Assessment Flashcards
1
Q
What age range is the ORS used for?
A
13 - adult
2
Q
What 3 areas of functioning does the ORS assess?
A
1) Personal/symptom distress
2) Interpersonal wellbeing
3) Social role
4) Overall wellbeing
3
Q
What age range is the CORS used for?
A
6-12
4
Q
What age range is the YCORS used for?
A
Children 5 or under
5
Q
What ORS/CORS measure does a carer use for a person 13 and over?
A
ORS
6
Q
What ORS/CORS measure does a carer use for a person 12 and under?
A
CORS
7
Q
What are the 4 CORS items?
A
1) Me
2) Family
3) School
4) Everything
8
Q
What are the ORS cut off scores?
A
13-17 year olds = 28
18 and over = 25
9
Q
What are the CORS cut off scores?
A
Child self-reporting = 32
Carer reporting on child = 28
10
Q
What is the reliable change index on the ORS?
A
Change that exceeds the RCI (5 points) and crosses cut off scores can be considered a reliable change
11
Q
What is the ORS good for?
A
1) Collaborative formulations
2) Exploring differences in perception (eg between parent and child)
3) Identifying shared goals
12
Q
What are the three purposes of the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ9)?
A
1) Diagnostic tool
2) Severity measure of depression
3) Measurement of treatment progress
13
Q
What are the total score ranges on the PHQ9?
A
0-27
14
Q
How do you diagnose major depression using the PHQ9?
A
At least 5 of the 9 depressive symptoms have been present at least “more than half of the days” AND one symptoms of anhedonia or depressed mood
15
Q
What are the cutpoints on the PHQ9, GAD7 and PHQ15 for depressive, anxiety and somatic symptoms?
A
5-9 = mild 10-14 = moderate 15-19 = moderately severe 20+ = severe
16
Q
What age range is the BDI used for?
A
13-80
17
Q
What are the cut off scores on the BDI-II?
A
0-13 = minimal depressive symptoms 14-19 = mild depression 20-28 = moderate depression 29-63 = severe depression
18
Q
What is construct validity?
A
Construct validity is the extent to which the measurements used actually test the hypothesis or theory they are measuring.
19
Q
What is content validity?
A
The extent to which items of a test are representative of that which is to be measured
20
Q
What is concurrent validity?
A
The extent to which a test concurs with existing standards
21
Q
What is convergent validity?
A
The degree to which two measures of constructs, that should be related, are related
22
Q
What are the limitations of the BDI?
A
- Scores can be exaggerated or minimised
- Social expectations can elicit a different response compared to anonymous
- No Aus norms
23
Q
What is the Global Assessment of Functioning (GAF)?
A
Numerical scale (1-100) to rate subjectively the social, occupational and psychological functioning of adults
24
Q
What is discriminant validity?
A
Tests whether concepts or measurements that are not supposed to be related are actually unrelated.
25
What do GAF items 81-90 mean?
Absent or minimal symptoms and good functioning in all areas, socially effective
26
What do GAF items 51-60 mean?
Moderate symptoms OR moderate difficulty in functioning.
27
What do GAF items 21-30 mean?
Behaviour is considerably influenced by delusions/hallucinations OR serious impairment in communication or judgment.
28
What do GAF items 11-20 mean?
Some danger of hurting self or others OR fails to maintain personal hygiene OR gross impairment in communication.
29
What do GAF items 1-10 mean?
Persistent danger of severely hurting self or others OR inability to maintain personal hygiene OR serious suicidal act.
30
What are the limitations of the GAF (3 things)?
1) Lack of standardisation of scoring; no standardised guidelines exist
2) Integrates 3 dimensions of functioning into 1 score
3) Validity better for severity of symptoms than impairment
31
What is the SOFAS?
Social and occupational functioning assessment scale - measures social and occupational functioning
32
What is the WHODAS2?
Replaced the GAF in the DSM5; it is a survey and checkbox that is less likely to be subjective. Examines disability due to health/mental conditions.
33
What age is the WHODAS2 used for?
18 and over
34
What are the domains of the WHODAS2 (7 things)?
