Associations 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Precocious puberty

A

<9 (males)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Tanner level 5 (girls)

A

Breast: areola recedes to level of breast

Pubic hair: spreads to medial thighs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

LH in menstrual cycle

A
Midcycle surge (induced by estrogen) induces ovulation
Stimulates corpus luteum to secrete progesterone (luteal phase)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

FSH in menstrual cycle

A

Stimulates development of ovarian follicle (follicular phase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Estrogens in menstrual cycle

A

Stimulates endometrial proliferation (follicular phase)
Secreted by follicle, aids follicle growth
Induces LH surge
High levels inhibit FSH secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Progesterone in menstrual cycle

A

Secreted by corpus luteum (luteal phase); *decrease in levels leads to menstruation
Stimulates endometrial gland development
Inhibits uterine contraction, increases cervical mucus thickness
Increases basal body temperature
Inhibits LH and FSH secretion, maintains pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

hCG in menstrual cycle

A

Acts like LH after implantation of fertilized egg

Maintains corpus luteum viability and progesterone secretion (no menstruation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Causes of pseudoprecocious puberty

A

Exogenous hormones (estrogens)
Adrenal tumor
Other hormone-secreting tumor (eg ovarian)
CAH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Phase of menstrual cycle fixed at 14 days regardless of cycle length

A

Luteal phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Diagnostic for menopause

A

Amenorrhea >1 year in woman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Premature menopause

A

< 40 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Hormones in perimenopause

A

+LH, +FSH

Estrogen fluctuates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Causes primary amenorrhea

A

HPO axis dysfunction
Anatomic abnormalities (absent uterus, vaginal septa, imperforate hyman, vaginal atresia)
Chromosome abnormalities
Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Causes secondary amenorrhea

A

Pregnancy
Ovarian failure (menopause)
HPO axis dysfunction, uterine abnormalities, PCOS, thyroid disease
Anorexia, malnutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Hypogonadism + anosmia

A

Kallman syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Initial tests for primary amenorrhea

A

Physical (anatomic abnl)
B-hCG, prolactin, TSH
Signs of hyperandrogenism -> DHEAS, testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Primary amenorrhea + absent uterus on US

A

Karyotype + serum testosterone
(Androgen insensitivity syndrome = 46XY)
(Abnl mullerian development = 46XX)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Primary amenorrhea + uterus present

A

B-hCG + FSH
(Pregnancy = high B-hCG)
(Turner syndrome = high FSH)
(HPO axis disease = low FSH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Secondary amenorrhea initial tests

A

B-hCG (always first test)
Prolactin, TSH, FSH
If hyperandrogenism signs -> DHEAS, testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Secondary amenorrhea w/ normal initial tests

A
Progesterone challenge (normal = anovulation) (abnl = low estrogen or outflow tract abnl)
If abnl, progesterone-estrogen challenge (normal = HPO axis abnl, menopause) (abnl = outflow tract obstruction eg Asherman syndrome)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Causes secondary dysmenorrhea

A

Endometriosis, PID, uterine fibroids, ovarian cysts, adenomyosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Timing primary vs secondary dysmenorrhea

A

Primary - beginning of menstruation and resolve over several days
Secondary - midcycle before onset of menstruation and increase in severity until conclusion of menstruation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

β€œPowder-burn” lesions or chocolate cysts on biopsy

A

Endometriosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Common symptoms of endometriosis

A

3Ds - dysmenorrhea, deep dyspareunia, dyschezia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Common causes abnormal uterine bleeding

A
PALM-COEIN
Polyps
Adenomyosis
Leiomyoma
Malignancy/hyperplasia
Coagulopathy
Ovulatory dysfunction
Endometrial
Idiopathic
Not yet classified
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Regular, heavy abnl uterine bleeding

A

Think fibroid, adenomyosis, polyp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Irregular, heavy abnl uterine bleeding

A

Think anovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

MCC abnormal uterine bleeding

A

Anovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Abnl uterine bleeding related to sex

A

Think cervical polyp/glandular tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Abnl uterine bleeding + positive B-hCG + intrauterine pregnancy + closed cervical os

