Patient Interaction and Management Flashcards

(137 cards)

1
Q

When is written consent needed?

A

For invasive procedures

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2
Q

Who should HIPAA violations be reported to?

A

ARRT ethics committee

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3
Q

What does HIPAA stand for?

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

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4
Q

Who is responsible for determining the patient’s chief complaint or single most important issue?

A

Physician

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5
Q

What is the sequence for scheduling multilpe diagnostic studies?

A
  1. Not requiring contrast
  2. Lab studies for iodine uptake (thyroid)
  3. Radiographic exams for urinary tract
  4. Radiographic exams for biliary tract
  5. Lower GI series
  6. Upper GI series
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6
Q

Who is legally responsible for the care and safety of the patient?

A

Medical doctor

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7
Q

The threat of touching in an injurious manner

A

Assault

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8
Q

An unlawful touching of a person without consent

A

Battery

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9
Q

When the confidentiality of patient information is not maintained

A

Invasion of privacy

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10
Q

An unjustifiable detention of a person against their will

A

False imprisonment

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11
Q

Is the use of restraints considered false imprisonment?

A

Not when there is a question about patient’s safety. Must be ordered by a physician

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12
Q

Neglect or omission of reasonable care and caution

A

Negligence

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13
Q

An act of negligence in providing reasonable care and caution is defined as:

A

Professional negligence or malpractice

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14
Q

Defamation by written or printed words

A

Libel

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15
Q

Defamation by spoken words

A

Slander

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16
Q

An intentional or unintentional act resulting in injury to a patient

A

Tort

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17
Q

The doing of goodness, kindness or charity, including all actions to benefit others

A

Beneficence

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18
Q

What does “Respondeat superior” mean?

A

“Let the master answer”
An employer can be held liable for the actions of its employees

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19
Q

What does “Res Ispa Loquitur” mean?

A

“The thing speaks for itself”
Requires the defendant to prove his/her innocence

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20
Q

A sensitivity to the needs of others that allows you to meet those needs in a constructive manner

A

Empathy

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21
Q

The 5-step grieving process was formulated by:

A

Dr. Elisabeth Kubler-Ross

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22
Q

What are the 5 steps of grieving:

A

Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance

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23
Q

Is it better to push or pull a heavy object?

A

Push

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24
Q

Is it better to push or pull a patient onto a table?