Cognition: understanding and communicating
Mobility: getting around
Self-care: hygiene, dressing, eating & staying alone
Getting along with people
Life activities: household responsibilities, leisure
Life activities: school/work
Participation in society: joining in community activities
35
What is the 'simple' option for scoring the WHODAS?
Scores are summed across domains to provide a single score.
36
What is the 'complex' option for scoring the WHODAS?
Item-response-theory-based scoring. Weights items and levels of severity differently. Converts domain scores to a metric rating (0-100).
37
What are the limitations of the WHODAS?
1) May not be reliable in detecting decreases in functioning in premorbidly high functioning people
2) Simple score not more meaningful than GAF score
3) Self-report measure
38
What is the STAI?
State-Trait Anxiety Inventory - requires 6th grade reading level
39
What ages is the STAIC used for?
9-12
40
What are the two scales on the STAI?
S (state anxiety) - how client feels right now (or at a particular time)
T (trait anxiety) - how client generally feels
41
What is state anxiety?
Fear, nervousness, discomfort, and the arousal of the autonomic nervous system induced temporarily
42
What is trait anxiety?
A relatively enduring disposition to feel stress, worry, and discomfort
43
What are the score ranges for the STAI?
Scores range from 20 to 80, with higher scores suggesting greater levels of anxiety.
44
What is the HADS?
Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale - screening tool of anxiety and depression in people with physical health problems. Avoids use of aspects of conditions that are also common somatic symptoms of illness (eg fatigue).
45
What is score range for entire HADS scale?
0-42
46
What is reliability?
Consistency in measuring a construct.
47
What is validity?
How well the test measures what it intends to measure.
48
What is the NEO-PI-3?
240 item self-report or observer-rater inventory that measures normal personality traits.
49
What is the age range for the NEO?
12 to adulthood
50
What is internal consistency reliability?
How well the items on a scale 'hang together' in measuring the same construct.
51
What is the rule of thumb for Cronbach's alpha scores?
> 0.9 = excellent
0. 9-0.8 = good
0. 8-0.7 = acceptable
52
What is test-retest reliability?
The degree to which test results are consistent over time
53
What are the 5 domain scales on the NEO?
Neuroticism, openness, agreeableness, conscientiousness, extraversion
54
What is the average range of NEO T-scores?
T=45-55
55
What are the very high, high, very low and low ranges of NEO T-scores?
Very high=66+
High=56-65
Low=35-44
Very low=34 and lower
56
What is the NEO-FFI-3?
NEO Five-Factor Inventory - 60 item self report measure - measures each domain but not the specific facets - Useful when time is limited and global info on personality is needed
57
What NEO domains correlate with emotional style (happiness and wellbeing)?
E & N
58
What NEO domains correlate with interpersonal style?
E & A relate to the amount of social stimulation preferred and quality of the social interaction
59
What NEO domains correlate with what vocational interests?
```
O = investigative and artistic interests
E = social and enterprising interests
```
60
What are the possible applications of the NEO?
1) Counselling and clinical psychology
2) Vocational and organisational psychology
3) Research (investigating personality correlates)
61
What are the limitations of the NEO (3 things)?
1) Self-report measure
2) Does the Big 5 capture all nuance of personality?
3) Debate about how stable personality traits are
62
What ages is the DASS normed against?
17-69, but can be used for 14 years and older
63
What does the DASS measure?
Depression, anxiety (autonomic arousal) and stress (negative affect/tension)
64
What diagnosis is a high DASS stress score associated with?
GAD
65
What diagnosis is a high DASS anxiety score associated with?
Panic disorder
66
What does the K10 measure?
Psychological distress in the anxiety-depression spectrum
67
What time period does the K10 ask about?
Previous 4 weeks
68
Total scores for the K10 range 10-50, what are the cutoffs?
10 - 19 Likely to be well
20 - 24 Likely to have a mild disorder
25 - 29 Likely to have a moderate disorder
30 - 50 Likely to have a severe disorder
69
What ages ranges can the SDQ be administered to, and what ages are parent/teacher/self reported?
