
2. Technical factors
3. OID
4. SID
1,2,3,4
41
In scoliosis imaging, breast tissue dose for PA imaging is approximately ____ of the dose for AP imaging
1%
42
Which of the following projections does not demonstrate the olecranon process free of superimposition?
A Acute flexion elbow projection for the distal humerus
B Lateral elbow
C Acute flexion of the elbow for the proximal forearm
D Radial head laterals of the elbow
C
43
How much barium would be required for an 8-month-old patient undergoing a upper GI series?
A 1-2 oz
B 2-4 oz
C 5-6 oz
D 6-8 oz
B
44
What is the LD 50/30 for adult humans without medical support?
A 1-2 Gyt
B 2-3 Gyt
C 3-4 Gyt
D 4-5 Gyt
C
45
What form of filtering amplifies high frequencies to increase contrast of large structures?
Edge enhancement
46
All of the following terms can be defined as the removal of the most extreme shades from the grayscale of an image except
A Tissue equalization
B Contrast equalization
C Smoothing
D Dynamic range compression (DCR)
C
47
Which of the following projections demonstrates the pisiform free of superimposition?
1. AP oblique of the wrist
2. Carpal tunnel projection of the wrist
3. Carpal bridge projection of the wrist
1 and 2
48
What may occur if a high-pass filtering function is used on an image with high contrast?
A Excess noise
B Decreased noise
C Long-scale contrast
D Increase in overall grays
A
49
Centering for the AP projection of the upper airway is at the level of
A C3-4
B C5-6
C C7-T1
D T1-2
T1-2
50
What is the percentage of occupational exposure for personnel resulting from fluoroscopy and mobile imaging?
A 25%
B 50%
C 80%
D 95%
D
51
What advantages do film badges present for personnel monitoring?
1. They can be worn for up to 3 months
2. Inexpensive for production and utilization
3. Simple processing methods
A
1 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2, and 3
2 and 3
52
What disadvantages come with the use of TLD personnel monitoring?
1. Loss of information when exposed to heat and moisture
2. Cost compared to film badges when read monthly
3. Decreased sensitivity to film badges
2
53
Compared to the trunk, the collar region is exposed to radiation levels
A
5 times greater
B
10 times less
C
20 times greater
D
50 times less
C
54
Which of the following abdomen projections will best demonstrate an umbilical hernia?
A AP supine
B AP upright
C Lateral decubitus
D Dorsal decubitus
Dorsal decub
55
Which of the following is an advantage of crossed grids?
A There is low risk of grid cutoff
B They are easily utilized in exams requiring tube angulations
C They have a higher contrast improvement factor than parallel grids
D They require lower patient dose
C
56
To visualize the sesamoid bones of the toes free of superimposition, the tangential projection requires the foot to be dorsiflexed how many degrees from vertical?
15-20
57
Which type of seizure is sometimes preceded by an aura?
A
Focal seizure
B
Petite mal seizure
C
Absence seizure
D
Tonic-clonic seizure
D
58
Glandular dose is what percentage of the entrance skin exposure (ESE)?
A 5%
B 10%
C 15%
D 20%
C
59
What is the correct pixel size for a 17-inch FOV and a matrix size of 1024?
A
0.016 mm
B
0.42 mm
C
2.4 mm
D
60 mm
B
60
Which of the following responses is most likely to occur if the fetus is exposed to at least 250 mGy of radiation during the first two weeks of the first trimester?
A Malignant disease in childhood
B Skeletal deformities
C Embryo resorption
D Neurologic deficiencies
C
61
Which quality control test confirms that when exposure time is adjusted to produce the same mAs at different mA stations, the same radiation intensity will be produced?
A Reproducibility
B Positive Beam Limitation (PBL)
C Linearity
D Exposure timer
C
62
Which two of the following are considered methods of classification for bacteria?
Oxygen requirement
Capsid structure
Mode of replication
Shape
Oxygen requirement
Shape
63
What precautions should be used for a patient with a known case of varicella?
Contact and airborne
64
What is the typical dosage of media contrast for a pediatric patient?
1.5-2.0 mL/kg
65
Temporary sterility can occur at what dose?
2000 mGy
66
Low energy photons will most likely result in what type of interaction in the body?
Photoelectric
67
What is the function of ABC in a fluoroscopic system?
Maintain a fixed exposure rate to the image intensifier
68
How far posterior is the sacrum in relation to ASIS?
3.5"
69
Increasing diagnostic filtration from 2.5" to 3.5" will have what affect on beam intensity?
Decrease
70
What is the primary purpose of performing a daily quality control check on a digitial radiography system?
To check the system's ability to reproduce image contrast
71
The central portion of the output phosphor posseses the greatest:
Spatial resolution
72
How often should AEC be tested?
Monthly
73
The burden of proof for medical negligence rests with:
Plaintiff
74
What is the significance of performing a reproducibility test?
To ensure uniform radiation output across exposures
75
What is the x-axis of a histogram?
Potential exposure values from low to high
76
What is the y-axis of a histogram?
Frequency or total number of value
77
When should rescaling be used?
Under/over exposure
78
What is rescaling?
Processes through which the computer modifies the histogram and makes it look like the computer thinks it should look
79
What is LUT?
Application of a mathematical formula to process the right amount of brightness and contrast
80
How is Air Kerma measued?
Gray or J/kg
81
What does air kerma measure?
Energy in the air
82
How is expoure measued?
C/kg
83
What does exposure measure?
Number of ionizations in the air
84
1 c = how many ioniziations?
6.3x10^18
85
What does intensity represent? (kVp or mAs)
mAs
86
How effective is .25mm lead for 50/75/100kVp
97% 66% 51%
87
How effective is .5mm lead for 50/75/100 kVp
99.9% 88% 75%
88
What is an uncontrolled area?
