Assessment and Treatment procedures

Question 1

What is incidental teaching?

Answer 1

a treatment approach in which a person is taught a new behavior in structured situations in their natural environment. The situation is based on their interests and motivations.

Question 2

What is naturalistic teaching?

Answer 2

a treatment approach in which a child is taught a new behavior while performing their daily routine(s). This treatment approach relies upon the child’s interests, needs, and abilities

Question 3

What is activity-based teaching?

Answer 3

A treatment approach in which a person acquires, understands, and applies information learned by completing an activity.

Question 4

What does classroom-based intervention for students with language impairment in schools entail?

Answer 4

entering a classroom an dhelping the students assigned to your caseload (i.e., those with an IEP) achieve their goals.

Question 5

What is response cost?

Answer 5

a behavioral approach in which the cost of a particular response is the loss of a desired item or opportunity, such as taking away a sticker from a child for interrupting you.

Question 6

What is differential reinforcement?

Answer 6

a behavioral approach in which desired behaviors are reinforced and undesirable behaviors are not reinforced.

Question 7

What is negative reinforcement?

Answer 7

the removal of an undesired stimulus in order to reinforce a desired behavior, such as taking away vegetables to encourage a child to drink water.

Question 8

What is parallel talk?

Answer 8

narrate what the child is doing

Question 9

What is self-talk?

Answer 9

narrate what you are doing as you are with the child

Question 10

What is recasting?

Answer 10

repeating what the child said with a few corrections and/or additions that add meaning

Question 11

What is focused stimulation?

Answer 11

focusing on the names of specific items and repeating them over and over again.

Question 12

What is the correct sequence to treat a client with auditory comprehension problems?

Answer 12

single words –> spoken sentences —> spoken questions –> spoken directions —> discourse

Question 13

What standardized test is used to assess children with cleft palate for speech sound disorders?

Answer 13

Iowa Pressure articulationt test

Question 14

What are the benefits of using a standardized test?

Answer 14

can yield quantitative data; eliminates examiner bias since they must adhere to strict rules and strict directions

Question 15

What are the limitations of using a standardized test?

Answer 15

normative sample may not represent the individual taking the test; it is likely that a small sample size was used to create the test; skills observed during the test may not represent how the child acts in their natural environment; child may struggle to respond in a particular given the format of the test.

Question 16

What is age or grade equivalence

Answer 16

average raw score of a particular age or grade from a section of the normative sample

Question 17

What is concurrent validity?

Answer 17

scores obtained on a new test correlate to scores obtained on a test with similar validity; a moderately positive correlation is acceptable for a new test, whereas an extremely high correlation calls into question the validity of the test.

Question 18

What is predictive validity?

Answer 18

scores obtained on a test that predict performance on a similar test. For example, a high score on a spelling test predicts that that person will obtain a high score in a spelling bee competition

Question 19

What is construct validity?

Answer 19

validity in which the content of a test match the theories or constructs associated with what the test is measuring. For instance, a test that assesses the vocabulary of school-aged children should be based on the theory that children’s vocabulary skills improve as they get older

Question 20

What is content validity?

Answer 20

test items measure the full range of skills that it claims to measure; for example, a test that measures expressive language skills should have expressive language skill tasks

Question 21

What is the difference between interobserver reliability and intraobserver reliability?

Answer 21

interobserver reliability refers to the degree of agreement between two observers assessing the same thing; intraobserver reliability refers to how stable an observer’s assessment of results is during different periods of time

Question 22

What is alternate form reliability?

Answer 22

consistency of measures when two forms of the same test are administered to the same person sampling the same behavior

Question 23

What is test-retest reliability?

Answer 23

consistency of measures when the same test is administered to the same person twice

Question 24

What is split half reliability?

Answer 24

measures the itnernal consistency of a test where responses to items on the first half are correlated with responses given on the second half.

Question 25

What is a contrastive analysis?

Answer 25

assess whether a client has a true speech and/or language disorder by comparing the phonetic inventory of the languages they speak to the phonetic inventory of the English language.

Question 26

What is minimal competency core?

Answer 26

the least amount of linguistic skill or knowledge that a typical speaker is expected to display given their age and specific context

Question 27

What is an authentic assessment?

Answer 27

assessing a person's speech and language skills in every day settings and does not use formal testing environment or formal environments

Question 28

What is a rating scale?

Answer 28

allows a responder to rate the quantity or severity of what is described

Question 29

What is a developmental inventory?

Answer 29

used to track a child's physical and behavioral changes over time. They are standardized to some extent.

Question 30

What is a functional assessment?

Answer 30

assessment that targets a client's day to day communication skills in naturalistic and personally meaningful contexts; this is especially important for persons with severe communication disorders who cannot express basic needs.

Question 31

What is an antecedent?

Answer 31

stimuli or behavior that elicits a response

Question 32

What is a comprehensive and integrated assessment?

