ATM Flashcards
1
Q
When is wake turbulence separation applied?
A
When aircraft are using:
- The same runway, whether full length or intermediate
- Parallel runways separated by less than 760m, full or intermediate
- The projected flight path of the aircraft will cross the projected flight path of the first aircraft at the same altitude or less than 1000ft below.
- Crossing runways if the projected flight path of the aircraft will cross the projected flight path of the first aircraft at the same altitude or less than 1000ft below.
- An intermediate departure is as follows:
The second aircraft is departing from: An intermediate part of the same runway or an intermediate part of a parallel runway separated by less than 760m
2
Q
What are the wake turbulence separations for a/c departing from an intermediate point?
A
L/M behind heavy= 3 mins
L behind M= 3 mins
L/M behind J= 4 mins
H behind J= 3 mins
ie just add one minute to the normal departure separations
3
Q
What are the wake turbulence separations for a/c heading in opposite directions?
A
L/M following H= 2 mins
L following M= 2 mins
L/M following J= 3 mins
- Departing on the opposite runway heading.
- Is landing in the opposite direction on the same runway. or;
- Is landing in the opposite direction on a parallel runway separated by less than 760m
4
Q
What are the wake turbulence separations for arriving aircraft when using a displaced threshold?
A
Arr L/M behind a H dep= 2mins
Arr L behind M dep= 2mins
Arr L/M behind J dep= 3 mins
or
Dep L/M behind a H arr= 2mins
Dep L behind a M arr= 2mins
Dep L/M behind J arr= 3mins
If projected flight paths are expected to cross.
5
Q
What are the wake turbulence separation minima for arriving aircraft for a light landing behind a heavy or medium?
A
Light landing behind a heavy/medium=3 minutes
6
Q
What are the wake turbulence separation minima for arriving aircraft for a light landing behind a super?
A
Light landing behind a super= 4 minutes
7
Q
What are the wake turbulence separation minima for arriving aircraft for a medium landing behind a heavy?
A
Medium landing behind a heavy= 2 minutes
8
Q
What is the wake turbulence separation for a medium landing behind a Super for arriving aircraft?
A
Medium landing behind a Super= 3 minutes
9
Q
What are the wake turbulence separation minima for arriving aircraft?
A
Medium landing behind a Super= 3 minutes
Medium landing behind a heavy= 2 minutes
Light landing behind a super= 4 minutes
Light landing behind a heavy/medium=3 minutes
10
Q
What are the wake turbulence separations for Departing A/C when not intermediate when a light/ medium is departing behind a super?
A
L/M behind J= 3 mins
11
Q
What are the wake turbulence separations for Departing A/C when not intermediate when a light is departing behind a medium?
A
L behind M= 2mins
12
Q
What are the wake turbulence separations for Departing A/C when not intermediate when a light or medium aircraft is departing behind a heavy?
A
L/M behind H= 2 mins
13
Q
What are the wake turbulence separations for Departing A/C when not intermediate when a heavy is departing behind a super?
A
H behind J= 2 mins
14
Q
What are the wake turbulence separations for Departing A/C when not intermediate?
A
H behind J= 2 mins
L/M behind H= 2 mins
L behind M= 2mins
L/M behind J= 3 mins
15
Q
What a/c have to carry TCAS?
A
According to ICAO ACAS II SARPS;
All a/c with a MTOW of more than 5,700kgs or the capacity to carry more than 19 passengers must have ACAS II, currently the only system that meets the specs of this SARP is TCAS II
16
Q
What is ACAS?
A
Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS) An aircraft system based on SSR transponder signals which operates independently of ground based equipment to provide advice to the pilot on potential conflicting traffic that are equipped with SSR transponders.
TCAS II (v7.1)
17
Q
What is the latest version of TCAS?
A
TCAS II (v7.1)
18
Q
How does TCAS work?
A
TCAS II uses range and altitude data obtained by interrogating other aircraft transponders to determine the possibility of collision (the bubble around the aircraft). TCAS II is also able to present bearing information of aircraft intruding into your airspace (the bubble), but uses this information on the display only to assist in visual acquisition of an intruder.
When range and altitude of an intruder are computed and a collision risk is predicted, TCAS II will declare the intruder a “threat” and give manoeuvre advice in visual and aural form. Avoidance manoeuvres using TCAS II are in the vertical plane only. Bearing information produced by TCAS II does not possess the accuracy necessary for determining horizontal avoidance manoeuvres.