A

Threatened abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Abnl uterine bleeding + enlarged uterus + menometrorrhagia for months

A

Fibroids, molar pregnancy, adenomyosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Abnl uterine bleeding + severe menstrual pelvic pain

A

Endometriosis, adenomyosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Menorrhagia + perimenopausal

A

R/o endometrial hyperplasia / cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Abnl uterine bleeding that started w/ menarch

A

R/o coagulopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

MC coagulopathy associated w/ abnormal uterine bleeding

A

Von Willebrand disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Abnl uterine bleeding + positive B-hCG + no fetus in uterus on US

A

Ectopic pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Abnl uterine bleeding + depression + constipation

A

Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Diagnostic criteria for PCOS

A

2/3
Oligo or anovulation
Androgen excess
Polycystic ovaries (β€œstring of pearls”) by US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Labs for PCOS

A

+LH
LH:FSH ratio >2:1
+DHEA, androstenedione, testosterone
+progesterone challenge (anovulatory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Complications of PCOS

A

Infertility
DM
Endometrial cancer (+unopposed estrogen)
Also HTN, ischemic heart disease, ovarian torsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

β€œDew drops on rose petals” rash

A

Varicella zoster (chicken pox)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

MCC postmenopausal bleeding

A

Atrophic vaginitis (but must r/o endometrial cancer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Indications for endometrial biopsy

A

AUB >35 yo or <35 w/ risk factors

Postmenopausal bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Pap smear recommendations

A

Start at age 21
Every 3 years (21-29)
Every 3 years or every 5 years w/ HPV testing (>30)
Stop at age 65 if multiple normal results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

ASCUS Pap - next step

A

21-24: repeat Pap in 12 months
25+: HPV testing
Colposcopy if either is positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

AGUS Pap - next step

A

Colposcopy + ECC +/- endometrial biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

ASC-H Pap - next step

A

Colposcopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

LSIL (CIN 1) Pap - next step

A

21-24: repeat Pap in 12 months
25-29: colposcopy
30+: HPV testing or colposcopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

HSIL (CIN 2 or 3) Pap - next step

A

21-24: colposcopy

25+: excision (LEEP, conozation or laser)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Thin anogenital skin w/ ivory or porcelain-white macules and plaques w/ pruritis or pain, usu postmenopausal

A

Lichen sclerosis (need to r/o SCC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Functional benign ovarian tumors (physiological)

A

Follicular cyst, Corpus luteum cyst

Often regress on their own

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Psammoma bodies

A

Concentric calcifications

Assoc w/ ovarian serous cystadenocarcinoma (or cystadenoma), papillary thyroid cancer, melanotic schwannoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Benign ovarian tumor + chocolate cyst

A

Endometrioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Benign ovarian tumor + multiple dermal tissues

A

Benign cystic teratoma (dermoid cyst)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Benign ovarian tumor + estrogen secretion (precocious puberty)

A

Granulosa theca cell tumor (stromal cell tumor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Benign ovarian tumor + androgen secretion (virilization)

A

Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor (stromal cell tumor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Characteristics of benign and malignant ovarian tumors on US

A

B - cystic, smooth edges, few septa

M - irregular, nodular, multiple septa, pelvic extension or adhesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Drugs that cause gynecomastia

A
STACKED
Spironolactone
THC (marijuana)
Alcohol (chronic)
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Estrogens
Digoxin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Multiple, bilateral small tender breast masses that vary in size with menstrual cycle

A

Fibrocystic changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

MC breast tumor <30 yo

A

Fibroadenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Bloody or nonbloody (serous) discharge with or without stimulation

A

Intraductal papilloma (nonbloody discharge only on stimulation is consistent w/ noncancerous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Solitary, solid, mobile breast mass w/ well defined edges in young woman

A

Fibroadenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Large, bulky breast mass w/ leaf-like projections w/ patient in 50s

A

Phyllodes tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Embryonic age 1 week (3 weeks GA)

A

Implantation, B-hCG production starts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Embryonic age 2 weeks (4 wks GA)

A

Beginning of maternal-fetal circulation
B-hCG high enough to detect in urine (~30-40)
CNS starts to develop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Embryonic age 3 weeks (5 wks GA)