Answer 32

an assessment in which a clinician employs a traditional approach to assessment (i.e., case history, interview, oral mechanism exam, and language sampling) and then includes tests and procedures that are specific to the client.

Question 33

What is a portfolio assessment?

Answer 33

An assessment in which a child's samples is collected over time in order to observe the growth that the child has made through treatment

Question 34

What does a newborn developmental specialist do?

Answer 34

support families and infants with issues involving infant development and behavior as well as hearing conservation and aural rehab; creating individualized assessment and intervention strategies to support infants and caregivers. They are not the primary care coordinator or case manager for the infants

Question 35

What is a reinforcer?

Answer 35

an event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being performed

Question 36

What is a primary reinforcer?

Answer 36

reinforcers that are considered essential for survival (e.g., food and water) and useful for establishing target responses and when working with infants, toddlers, and people with severe intellectual disabilities. It does not depend on past earning or conditioning

Question 37

What is a secondary reinforcer?

Answer 37

Social or conditioned reinforcers that depend on past conditioning or past learning such as a sticker or money; they are unnatural and are thus learned

Question 38

What is an automatic reinforcer?

Answer 38

a person's behavior reinforces the desired outcome without any outside intervention (e.g., turning on the lights in your room by yourself to lighten the room)

Question 39

What is a backup reinforcer?

Answer 39

Reinforcer given at the end of a treatment session in exchange for tokens the clients earned during the treatment session

Question 40

What is a conditioned/generalized reinforcer?

Answer 40

reinforcer whose effect does not depend on a particular motivated state of the client

Question 41

What is a conditioned/secondary reinforcer?

Answer 41

Events such as praise, smile, and approval that strengthen a person's response because of past learning

Question 42

What is a fixed-interval schedule?

Answer 42

consistent time passing between the provision of two reinforcerments

Question 43

What is a fixed-ratio schedule?

Answer 43

a schedule of reinforcement in which a reinforcer is earned after a certain number of trials have been completed

Question 44

What is differential reinforcement?

Answer 44

Teaching a client to give different responses to different stimuli; reinforce the correct response and ignore incorrect responses

Question 45

What is fading?

Answer 45

the power of a stimulus is slowly removed but the response still remains; for example, the use of a mirror to spur someone to correctly produce a sound is slowly taken away

Question 46

What is extinction?

Answer 46

withholding reinforces to reduce a response, typically a negative one

Question 47

What is an exemplar?

Answer 47

a specific target response that illustrates a broader target behavior

Question 48

What is shaping?

Answer 48

teaching a response ,that do not yet exist, through steps that are sequential

Question 49

What is an evoked response?

Answer 49

spontaneous response given to natural stimuli

Question 50

What is an evoked trial?

Answer 50

clinical procedure where no modeling is given to the client and stimuli are used to provoke a response

Question 51

When treating language and speech sound disorders, the most appropriate treatment strategy to use is

Answer 51

normative strategy (targetting behavior based on norms)

Question 52

When working with CLD clients, the most important treatment strategy is

Answer 52

client-specific strategy

Question 53

To target useful skills that enhance communication and help meet the demands of the client, the most important treatment strategy is

Answer 53

functional communication strategy

Question 54

What is the integrated approach to target behavior selection?

Answer 54

appropriate treatment targets based on a client's age, ethnocultural background, individual traits, and communication requirements

Question 55

What is the typical level of response complexity?

Answer 55

syllables ---> words ----> phrases ---> sentences

Question 56

What is an evoked trial?

Answer 56

no modeling provided to a client and stimuli are used to provoke a response

Question 57

What is the general outline of a treatment program?

Answer 57

assess client's communication behavior ---> select target behaviors for training ---> establish baselines of target behaviors --> plan a comprehensive treatment program --> implement the treatment program ---> implement maintenance program ---> follow up on client's progress--> arrange for booster treatment

Question 58

What conducting a case history, what should be collected?

Answer 58

a description of the communication disorder; assessment and treatment history; family history; medical history; prenatal, birth, and developmental history; educational history; occupational history

Question 59

What factors influence prognosis?

Answer 59

severity of disorder and client's health

Question 60

For child hearing screening, what frequencies are used?

Answer 60

15 dB at 500,1000,2000, and 4000 Hz

Question 61

For adult hearing screening, what frequencies are used?

Answer 61

20 to 25 dB at 500, 1000, 2000, and 4000 Hz

Question 62

What is the difference between a multidisciplinary team, a transdisciplinary, and an interdisciplinary team?

Answer 62

A multidisciplinary team consists of members from different disciplines that do their own evaluations. A transdisciplinary team consists of many specialists working together in the initial assessment but then only one or two work together. An interdisciplinary team has members from many disciplines working together, reviewing their assessments, and collaboratively write the evaluation report.