2-17
Can be administered to parents and teachers of children 2-17
Can be self-reported by 11-17
There are different questionnaires for:
2-4 year olds
4-10 year olds
11-17 year olds
70
What are the four problem-oriented scales of the SDQ?
Emotional problems, conduct problems, hyperactivity and peer problems
71
What is the externalising score made up of on the SDQ?
Conduct + Hyperactivity
72
What is the internalising score made up of on the SDQ?
Emotional + Peer problems
73
What are the four categories of scores for the SDQ problem-oriented scales?
Close to average, slightly raised, high and very high
74
What are the four different types of clinical interview?
1) Structured
2) Semi-structured
3) Unstructured
4) MSE
75
When would you use a structured or semi-structured clinical interview?
When you want to make an official diagnosis, or gather specific information
76
When would you use an unstructured interview?
For general information gathering, establishing rapport
77
What are the 7 areas to cover in an unstructured interview?
1) Identifying information
2) Presenting issue
3) History of presenting issue (4 Ps)
4) Psychiatric history
5) Medical history
6) Family history
7) Personal history
78
What is a genogram?
A graphic representation of a family tree that displays detailed data on relationships among individuals. It goes beyond a traditional family tree by allowing the user to analyse hereditary patterns and psychological factors that punctuate relationships.
79
What is narrative recording (behavioural observation)?
Simple recording of behaviours of interest
80
What is interval recording (behavioural observation)?
Recording the presence of target behaviours in specified intervals
81
What is event recording?
Describing the details of the target behaviour
82
What is rating recording (behavioural observation)?
Rating the dimensions of the behaviour on a scale
83
What age range is the WAIS-IV used for?
16:0-90:11
84
What are the four indexes of the WAIS-IV?
Verbal Comprehension Index
Perceptual Reasoning Index
Working Memory Index
Processing Speed Index
85
What are the M and SD of scaled scores?
M=10
| SD=3
86
What score range is average for WAIS-IV?
90-109
87
What are the age ranges for WISC-V?
6:0-16:11
88
What are the 5 indexes for the WISC-V?
```
Verbal Comprehension Index
Visual Spatial Index
Fluid Reasoning Index
Working Memory Index
Processing Speed Index
```
89
What age range is the PAI used for?
18+
90
What grade level of reading ability is required for the PAI?
4th
91
How many items in PAI?
344
92
What is the SOM-C scale on PAI?
Somatic Complaints Scale - Conversion
93
What is the SOM-H scale on PAI?
Somatic Complaints Scale - Health concerns
94
What is the ANX-A scale on PAI?
Anxiety - affective
95
What is the ARD-O scale on PAI?
Anxiety-Related Disorders - Obsessive-Compulsive
96
What is the DEP-P scale on PAI?
Depression - Physiological
97
What is the MAN-G scale?
Mania - Grandiosity
98
What is the BOR-A scale on PAI?
Borderline personality - Affective instability
99
What 3 scales on PAI relate to assessment of self-concept?
Mania - grandiosity
Borderline - identity problems
Depression - cognitive
100
What 2 scales on PAI relate to assessment of interpersonal style?
Warmth
| Dominance
101
What does a score of 19 on the K-10 mean?
Medium risk of psychological distress
102
What does a score of 30 on the K-10 mean?
High risk of psychological distress
103
What is the SDQ?
Strengths & Difficulties Questionnaire
| Brief screening questionnaire assessing emotional and behavioural problems
104
What age range is the self-report SDQ for?
11-17
105
What age range is the parents/teachers report SDQ for?
2-17
106
What do the emotional + peer problems scales on SDQ make up?
Internalising problem scale
107
What do the conduct + hyperactivity symptoms scales on SDQ make up?
Externalising problem scale
108
What is the age range for the WPPSI-IV?
2:6-7:7
109
Adjustment disorder - what is the timeframe for the onset of symptoms?
Within 3 months
110
ASPD - There must be evidence of a persistent disregard for, and violation of, the rights of others since age?
15
111
How long do the symptoms of ADHD need to persist for for a dx?
6 months
112
What are the 3 diagnostic criteria for ASD?