Public areas. Under 20 uSv/week
89
What is a controlled area?
Tech area. 1mSv/week
90
What does workload factor measure?
mA minutes per week
91
What does the use factor measure?
Amount of time beam is on
92
What happens in pre-implantiation phase when exposed to .05-.15 Gy?
Embryonic death
93
What happens during early organogensis when exposed to radiation?
Congential abnormalities
94
What happens during late organogensis when exposed to radiation?
Neonatal death
95
Exposure of an embryo or fetus to radiation from 10 days to 6 weeks of development can result in:
Congenital abnormalities
96
For a lateral projection of the cranium, the ___ line is perp to the front edge of the IR
IOML
96
What is the best angle to demonstrate the lumbosacral junction in the AP position?
30-35 cephalic
97
What joint space is well visualized in the medial oblique projection of the ankle?
Tibiofibular
98
What is likely to occur if 250 mGy is delivered to a recently fertilized ovum
Spontaneous abortion
99
What is a single contrast BE used for?
Anatomy and muscle contraction
100
What is a double contrast BE used for?
Mucosal lining and intraluminal lesions or masses
101
Where is the attachment for the patellar ligament?
Tibial tuberosity
102
Where is the attachment for the meniscus and cruciate ligaments?
Intercondylar eminence
103
Where is the CR for AP toes? What is the angle?
MTP
10-15 degrees towards heel
104
Where is the CR for lateral toes.. 1st digit? 2-5 digits?
IP joint
PIP joint
105
What anatomy is demonstrated in a blowout flacture?
Orbital floor and inferior rectus muscle
106
What level do carotid arteries bifurcate?
C4 - laryngopharynx
107
What is demonstrated in acute flexion projection for the elbow?
CR perp to IR (humerus) - olecranon process in process
CR perp to forearm - prox. ulna and radius
108
What is demonstated in Judet view.. downside and upside?
Downside - anterior rim of acetabulum, posterior ilioischial column, iliac wing
Upside - posterior rim of acetabulum, anterior iliopubic column, obturator foramen
109
What is demonstrated in lateral oblique elbow?
Lateral epicondyle and capitulum in profile
110
What is demonstrated in medial oblique elbow?
Coronoid process in profile
111
What is demonstrated in lateral elbow?
Olecranon process in profile
112
What is demonstrated in AP ankle?
Medial joint open, lateral closed
113
What is demonstrated in mortise?
All open joint spaces
114
What is demonstrated in oblique ankle?
Tib/fib joint open, Lat malleolus and talus open
115
What is demonstrated in lateral ankle?
Tibotalar joint open
116
Personal radiation monitor reports must include which of the following information?
1. Dose equivalents for report period
2. Dosimeter type
3. Radiation quality
1,2,3
117
What is (are) the major effect(s) of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) irradiation?
1. Malignant disease
2. Chromosome aberration
3. Cell death
1,2,3
118
How do fractionation and protraction affect radiation dose effects?
1. They reduce the effect of radiation exposure.
2. They permit cellular repair.
3. They allow tissue recovery.
1,2,3
119
Which of the following radiation exposure responses exhibit a nonlinear threshold dose-response relationship?
1. Skin erythema
2. Hematologic depression
3. Lethality
1,2,3
120
Moving the image intensifier closer to the patient during traditional fluoroscopy
1. decreases the SID
2. decreases patient dose
3. improves image quality
1,2,3
121
Which of the following dose-response curve characteristics represent genetic and some somatic responses to radiation?
1. Linear
2. Nonthreshold
3. Sigmoidal
1,3
122
What is the minimum does that temporary epilation can occur?
2 Gy
123
What % of the central axis beam intensity is emitted from the anode side of the tube?
75%
124
What % of the central axis beam intensity is emitted from the cathode side of the tube?
120%
125
The device used to test the accuracy of the x-ray timer is the
A. densitometer
B. sensitometer
C. penetrometer
D. spinning top
D
126
How does mAs need to be adjusted when going from single phase to 3 phase, 6 pulse?
2/3
127
How does mAs need to be adjusted when going from single phase to 3 phase, 12 pulse?
1/2
128
Backscatter on a digital image can cause an artifact called a
A. Phantom image artifact
B. Moiré artifact
C. Static artifact
D. Grid cutoff artifact
A
129
An autoclave provides which method of pathogenic removal?
A Surgical asepsis
B Microbial dilution
C Disinfection
D Chemical sterilization
A
130
Disinfecting agents that function to stop bacterial growth are classified as
A bactericidal
B bacteriostatic
C antiseptics
D sterilizers
B
131
Droplet precautions protect against all of the following EXCEPT
A tuberculosis
B whooping cough
C bacterial meningitis
D influenza
A
132
What is a levin catheter used for?
NG tube
133
What should a patient be given if they are experiencing insulin shock? Diabetic coma?
Shock - sugar
Coma - insulin
134
How does higher frequency generator affect patient dose?
Higher quality x-rays = less patient dose
135
What is the contrast in a wide histogram?
Low contrast - wide range of grays
136
What is the contrast in a narrow histogram?
High contrast
137
What is the angle for the bladder shot in an IVU?
10-15 degrees caudal
138
How does the anode angle affect the effective focal spot?
The smaller the angle, the smaller the effective focal spot
139
What is the maximum entrance absorbed dose limit for general purpose intensified fluoroscopic units?
88 mGy per minute
140
What type of window width procudes low images contrast? (wide or narrow)
Wider window width
141
How does PSP plate size affect spatial resolution?
Increasing size, decreases resolution
142
Relationship of spatial resolution and rate of sampling frequency
The faster the rate, the better the spatial resolution