TCAS relies on a functioning transponder as all functions use SSR data!!
19
Q
What transponder modes does TCAS use?
A
Mode A/C Transponders Give both Traffic Advisory and Resolution Advisory, but only if Mode C available but any manoeuvre may not be in the logical sense.
Mode S Transponders - communicate’ with each other and ‘agree’ a course of action.
20
Q
Where is the TCAS data displayed?
A
Vertical speed indicator visual display
21
Q
What would you expect a pilot to do on receipt of a TA?
A
Nothing as of yet, they may request specific traffic information on the intruder and prepare for possible RA (heightened alert)
22
Q
What must pilots do on receipt of an RA?
A
Respond immediately to the instructions (unless this would compromise safety) doing only the minimum necessary to resolve the confliction. The pilot shall advise ATC ASAP and return to previous clearance once clear of conflict.
23
Q
What are the level limitations associated with TCAS TA’s and RA’s?
A
Enhanced RA “Increase Descent” is inhibited below 1450ft AGL.
A Descend RA is inhibited below 1100ft AGL.
All RAs inhibited below 1000ft AGL.
All spoken messages inhibited below 500ft AGL.
RAs also inhibited when some GPWS or Windshear warnings are active.
24
Q
What is the Controller reponse to a pilot experiencing an RA?
A
Roger
25
At what point after an RA does the controller become responsible for the standard separation of the a/c experiencing the RA?
once
1. The controller acknowledges a report from the flight crew that the aircraft has resumed the current clearance, or;
2. The controller acknowledges a report from the flight crew that the aircraft is resuming he current clearance and issues an alternative clearance which is acknowledged by the flight crew.
26
Once off of an operational position what must a controller do in response to an RA?
File a MOR report
27
What are the visual display symbols associated with TCAS?
28
What is the maximum time before CPA that TCAS will issue an TA
25 seconds
600ft
29
What is the maximum time before CPA that TCAS will issue an RA?
40 seconds
850ft
30
What should you do if a pilot reports a GPWS or TAWS manoeuvre?
Do not interfere until pilot says he has completed the maneouvre, transmit the pressure setting when appropriate to ensure they have the correct one.
31
Define an aerodrome control tower?
A unit established to provide air traffic control service to aerodrome traffic
32
Define aerodrome traffic
All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome
33
Define Air Traffic
All aircraft in flight or operating on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome
34
What are the functions of aerodrome control towers?
shall issue
Information and clearances to aircraft under their control to achieve a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic on and in the vicinity of an aerodrome with the object of preventing collisions between;
1. A/C Flying within the designated area of responsibility of the control tower, including aerodrome traffic
2. A/C operating on the manoeuvring area
3. A/c landing and taking-off
4. A/c and vehicles operating on the manoeuvring area
35
What shall Aerodrome controllers do?
maintain a continous watch on all flight operations on and in the vicinity of an aerodrome as well as vehicles and personnel on the manoeuvring area.
By visual observation aided in low vis conditions by an ATS surveillance system when available.
36
What are the responsiblities of the aerodrome controller?
Operations on the runway and a/c flying within the area of responsibility of the tower
37
What are the responsibilities of the ground controller?
For traffic on the manoeuvring area with the exception of the runways
38
What are the responsibilities of the clearance delivery position?
For delivery of start up and ATC clearances to departing IFR flights
39
How are aircraft categorised with regards to reduced runway separation minima?
_Cat 1_
-single-engine propeller aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of **2000 kg or less.**
_Cat 2_
- single-engine propeller aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of more than **2000 kg** but less that **7000 kg**; and
- twin-engine propeller aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of less than **7000 kg.**
_Cat 3_
-All other a/c
40
What are the reduced runway separation minima for a/c landing after?
1. A succeeding landing Category 1 aircraft may cross the runway threshold when the preceding aircraft is a Category 1 or 2 aircraft which either:
i) has landed and passed a point at least 600 m from the threshold of the runway, is in motion and will vacate the runway without back-tracking; or
ii) is airborne and has passed a point at least 600 m from the threshold of the runway;
2. A succeeding landing Category 2 aircraft may cross the runway threshold when the preceding aircraft is a Category 1 or 2 aircraft which either:
i) has landed and has passed a point at least 1500 m from the threshold of the runway, is in motion and will vacate the runway without back-tracking; or
ii) is airborne and has passed a point at least 1500 m from the threshold of the runway;
3. A succeeding landing aircraft may cross the runway threshold when a preceding Category 3 aircraft:
i) has landed and has passed a point at least 2400 m from the threshold of the runway, is in motion and will vacate the runway without back-tracking; or
ii) is airborne and has passed a point at least 2400 m from the threshold of the runway;
* In any event each runway will have its own minima published in MATS 2 and these are the absolute minimum*
41
What are the reduced runway separation minima for a/c departing behind another departure?