A

Pull

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25
What type of catheter is used for the diagnosis of right and left ventricular failure and pulmonary disorders?
Pulmonary Artery Catheter (Swan-Ganz)
26
Where is the tip of the Swan-Ganz catheter placed?
Pulmonary artery
27
What % of oxygen is delivered using a nasal cannula?
21-60%
28
What is the flow of oxygen when using a nasal cannula?
1-6L/min
29
What level should the IV solution bag be placed?
18-24" above the vein
30
What is used to measure blood pressure
Sphygmomanometer
31
What is used for auscultation or listening to the heart, lungs, or abdominal sounds
Stethoscope
32
What is the normal pulse for adults?
60-100 beats per minute
33
What is the normal pulse for children?
90-100 beats per minute
34
What is the normal pulse for infants?
80-120 beats per minute
35
If a patient is conscious, what artery do you check for a pulse?
Radial
36
If a patient is unconscious, where do you check for a pulse?
Carotid artery
37
What artery is located in the skull that can be used to check for a pulse?
Temporal artery
38
What artery is located in the neck that can be used to check for a pulse?
Carotid artery
39
What artery is located in the upper extremity that can be used to check for a pulse?
Radial artery
40
What artery is located in the groin that can be used to check for a pulse?
Femoral artery
41
What artery is located in the lower extremity that can be used to check for a pulse?
Dorsal pedis artery
42
What is tachycardia?
Fast heart rate - higher than 100 beats per minute
43
What is bradycardia?
Slow heart rate - less than 60 beats per minute
44
Which blood pressure represents the pressure created during contraction of the left ventricle?
Systolic
45
Which blood pressure represents the pressure within the vascular system with the heart at rest?
Diastolic
46
What is hypertension?
High arterial blood pressure Above 140 systolic Above 90 diastolic
47
What is hypotension?
Low arterial blood pressure Below 95 systolic Below 60 diastolic
48
What is a normal blood pressure for adults?
110-140/60-80
49
What is a normal blood pressure for children?
70-112/26-70
50
What is normal blood pressure for infants?
60-105/22-60
51
What is the normal respiratory rate for adults?
12-20 per minute
52
What is the normal respiratory rate for children?
30-60 per minute
53
What is dyspnea? Apnea?
Difficult breathing Not breathing
54
What is a Bennett's fracture?
Fracture that happens at the base of the first metacarpal
55
What is an avulsion?
Bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament
56
What is a smith's fracture?
Fracture of distal radius - hand will be more forward than forearm
57
What is a colles fracture?
Fracture of the distal radius - hand will be behind the forearm
58
What medication is used in the case of anaphylactic shock?
Epinephrine
59
What type of bag is used in CPR for ventilation
Ambu bag
60
How far down does ET tube go?
2" above carina
61
Which side of the bronchus is more vertical?
Right side
62
What is the flow of blood through the heart?
Right atrium receives oxygen-poor blood from IVC and SVC Flows through tricuspid valve into right ventricle Flows through pulmonary valve into pulmonary artery to the lungs After receiving oxygen, blood returns to left atrium via the pulmonary veins Flows through the biscupid valve into the left ventricle and is pumped into the aorta
63
What is the CPR compression depth for adults?
At least 2"
64
What is the CPR compression depth for a child (1-8yr)
At least 1/3 of chest diameter or about 2"
65
What is the CPR compression depth for an infant?
At least 1/3 of chest diameter or about 1.5"
66
What is the compression rate for CPR?
100-120/min
67
What is the CPR breathing rate for an adult?
10-12 breaths/min or every 5-6 seconds
68
What is the CPR breathing rate for a child (1-8 yr)
Every 2-3 seconds
69
What is the CPR breathing rate for an infant?
Every 2-3 seconds
70
What is the compression to ventilation ratio for adults?
30:2
71
What is the compression to ventilation ratio for a child and infants?
30:2 for one rescuer 15:2 for two rescuers
72
Where should you check for a pulse in a child (1-8 yr)?
Cartoid or femoral
73
Where should you check for a pulse in an infant?
Brachial
74
What does RACE-PASS stand for in the event of a fire?
Rescue Alarm Contain Extinguish Pull Aim Squeeze Sweep
75
What technique deals with reducing the probability of infectious organisms being transmitted to a susceptible individual?
Medical asepsis
76
What technique is the complete removal of all organisms and their spores from equipment used to perform patient care or procedures
Surgical asepsis
77
Technique used for procedures that involve catheterization of the bladder, tracheostomy care, dressing changes, and penetration of the skin
Sterile
78
Microorganism capable of producing disease
Pathogens
79
An inanimate object that has made contact with an infectious organism (food, water, gloves, equipment)
Fomites
80
Transmission of an infectious agent that is indirect by means of a fomite that touches a person's body or is ingested
Vehicle
81
Typically an arthropod (mosquito, tick, flea)
Vector
82
Hospital inquired infection
Nosocomial infection
83