A

Heart starts to form

67
Q

Embryonic age 4, 5 weeks (6, 7 wks GA)

A

GI tract start to form; lungs start to form

68
Q

Embryonic age 6, 9 weeks (8, 11 wks GA)

A

Limbs, genitalia start to form; kidneys start to function

69
Q

Embryonic age 15-20 weeks (17-22 wks GA)

A

Early detectable fetal movement

70
Q

Embryonic age 24 weeks (26 wks GA)

A

Surfactant production begins

Earliest chance of viable premature birth

71
Q

Embryonic age 32 weeks (34 wks GA)

A

Fetus usually survives premature birth

72
Q

Embryonic age 37 weeks (39 weeks)

A

CNS fully developed

73
Q

Fetus considered full term

A

37-42 weeks GA (35-40 EA)

74
Q

Biggest effect of teratogens on organ systems

A

2-12 weeks (esp 3-8 weeks) EA

75
Q

CV effects of pregnancy

A

CO increases 40% (SV and HR)

BP decreases slightly weeks 20-24, back to base by term

76
Q

Respiratory effects of pregnancy

A

O2 consumption increases 20%
Tidal volume increases 40% w/ minute ventilation increase
PCO2 decreases to ~30 (respiratory alkalosis)

77
Q

Endocrine effects of pregnancy

A

Nondiabetic hyperinsulinemia w/ mild glucose intolerance (HPL hormone contributes)
TG, cortisol increase
TSH decreases slightly; TBG and total T4 increase (free T4 stays the same)

78
Q

Hematologic effects of pregnancy

A

Hypercoagulable

Increased RBC production, increased blood volume = physiologic anemia of pregnancy (Hct still decreases)

79
Q

GI effects of pregnancy

A

Increased salivation

Decreased gastric motility (increased GERD)

80
Q

Labs at initial prenatal visit

A
CBC
Blood type and cross
UA
Pap smear, G/C screening
RPR/VDRL, Rubella antibody titer, Hep B surface antigen, HIV screening (w/ permission)
81
Q

Labs at 16-18 weeks GA

A

Quad screen

82
Q

Labs at 18-20 weeks GA

A

US dating and anatomy screen

83
Q

Labs at 24-28 weeks GA

A

1 hr glucose challenge (screen for gestational DM)

84
Q

Labs at 32-37 weeks GA

A
Cervical culture for G/C in high risk
GBS screening (36 weeks)
85
Q

Quad screen

A
Maternal serum aFP
Estriol
B-hCG
Inhibit
Must be done at 16-18 weeks (aFP requires this time)
Assesses for NTD, trisomy 18 and 21
86
Q

Full integrated test

A

Nuchal translucency and PAPP-A in first trimester + quad screen in second trimester
Lowest false-positive rate for non-invasive tests

87
Q

Amniocentesis

A

After 16 weeks
NTD and chromosomal abnormalities
0.5% miscarriage

88
Q

Chorionic villi sampling

A

9-12 weeks
Chromosomal abnormalities
1% miscarriage

89
Q

PUBS

A

After 18 weeks

Fetal anemia, Rh sensitization, possible transfusion

90
Q

Increased nuchal translucency

A

Trisomy 21, 18, 13
Turner syndrome
Congenital heart defects (+fluid)

91
Q

Maternal serum aFP

A

High in NTD and multiple gestations

Low in trisomy 21, 18

92
Q

Quad screen, trisomy 21 vs 18 (doesn’t see trisomy 13)

A
21 = low aFP, estriol; high hCG, inhibin-A
18 = low aFP, estriol, hCG
93
Q

B-hCG levels during pregnancy

A

Double every 48 hours until ~10 weeks, ~100K

Slowly return down to ~10K, stay there til end of pregnancy

94
Q

Timing of diagnosis for gestational diabetes, preeclampsia vs pre-existing conditions

A

Diabetes >24 weeks

HTN >20 weeks

95
Q

Pre-gestational diabetes early fetal complications

A

Sacral and renal agenesis, cardiac (TGA, tetralogy of Fallot), neural tube defects