1) Social deficits in communication and interaction
2) Behavioural deficits (restricted or repetitive interests)
3) Presence of these deficits in early development
113
What constitutes a manic episode vs. hypomanic episode?
Mania: Distinct period of persistent mood change, increases of goal-directed behaviour that lasts at least 1 week.
Hypomania: Same but shorter duration (4 days)
114
What are the four categories of behaviour that make up conduct disorder?
1) Aggression to people or animals
2) Destruction of property
3) Deceitfulness or theft
4) Serious violations of rules
115
Major neurocognitive disorder involves cognitive decline in one or more domains including... (6 things)?
```
Complex attention
Executive function
Learning and memory
Language
Perceptual-motor
Social cognition
```
116
What are the four grouped criteria associated with substance use disorders?
1) Impaired control
2) Social impairment or failure to fulfil important obligations
3) Risky use
4) Pharmacological criteria (tolerance and withdrawal symptoms)
117
What are the three cluster A personality disorders?
Schizoid, schizotypal, paranoid
118
What are the four cluster B personality disorders?
ASPD, BPD, NPD, histrionic PD
119
What are the three cluster C personality disorders?
OCPD, dependent, avoidant
120
What does the MMPI assess?
The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) is a psychological test that assesses personality traits and psychopathology.
121
What are the 10 clinical subscales on the MMPI?
Depression, Masculinity/Femininity, Hypochondriasis, Hysteria, Psychopathic Deviate, Paranoia, Psychasthenia, Schizophrenia, Hypomania, Social Introversion
122
What is the normal range of T scores on the MMPI?
The normal range of T scores is from 50 to 65
123
What ages can you use the MMPI with?
18+ (MMPI-A for 14-18 years)
124
What are the 3 subtests that make up the VCI of the WAIS-IV?
* Similarities
* Vocabulary
* Information
* Comprehension (supplemental)
125
What are the 3 subtests that make up the PRI of the WAIS-IV?
* Block Design
* Matrix Reasoning
* Visual Puzzles
* Figure Weights (supplemental)
* Picture Completion (supplemental)
126
What are the 2 subtests that make up the WMI of the WAIS-IV?
* Digit Span
* Arithmetic
* Letter-Number Sequencing (supplemental)
127
What are the 2 subtests that make up the PSI of the WAIS-IV?
* Symbol Search
* Coding
* Cancellation (supplemental)
128
What does the WPPSI-IV assess?
Skills and abilities (general assessment of intelligence), rather than grade-level knowledge.
129
What are the 5 primary index scores on the WPPSI-IV for 4:0-7:7 ages and what are the 3 index scores for 2:6-3:11 ages?
Ages 2:6-3:11
Verbal Comprehension Index
Visual Spatial Index
Working Memory Index
```
Ages 4:0-7:7
Verbal Comprehension Index
Visual Spatial Index
Working Memory Index
Processing Speed Index
Fluid Reasoning Index
```
130
-
-
131
The GAI provides an estimate of general ability that is less reliant on ____ and ___ relative to the FSIQ?
Working memory and processing speed
132
What age ranges do the WPPSI-IV and WISC-V overlap at?
6:0-7:7
133
Other than age, what is another reason to use the WPPSI-IV compared to the WISC-V?
Limited English proficiency, language impairments or verbal and expressive issues - to reduce the confounding effects of language/verbal expression on composite scores
134
What age ranges can you use the Stanford-Binet with?
2-89+ (Within the subtests different types of items are used to suit different age levels)
135
-
-
136
For every ____ subtest on the SB5 there is a ___ counterpart across all factors.
Verbal - Nonverbal
137
Does the SB5 have Australian norms?
No.
138
When would you use the Abbreviated Battery IQ of the SB5?
If you would like:
- An estimate of overall functioning level
- Screening tool
- Global estimate of cognitive level
Abbreviated Battery IQ can be used when time is limited or for screening
139
What the 2 main limitations of the SB5?
- Not being able to compare people of different age categories, since each category gets a different set of tests
- Very young children do poorly as they are lacking in the concentration needed
140
What 2 indexes is the Cognitive Proficiency Index made from on the WAIS-IV?