Physician caused the infection
Iatrogenic infection
84
Unknown infection cause
Idiopathic infection
85
What is the chain of infection?
Infectious agent Reservoir Portal of exit Mode of transmission Portal of entry Susceptible host
86
Aseptic technique is designed to prevent that occurance of:
Nosocomial infections
87
How many seconds should you wash your hands according to the CDC?
20 seconds
87
When scrubbing for a sterile procedure, the hand washing time requirement is
5 minutes
88
What is the ratio of bleach to water when mixed together as a disinfectant?
1:10
89
What are precautions used for contact based transmissions?
Gloves, gown, and restricted patient placement
90
What are precautions used for droplet based transmissions?
Particulate mask and restricated patient placement
91
What are precautions used for airborne transmissions?
Respiratory protection and negative ventilation
92
When is reverse isolation (neutropenic precautions) used?
HIV positive patients, chemotherapy and burn patients
93
When are strict precautions used?
When a patient has a disease that is transported through airborne or contact routes
94
What are the roles for clean tech/dirty tech?
Clean tech manages the equipment and IR Dirty tech contacts the patient and the linens
95
How often should a patient's blood pressure be measured when giving contrast through an IV?
Before, frequent intervals, and prior to patient leaving
96
What is a bolus injection (IV push)?
Large volume of contrast or drug is rapidly administered into an exisiting IV line
97
What is an IV drip?
Contrast administered by gravity
98
What is the difference between ampule and vial?
Ampule - single dose of medication Vial - multiple doses
99
What is the most common contrast agent in radiology?
Air
100
Negative contrast results in a/an __________ in radiographic density of the image of the parts filled with negative contrast
Increase
101
Positive contrast results in a/an __________ in radiographic density of the image of the parts filled with negative contrast
Decrease
102
What is viscosity?
Related to the thickness of the contrast
103
What is the kVp for single contrast studies?
100-125
104
What is the kVp for double contrast studies?
90-100
105
Normal Creatinine values
.7-1.3 mg/dL
106
Normal BUN values
8-25 mg/dL
107
Normal GFR rate
90-120 mL/min
108
What is the estimated GFR used for?
Best test to measure kidney function and determine the stage of kidney disease
109
How is the estimated GFR caclulated?
Resultes from creatinine test, body size, age, and gender
110
A general term used to describe a failure of circulation in which blood pressure is inadequate to support oxygen perfusion of vital tissues and is unable to remove the by-products of metabolism
Shock
111
Type of shock that results from external hemorrhage, lacerations, or plasma loss due to burns
Hypovolemic shock
112
Type of shock that results from massive infection
Septic
113
Type of shock that results from head or spinal trauma resulting in a failure of arterial resistance
Neurogenic shock
114
Type of shock that results from cardiac failure
Cardiogenic
115
Type of shock that results from being injected with a foreign protein, bee sting, or iodinated media
Anaphylaxis (allergic)
116
Symptoms of anaphylaxis
Increase in pulse rate Hypotension Itching, flushing, SOB Hives (urticartia)
117
Which reactions are mild/moderate/severe? Extravasation Vasovagal response Very low blood pressure Laryngeal edema Tachycardia Excessive vommitting
Extravasation - mild Vasovagal response - mild Very low blood pressure - severse Laryngeal edema - severe Tachycardia - moderate Excessive vommitting - moderate
118
When should Benedryl be used?
Allergic reaction
119
When should Decadron be used?
Allergic reaction
120
When should Dilantin be used?
Seizures
121
When should Lasix be used?
Edema
122
When should Epinephrine be used?
Cardiac arrest, anaphylaxis
123
When should Cathartics be used?
Laxatives
124
When should Nitroglycerine be used?
Angina (chest pain)
125
When should Glucagon be used?
Spasmatic colon
126
When should Heparin/Warfarin/Coumdin be used?
Anticoagulant
127
When should Insulin/Metformin/Glucophage be used?
Hyperglycemia
128
What position should you put a patinet in for orthostatic hypotension?
Trendelenburg
129
What is hyperglycemia? What are the symptoms?
High blood sugar Flushed, dry skin, fruity smelling breath, exceccive thirst and urination
130
What is hypoglycemia? What are the symptoms?
Low blood sugar Sweaty, clammy, cold skin, nervousness, blurred vision
131
What is the technologist's primary resonsibility if a patient is having a seizure?
Keep the patient safe
132
How to determine if bleeding is from artery or vein?
Artery - strong pulsating volume of blood exisiting Vein - Lower volume with less forcful pulsing
133
How to stop arterial bleeding?
Apply compression directly to the site or proximally
134
How to stop venous bleeding?
Apply compression directly to the site or distally
135
In CR, the response of the phosphor layer when interacting with x-ray photons is to release
Light photons
136
List 3 patient populations that should be identified as high priority patients
1. Emergency 2. Fasting 3. Pediatric and geriatric