96
Q

HTN + edema in hands or face + proteinuria (>300 g/24 hrs) in pregnancy >20 wks

A

Preeclampsia

97
Q

HELLP syndrome

A

Hemolysis
Elevated Liver enzymes
Low Platelets

98
Q

Maternal N&V timing

A

Worst in first trimester, usu resolves by 12-16 weeks

99
Q

Congenital infection w/ hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications, chorioretinitis

A

Toxoplasmosis or CMV

100
Q

Congenital infection w/ blueberry muffin rash

A

Rubella

101
Q

Congenital infection w/ high rate of neonatal death

A

Rubeola, HSV

102
Q

Congenital infection w/ rash w/ hand and foot desquamation

A

Syphilis

103
Q

Congenital infection w/ progressive unilateral hearing loss + neuro abnl

A

CMV

104
Q

Congenital infection w/ halo sign on CT of brain

A

Toxoplasmosis

105
Q

Congenital infection w/ IUGR, deafness, cataracts/glaucoma

A

Rubella

106
Q

Congenital rubella cardiovascular problems

A

PDA

Pulmonary artery stenosis

107
Q

Congenital infection w/ temporal lobe encephalitis

A

HSV

108
Q

Congenital infection w/ dermatomal skin scarring, chorioretinitis, microcephaly, intellectual disability, hypoplasia of hands and feet, early death

A

VZV (new infection)

109
Q

Leading cause of congenital blindness

A

Chlamydia

110
Q

Congenital infection w/ PNA, sepsis (early) or meningitis (late)

A

GBS

111
Q

Congenital infection w/ decreased RBC production + hemolytic anemia = hydrops fetalis, high output cardiac failure

A

Parvovirus B19

112
Q

MC site of ectopic pregnancy

A

Ampulla of fallopian tube (95%)

113
Q

US can see intrauterine pregnancy

A

Intraabdominal: B-hCG >6500
Intravaginal: B-hCG >1500

114
Q

<20 weeks + uterine bleeding + closed cervical os + viable IUP

A

Threatened spontaneous abortion

115
Q

<20 weeks +/- uterine bleeding or pain + closed cervical os + non-viable IUP

A

Missed spontaneous abortion

116
Q

<20 weeks + uterine bleeding + pain + open cervical os +/- viable IUP

A

Inevitable spontaneous abortion

117
Q

<20 weeks + uterine bleeding + open cervical os + some uterine contents expelled

A

Incomplete spontaneous abortion

118
Q

<20 weeks + uterine bleeding + open or closed cervical os + all uterine contents expelled

A

Complete spontaneous abortion

119
Q

> 20 weeks + nonviable IUP w/o fetal movement or heart activity

A

Intrauterine fetal demise

120
Q

Cause of 1st trimester spontaneous abortion

A

Chromosomal abnl (usu trisomies, trisomy 16 is common)

121
Q

Cause of 2nd trimester spontaneous abortion

A

Infection, cervical incompetence, uterine abnl, drug use…

122
Q

MCC symmetric IUGR

A

Congenial infection, chromosomal abnormalities

Familial

123
Q

MCC asymmetric IUGR

A

Poor maternal health, placental insufficiency, multiple gestations

124
Q

MC initial finding in IUGR

A

Abdominal circumference <10% for GA

125
Q

AFI in oligohydramnios

A

2 cm

126
Q

AFI in polyhydramnios

A

> 25 cm or one pocket >8 cm

127
Q

MCC first trimester oligohydramnios

A

Often results in spontaneous abortion

128
Q

MCC second trimester oligohydramnios

A

Fetal renal abnl
Maternal HTN/CVD
Placental thrombosis

129
Q

MCC third trimester oligohydramnios

A

PROM, abruption
Preeclampsia
Idiopathic

130
Q

MCC polyhydramnios

A
Insufficient fetal swallowing (GI abnl)
Increased fetal urination (maternal DM)
Multiple gestation
Fetal anemia
Chromosomal abnl
131
Q

Complications oligohydramnios

A

Spontaneous abortion / IUFD

Abnl limb/face/lung/abdomen from compression

132
Q

PROM vs PPROM

A

Spontaneous ROM before onset of labor (PPROM = before 37 weeks)