1. a Category 1 aircraft may be cleared for take-off when the preceding departing aircraft is a Category 1 or 2 aircraft which is airborne and has passed a point at least 600 m from the position of the succeeding aircraft;
2. a Category 2 aircraft may be cleared for take-off when the preceding departing aircraft is a Category 1 or 2 aircraft which is airborne and has passed a point at least 1,500 m from the position of the succeeding aircraft; and
3. an aircraft may be cleared for take-off when a preceding departing Category 3 aircraft is airborne and has passed a point at least 2,400 m from the position of the succeeding aircraft.
* Note each runway will have its own minima and these are the absolute minimum*
**Consideration should be given to increased separation between high performance single-engine aircraft and preceding Category 1 or 2 aircraft.**
42
What is an alerting service?
A service provided for notifying appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of SAR aid and assisting such organisation as required.
43
What are tower controllers responsible for alerting the RFFS about?
1. An a/c accident at or in the vicinity of the aerodrome
2. Info that the safety of an a/c has been impaired
3. Requested by flight crew
4. When otherwise deemed necessary
44
What must aerodrome control towers do in the event of a failure or irregularity of aids and equipment?
Shall immediately report in accordance with local instructions that failure or irregularity
45
What factors can determine the runway in use?
* MET conditions
* Safety
* Available aids (approach and landing)
* Air traffic conditions
* Runway declared distances
* Noise abatement
46
When is noise abatement no longer a determining factor in runway selection?
* Runway surface conditions affected by snow, ice slush etc
* For take-off when vis is less than 1900m
* Windshear has been reported or forecast
* Thunderstorms are expected to affect the approach or departure areas
* Crosswind component including gust exceeds 15kt
* Tailwind component including gusts exceeds 5kt
* Cloud Ceiling is lower than 500ft Above Aerodrome Elevation or vis is less than 1900m
* When the approach requires use to be made of vertical minima greater than 300ft AAL and;
- Ceiling is lower than 800ft above aerodrome elevation, or;
- Vis is less than 3000m
47
What information regarding an intended unmanned free balloon flight is disseminated by ATSU?
1. The flight ident or project code name
2. Balloon classification and description
3. SSR code or NDB frequency
4. Launch site
5. ETD or planned period of launches
6. Expected direction of ascent
7. Cruising levels
8. The EET to pass 60,000ft
48
What is an ATIS?
Automatic Terminal Information Service
Information to help pilot make decisions about his approach to land or take-off
Should not exceed 30 seconds in length
Reduces RTF
Pressure settings still need a specific readback
49
What does the ATIS contain?
1. Code letter
2. Wx report time
3. Type of approach in use
4. runway
5. Latest METAR
6. Altimeter Settings
7. RVR
8. Essential Aerodrome Info
9. Any siginificant met in approach take-off or climb out areas
10. Trend forecast
11. Specific ATIS instructions
50
What aerodrome information is passed to aircraft prior to taxiing for take-off?
In order listed
1. Runway in use
2. Surfaace wind direction and speed (not usually done in UK)
3. QNH (or QFE if requested)
4. Air temp (for turbine aircraft)
5. Visibility Representative of airection of take off and initial climb if less than 10km or RVR
6. The correct time
*Also Essential Aerodrome Info is to be passed, Heavy a/c must not require more than normal power*
51
Prior to take-off what info must an aircraft be advised of?
1. Any significant changes in the surface wind direction and speed, the air temp and the vis or RVR values
2. Significant met conditions in the take-off and climb out area except if already received by a/c
52
What information does an aircraft need prior to entering the traffic circuit or commencing to land?
1. The runway to be used
2. Surface wind direction and speed including any significant variations therefrom
3. The QNH or the QFE
53
When is Essential Local Traffic Information passed?
Shall be issued when in the judgement of the aerodrome controller, such information is necessary in the interests of dafety, or when requested by a/c.