WMI + PSI
141
Approx ____ of examinees achieve IQ scores or Index scores between 85-115 on the WAIS-IV.
2/3s
142
Approx ____ of examinees score between 7-13 on WAIS-IV subtests.
2/3s
143
What does a high score on the PAI's Inconsistency Scale mean?
The person has responded inconsistently indicating carelessness, reading difficulties, confusion or failure/refusal to follow test instructions.
144
What does the PAI's Infrequency scale measure?
Endorsement of highly unusual items
145
What are the 5 global factors on the 16PF?
Extraversion, anxiety, tough-mindedness, independence and self-control
146
How many anxiety symptoms does an adult need to meet criteria for GAD?
3 or more of:
- Chronic fatigue
- Edginess/restlessness
- Irritability
- Difficulty concentrating
- Difficulty sleeping
- Muscle tension
147
How many anxiety symptoms does a child need to meet criteria for GAD?
1 or more
148
How long does the anxiety have to be present for separation anxiety disorder to be diagnosed in adults?
6 months
149
How long does the anxiety have to be present for separation anxiety disorder to be diagnosed in children or adolescents?
4 weeks
150
How many minutes per day does a person need to spend on obsessions/compulsions to have a diagnosis of OCD?
60 mins
151
How many symptoms of inattention and/or hyperactivity are required for a dx of ADHD (adults and children)?
6 or more in under 17s
| 5 or more in ages 17+
152
Several inattentive or hyperactive symptoms were present prior to age ___ years for ADHD?
12
153
What is the difference between ADHD and ODD?
Individuals with oppositional defiant disorder may resist work or school tasks that require self-application because they resist conforming to others' demands. Their behaviour is characterised by negativity, hostility, and defiance. These symptoms must be differentiated from aversion to school or mentally demanding tasks due to difficulty in sustaining mental effort, forgetting instructions, and impulsivity in individuals with ADHD.
154
How many symptoms does a person need for a dx of ODD?
4 or more
155
What are the three areas of symptoms in ODD?
Angry/irritable mood
Argumentative/defiant behaviour
Vindictiveness
156
What is the timeframe and frequency of ODD behaviours to receive a dx?
For children younger than 5 years, the behaviour should occur on most days for a period of at least 6 months. For individuals 5 years or older, the behaviour should occur at least once per week for at least 6 months.
157
What is the difference between ODD and conduct disorder?
The behaviours of oppositional defiant disorder are typically of a less severe nature than those of conduct disorder and do not include aggression toward people or animals, destruction of property, or a pattern of theft or deceit. Furthermore, oppositional defiant disorder includes problems of emotional dysregulation (i.e., angry and irritable mood) that are not included in the definition of conduct disorder.
158
How many symptoms are required for a dx of conduct disorder?
At least 3 of the 15 criteria in the past 12 months, and at least 1 criterion present in the past 6 months.
159
What are the four patterns of symptoms in conduct disorder?
Aggression to people and animals
Destruction of property
Deceitfulness or theft
Serious violations of rules
160
What is the difference between dx of conduct disorder and ASPD?
Under 18 - Conduct disorder
| 18+ - antisocial personality disorder.
161
ASPD is a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others, occurring since age ___ years.
15
162
The individual must be at least ___ years for a dx of ASPD.
18
163
What is the difference between NPD and ASPD?
Individuals with antisocial personality disorder and narcissistic personality disorder share a tendency to be tough-minded, glib, superficial, exploitative, and lack empathy. However, narcissistic personality disorder does not include characteristics of impulsivity, aggression, and deceit. In addition, individuals with antisocial personality disorder may not be as needy of the admiration and envy of others, and persons with narcissistic personality disorder usually lack the history of conduct disorder in childhood or criminal behaviour in adulthood.
164
How many symptoms must a person meet for a dx of BPD?
5 or more
165
What are the 9 criteria for BPD?
1. Frantic efforts to avoid real or imagined abandonment.
2. A pattern of unstable and intense interpersonal relationships characterised by alternating between extremes of idealisation and devaluation.