133
Q

Labs for PROM

A

β€œFerning” on slide

Nitrazine paper turns blue (non-specific)

134
Q

Signs of fetal lung maturity

A

L:S ratio >2 + presence of phosphatidylglycerol (PG) in amniotic fluid

135
Q

Signs of chorioamnionitis

A

Fever +

Maternal HR >100, fetal HR >160, maternal WBC >15K, uterine tenderness or foul smelling discharge

136
Q

2 OB complications that can lead to DIC

A

IUFD (if fetus remains for extended time)

Abruptio placenta

137
Q

Preterm labor

A

<37 weeks

138
Q

MCC vaginal bleeding after 20 weeks

A

Placenta previa (painless) and abruptio (painful)

139
Q

Higher B-hCG than expected

A

Molar pregnancy

Multiple gestations

140
Q

Painless heavy or irregular vaginal bleeding during first or second trimester + hyperemesis gravidarum

A

R/o molar pregnancy

141
Q

Preeclampsia <20 weeks gestation

A

Molar pregnancy

142
Q

Expulsion of β€œgrape-like” vesicles from vagina

A

Molar pregnancy

143
Q

β€œSnow-storm” appearance on US w/o gestational sac

A

Molar pregnancy

144
Q

Uterine mass on US w/ mix of hemorrhagic and necrotic areas and possible parametrial invasion

A

Choriocarcinoma

145
Q

MC sites of mets for hydatidiform mole or choriocarcinoma

A

Lungs
Liver and brain = worse prognoses
Kidney, GI for choriocarcinoma

146
Q

Workup for infertile couple

A

1) Semen analysis (30-40%)
2) Anovulation workup (20%)
3) Hysterosalpingogram to r/o anatomic issue (30%)

147
Q

Normal non-stress test

A

15 bpm accelerations x 15 sec x 2 in 20 min

148
Q

BPP scoring

A
NST
AFI
Fetal movement
Fetal breathing
Fetal tone
8-10 is reassuring, under that suggests fetal distress
149
Q

Decelerations that begin and end w/ uterine contractions, rounded

A

Early (usu head compression)

150
Q

Decelerations that begin any time and last different amounts of time, v-shaped

A

Variable (usu cord compression)

151
Q

Decelerations that begin after uterine contraction starts and end after it finishes, check mark-shaped

A

Late (possible sign of uteroplacental insufficiency and fetal hypoxia)

152
Q

Stage 1 of labor, latent phase

A

Start until 4 cm dilation and complete effacement

Stops and starts, gradual, variable

153
Q

Stage 1 of labor, active phase

A

4 cm to complete 10 cm dilation w/ constant progression

>1.2 cm/hr (null) or >1.5 cm/hr (multi)

154
Q

Stage 2 of labor

A

Fetal descent through birth canal

<1 hr (multi) (add 1 hr for epidural)

155
Q

Stage 3 of labor

A

Neonatal delivery until placental delivery, <30 min

156
Q

Stage 4 of labor

A

1 hr after lab, monitor mom hemodynamically

157
Q

Induction of labor, Bishop score

A

3 has 15%

Fetal station, cervical dilation, effacement, consistency and position

158
Q

Apgar scores

A

1 and 5 minutes, 0/1/2 points each
>7 (1 min) and >9 (5 min) reassuring
Appearance (blue/pink + blue extremities/pink)
Pulse (none/100)
Grimace (none/grimace/strong cry to pain)
Activity (none/some/active)
Respirations (none/poor weak cry/good strong cry)

159
Q

Small, red, tender area on breast during breastfeeding

A

Galactocele

160
Q

Larger, circumscribed area of redness and warmth on breast during breastfeeding + fever and +WBC

A

Mastitits

161
Q

Uterine tenderness postpartum day 1-7 w/ fever, foul lochia

A

Postpartum endometritis

162
Q

Immediately postpartum or during labor sudden-onset hypoxia, cardiogenic shock, DIC

A

Amniotic fluid embolism

163
Q

Postpartum bleeding >500 cc + anemia + lack of breast milk when attempting to breastfeed

A

Sheehan syndrome