54
What is Essential Local Traffic information?
Any information regarding;
1. any a/c, vehicle or personnel on or near the manoeuvring area, or
2. traffic operating in the vicinity of the aerodrome
Which may constitute a hazard to the a/c concerned
55
What should controllers do if they become aware of an obstruction on the runway or an incursion of the runway?
1. Cancel the take-off clearance for a departing aircraft
2. Instruct a landing aircraft to execute a go-around or missed approach
3. In all cases, inform the aircraft of the runway incursion or obstruction and its location in relation to the runway.
56
What should a pilot do if he becomes unsure of his position on the manoeuvring area?
He shall immediately
* Stop the aircraft and
* Simultaneously notify the appropriate ATS unit of the circumstances.
57
What should a pilot do if he becomes unsure of his position on the manoeuvring area and he thinks he is on the runway?
1. Notify the appropriate ATS unit of the circumstances (including last known position)
2. If able to locate a nearby suitable taxiway, vacate the runway asap unless otherwise instructed
3. Stop the aircraft.
58
What should a driver of a vehicle do if uncertain of his position on the manoeuvring area?
1. Notify appropriate ATSU
2. Simultaneously, unless otherwise instructed, vacate the manoeuvring area and move to a safe distance
3. Stop the vehicle.
59
What would you do if you became aware of the abnormal condition or configuration of an aircraft?
Adivse the pilot immediately.
60
What should you do if a departing aircraft suspects damage to the aircraft?
Arrange for the runway to be inspected without delay and then advise the flight crew asap as to whether anything was found.
61
What can trigger an aerodrome warning?
* Thunderstorm
* Hail
* Snow
* Freezing precipitation
* Hoar frost or rime ice
* sand/dust storm
* rising sand or dust
* strong surface wind and gusts
* squall
* frost
* volcanic ash
* tropical cyclone
* Other phenomena as agreed locally
62
What is normally associated with windshear warnings?
* Thunderstorms
* Microbursts
* Funnel clouds
* Frontal surfaces
* Strong surface winds coupled with local topography or sea breezes
* Mountain waves
* low level temperature inversions
63
What methods for detecting windshear are there?
1. Ground based wind shear sensing equipment
2. Ground based wind shear detection equipment
3. A/C observations
4. Other met info
64
Who prepares wind shear warnings and what do they contain?
Prepared by the Met Office
* Observed or expected existence of windshear that can affect aircraft on ;
- approach path, take-off or circling approach
- between runway level and 1600ft level
- A/c on the runay during landing roll or take-off
65
When do we stop passing windshear reports?
* When a/c reports that it no longer exists, or
* after an agreed elapsed time.
Defined locally
66
What is Essential Aerodrome Information?
That information concerning the state of the manoeuvring area and its associated facilities which may constitute a hazard to a/c.
Must be passed in time to allow the information to be acted upon if necessary
67
Give examples of Essential Aerodrome Information
1. Construction or maintenance work on, or immediately adjacent to movement area
2. Rough or broken surfaces on a runway, a taxiway or an apron
3. snow, slush or ice on the movement area
4. Water on the movement area
5. Snow banks or drifts adjacent to the movement area.
6. Other temporary hazards, including parked a/c and birds on the ground or in the air.
7. failure/irregular operation of part or all of the AGL or approach aids
8. Information on de-icing, sweeping and sanding of runways, taxiways in snow and ice conditions
9. Braking action
10. Any other pertinent information
68
To whom do we pass Essential Aerodrome Information?
To every a/c (except those known to have already received the information from other sources eg NOTAMS, ATIS)
Shall be passed in sufficient time for the a/c to make use of the info.
69
What shall taxi clearances contain?
Concise instructions and adequate information so as to assist the flight crew;
* To follow the correct taxi routes
* To avoid collision with other aircraft objects and
* To minimize the potential for the a/c inadvertantly entering an active runway
70
Authorisation to enter the manoeuvring area
The movement of pedestrians or vehicles on the manoeuvring area shall be subject to authorisation by the control tower. Persons including drivers, shall be required to obtain authorisation from the aerodrome control tower before entry to the manoeuvring area.
Notwithstanding such an authorisation, entry to a runway or runway strip or change in the operation shall be subject to further authorisation from the control tower.
71
What do green flashes from an Aldis lamp from the tower mean?