3. Identity disturbance: markedly and persistently unstable self-image or sense of self.
4. Impulsivity in at least two areas that are potentially self-damaging.
5. Recurrent suicidal behaviour, gestures, or threats, or self-mutilating behaviour.
6. Affective instability due to a marked reactivity of mood
7. Chronic feelings of emptiness.
8. Inappropriate, intense anger or difficulty controlling anger
9. Transient, stress-related paranoid ideation or severe dissociative symptoms.
166
Alcohol use disorder is a problematic pattern of alcohol use leading to clinically significant impairment or distress, as manifested by at least ___ of the following, occurring within a ___ month period.
2, 12
167
What are the 10 symptoms in alcohol use disorder?
1. Alcohol is often taken in larger amounts or over a longer period than was intended.
2. There is a persistent desire or unsuccessful efforts to cut down or control alcohol use.
3. A great deal of time is spent in activities necessary to obtain alcohol, use alcohol, or recover from its effects.
4. Craving, or a strong desire or urge to use alcohol.
5. Recurrent alcohol use resulting in a failure to fulfil major role obligations at work, school, or home.
6. Continued alcohol use despite having persistent or recurrent social or interpersonal problems caused or exacerbated by the effects of alcohol.
7. Important social, occupational, or recreational activities are given up or reduced because of alcohol use.
8. Recurrent alcohol use in situations in which it is physically hazardous.
9. Alcohol use is continued despite knowledge of having a persistent or recurrent physical or psychological problem that is likely to have been caused or exacerbated by alcohol.
10. Tolerance.
11. Withdrawal.
168
What is considered mild, moderate and severe alcohol use disorder?
Mild: Presence of 2-3 symptoms.
Moderate: Presence of 4-5 symptoms.
Severe: Presence of 6 or more symptoms.
169
What are the 8 symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?
1. Autonomic hyperactivity (e.g., sweating or pulse rate greater than 100 bpm).
2. Increased hand tremor.
3. Insomnia.
4. Nausea or vomiting.
5. Transient visual, tactile, or auditory hallucinations or illusions.
6. Psychomotor agitation.
7. Anxiety.
8. Generalised tonic-clonic seizures.
170
What is criterion A for delirium?
A. A disturbance in attention (i.e.,reduced ability to direct, focus, sustain, and shift attention) and awareness (reduced orientation to the environment).
171
What is criterion A for major neurocognitive disorder?
A. Evidence of significant cognitive decline from a previous level of performance in one or more cognitive domains (complex attention, executive function, learning and memory, language, perceptual-motor, or social cognition).
172
What are the two things that the cognitive decline in major neurocognitive disorder is based on?
1. Concern of the individual, a knowledgeable informant, or the clinician that there has been a significant decline in cognitive function; and
2. A substantial impairment in cognitive performance, preferably documented by standardised neuropsychological testing or, in its absence, another quantified clinical assessment.
173
What is criterion C for major neurocognitive decline due to Alzheimers?
C. Probable Alzheimer’s disease is diagnosed if either of the following is present:
(2 things, with the 2nd thing having 3 parts to it)?
1. Evidence of a causative Alzheimer’s disease genetic mutation from family history or genetic testing.
2. All three of the following are present:
a. Clear evidence of decline in memory and learning and at least one other cognitive domain (based on detailed history or serial neuropsychological testing).
b. Steadily progressive, gradual decline in cognition, without extended plateaus.
c. No evidence of mixed aetiology (i.e., absence of other neurodegenerative or cerebrovascular disease, or another neurological, mental, or systemic disease or condition likely contributing to cognitive decline).
174
What are the five symptoms that of the behavioural variant of criterion C for neurocognitive decline due to frontotemporal dementia?
```
Behavioural variant:
a. Three or more of the following behavioural symptoms:
b.
i. Behavioural disinhibition.
ii. Apathy or inertia.
iii. Loss of sympathy or empathy.
iv. Perseverative, stereotyped or compulsive/ritualistic behaviour.
v. Hyperorality and dietary changes.
```
175
What are the five symptoms that of the language variant of criterion C for neurocognitive decline due to frontotemporal dementia?
Prominent decline in language ability, in the form of speech production, word finding, object naming, grammar, or word comprehension.
176
What are the core diagnostic features of neurocognitive decline due to Lewy Bodies (3 things)?
a. Fluctuating cognition with pronounced variations in attention and alertness.
b. Recurrent visual hallucinations that are well formed and detailed.
c. Spontaneous features of parkinsonism, with onset subsequent to the development of cognitive decline.
177
What is the difference between somatic symptom disorder and illness anxiety disorder?
Somatic symptom disorder is diagnosed when significant somatic symptoms are present. In contrast, individuals with illness anxiety disorder have minimal somatic symptoms and are primarily concerned with the idea they are ill.
178
What are the DASS cut off scores for depression? (Normal, mild, moderate, severe, extremely severe)
```
Normal = 0-9
Mild = 10-13
Moderate = 14-20
Severe = 21-27
Extremely severe = 28+
```
179
What are the DASS cut off scores for anxiety? (Normal, mild, moderate, severe, extremely severe)
```
Normal = 0-7
Mild = 8-9
Moderate = 10-14
Severe = 15-19
Extremely severe = 20+
```
180
What are the DASS cut off scores for stress? (Normal, mild, moderate, severe, extremely severe)
```
Normal = 0-14
Mild = 15-18
Moderate = 19-25
Severe = 26-33
Extremely severe = 34+
```
181
What is the mean and SD of a T-score?
Mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10
182
What ages can you use the Wide Range Assessment of Memory and Learning (WRAML-2) with?
5-90
183
What does the WRAML assess?
The WRAML assesses immediate and delayed recall and acquisition of new learning
184
What are the three index scores of the WRAML2 and what index do they combine to form?
o Verbal Memory Index
o Visual Memory Index
o Attention/Concentration Index
Three indexes combine to form General Memory Index.
185
What is the WASI used for?
Differentiating individuals
Screening to determine the need for more comprehensive assessment
Estimating IQ scores for large samples
Estimating current cognitive functioning for psychiatric evaluations, vocational or research purposes
186
How long do the FSIQ4 and FSIQ2 take to administer in the WASI?
30 mins and 15 mins
187
What age ranges can you use the WASI with?
9-89
188
What are the four subtests used in the FSIQ4 of the WASI?
Block design
Matrix reasoning
Vocabulary
Similarities
189
What are the two subtests used in the FSIQ2 of the WASI?
Matrix reasoning
| Vocabulary
190
What are the 9 areas that the Woodcock-Johnson III uses to measure general and specific cognitive functions?
```
Comprehension-knowledge
Long-term retrieval
Visual-spatial thinking
Auditory processing
Fluid reasoning
Processing speed
Short term memory
Quantitative knowledge
Reading-writing ability
```
191
What is the Relative Profile Index (RPI) in relation to the Woodcock-Johnson?
Criterion-referenced measure providing information about the ease/difficulty the individual is likely to encounter with age-level tasks
192
What ages can you use the WIAT with?
5:0-50:11
193
What is the WIAT used for (4 things)?
Designed to identify academic strengths and weaknesses
Inform decisions regarding eligibility for educational services
Dx of specific learning disorder
To design instructional objectives and plan interventions
194
What are the three main reasons to use the ABAS?
- Identify deficits in adaptive skills
- Design and implement interventions for increasing adaptive skills
- Monitoring the effectiveness of adaptive skill interventions
195
What ages can you use the ABAS with?
Birth to 89
196
What are the 3 adaptive skills domains assessed by the ABAS?
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Conceptual skills (communication, functional pre-academics and self-direction)
Social skills (social and leisure)
Practical skill (community use, school/home living, health and safety, self-care, work and motor)
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197
What does a general adaptive composite score of 90 mean on the ABAS?
Percentile rank of 25-74, average
198
What does a general adaptive composite score of 71 mean on the ABAS?
Percentile rank of 2-8, borderline
199
What are the two types of retrieval processes in memory that the WMS tests?
Recall – being able to access information without being cued; involves search process followed by a decision or recognition process
Recognition – identifying info after experiencing it again
200
What ages is the adult battery of the WMS used for?
16-69
201
What ages is the older adult batter of the WMS used for?
65-90
202
What are the 5 indexes on the WMS?
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Auditory memory index
Visual memory index
Immediate memory index
Delayed memory index
Visual working memory index
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203
What are the cut off scores on the MMSE (severe, mild, no cognitive impairment)?
24+ - no cognitive impairment.
18-23 - mild cognitive impairment
0-17 - severe
204
What is the MMSE designed for?
Differentiating dementia and depression
205
What does the Raven’s Standard Progressive Matrices measure?
Non-verbal test of observation skills and clear-thinking ability; measures abstract reasoning, and regarded as a non-verbal estimate of fluid intelligence
206
What ages can you use the Raven’s Standard Progressive Matrices with?
5-80
207
What sort of people is the Raven’s Standard Progressive Matrices useful for?
For people with language, hearing and motor difficulties
208
What is the self directed search?
Self-assessment career inventory to assist with identifying career interests and match to suitable occupations
209
What ages can you use the self directed search with?
15+
210
What are the 6 occupations categories in the SDS?
Realistic, Investigative, Artistic, Social, Enterprising and Conventional
211
What is the Strong Interest Inventory?
Career assessment to aid in career decision making by gaining an understanding of interests across broad range of categories.
212
How many avoidance symptoms do you need for dx of PTSD?
1 or more
213
How many negative cognitions/mood symptoms do you need for dx of PTSD?
2 or more
214
How many alterations in arousal and reactivity symptoms do you need for dx of PTSD?
2 or more
215
What is first line treatment for PTSD?
CBT, EMDR, CPT
216
To be diagnosed with ____, once the stress or its consequences have terminated, the symptoms do not persist for more than an additional 6 months.
Adjustment disorder
217
For adjustment disorder, A. The development of emotional or behavioural symptoms in response to an identifiable stressor(s) occurring within _____ of the onset of the stressor(s).
3 months
218
How many symptoms do you need for a dx of ODD?
4
219
How many symptoms for a dx of conduct disorder?
3
220
If you want to look at unusual differences in index scores, you need to look first at _____, then _____.
statistical significance
| base rates
221
GAI is a measure of ____ and ____ abilities, without the influence of _____.
verbal
non-verbal
cognitive processing (working memory and processing speed)
222
If the differences between indices is ____ points, it is a difference of more than ___ SD, and means that the differences are too variable to use FSIQ.
23
| 1.5
223
For block design, what is the discontinue criterion?
Two consecutive scores of 0.
224
For block design (ages 8 – 16), what do you do if there is an imperfect score on either of the first two items given?
Administer preceding items in reverse order until two consecutive perfect scores are obtained.
225
If there is a rotation error on block design, what do you do?
Rotate it for them to show them the correct rotation, mark as incorrect, then continue with subtest administration.
226
What is a ceiling effect?
A ceiling affect means that when you administering the subtest, they are scoring high (plateau) on all (e.g. there are no harder questions and completing all subtests).
227
What is a floor effect?
A floor effect is when the questions are not easy enough for a person to get started on all subtests.
228
What are the cut off scores for the four validity tests on the PAI?
ICN: 73
INF: 75
NIM: 73
PIM: 58
229
What are the T-score ranges for average, mild range and clinical range on the PAI?
< 59 (within 1SD of the mean) = Average
60 – 69 = Mild Range (mild problems)
> 70 = Clinical Range (reflective of more severe/significant clinical difficulties)
230
How many items/questions can people miss to have a valid PAI?
You are able to miss 5% of the questions, which is 17 questions. Anything above 17, you cannot interpret the PAI.
231
What does the symbol span subtest on the WMS look at?
Visual working memory.
232
How do you complete direct observation?
Choose 3 or 4 behaviours of concern, then tick it off when that behaviour occurs (e.g. client gets up from desk and disrupts others, how many time he calls out – all within an hour). You want to be able to measure the frequency of behaviours before and after, in order to be reliable and valid.
233
Flag the possibility of dementia if...
Memory loss, disorientation and naming difficulties are presented.