Permission to cross the landing area or to move onto the taxiway
72
What does a steady red from an Aldis lamp from the tower mean?
Stop
73
What do red flashes from an Aldis lamp from the tower mean?
Move off the landing area or taxiway and watch out for aircraft
74
What do white flashes from an Aldis lamp from the tower mean?
Vacate the manoeuvring area in accordance with local instructions/ return to starting point.
75
What does it mean when the control tower flashes the runway or taxiway lights?
Vacate the runway and observe the tower for a light signal
76
Who has priority between a landing aircraft or a departure?
The landing one.
77
When is an arriving aircraft cleared to cross the threshold?
* When a preceding departing a/c has crossed the end of the runway
* When a preceding departing aircraft has begun a turn
* When the preceding landing a/c has vacated the runway
Obviously this doesn't apply if you are using reduced runway separation.
78
When can the actual clearance to land be issued?
When there is **reasonable** assurance that the separations required will be achieved by the time the aircraft crosses the threshold.
79
Can heavy a/c be cleared to land long?
no
80
If the aerodrome is not able to notify enforcement of LVP's how can a controller transmit that information over the radio?
"Low visibility procedures are/are not yet in force"
## Footnote
**no abbreviation!**
81
Who decides to implement LVP's?
The aerodrome controller
82
When do LVP's commence?
When vis or cloud ceiling drop below prescribed minima and all appropriate measure have been taken to safeguard ILS critical areas.
83
Are controllers able to enforce the operating minimas in LVP'S?
no
They can however report any breaches if they believe it has endangered aircraft
84
What spacing do we expect between arrivals during LVP's?
10 miles
85
When will Approach pass a range check to you regarding a/c inbound during LVP's?
15 miles
86
What spacing will there be between arrivals if you have departures as well during LVP's?
15 miles
87
Why do we need to increase spacing?
1. Departing Traffic will taxi more slowly in the fog and will therefore spend more time taxiing
2. Cat II and II holding points are further from the runway and a/c therefore need more time to line up
3. Intermediate holding points and fast turn-offs are closed during LCP's and a/c must roll to the end
4. The a/c are not visible to the controller making it harder to make judgements and decisions.
5. Departing traffic will overfly the ILS localiser and may distort the beam
6. In LVP conditions, it is a requirement that landing clearance is given to the pilot no later than 4 miles.
88
Can landing aircraft vacate at intermediate taxiways during LVP's?
No they must roll to the end.
89
By what range must a landing aircraft recevie a landing clearance during LVP's?
4 miles
90
What vehicles are permitted on the manoeuvring area during LVP's?
only those which are essential and driven by formally tested and authorised drivers
91
What shall you do to prevent accidental runway incursions?
1. Restrict taxiway to a single route apron to runway and vice versa
2. Close intermediate junctions
3. Use SMR
4. Controllers shall advise pilots of the implementation and cancellation of LVP's
92
What is the longitudinal separation no the taxiways?
Specified at each unit.
93
Below what RVR do CAT II or III operations take place?
550m
94
For CAT II or III LVP's what must be specified?
* The RVR values at which the LVP's shall be implemented
* The min ILS/MLS equipment requirements for the operations
* Other facilities and aids required for Cat II/III operations including AGL
* Criteria for downgrading of MLS/ILS equipment from CAT II/III ops if required.
* Requirement to report any relevant failure and degradation
* Procedures for the control of traffic on the manoeuvring area (inlcuding the runway positions to be used, min distances between arr and dep a/c to ensure protection of sensitive areas of ILS, procedures to verify runway vacation, sep of vehicles and a/c)
* Applicable spacing between successive arriving aircraft
* Any other relevant procedures or requirements.
95
In what order are departing aircraft normally cleared for departure?
In the order in which they are ready for departure
96
What other factors can determine the order of take-off?
* A/c types and their performance
* Routes to be followed
* Any MDI's
* Need to apply wake turbulence sep
* A/c priority
* A/C subject to ATFM requirements (slots)
97
When can a succeeding aircraft be departed?
* When preceding departing a/c has crossed the end of the runway in use
* When preceding departing a/c has made a turn
* When preceding arriving aircraft has vacated the runway
98
When can you actually issue the take off clearance?
When there is reasonable assurance that the required separations will exist by the time the aircraft actually starts its take-off roll.
99
What do we as aerodrome controllers coordinate with Approach?
Departing IFR flights
Arriving aicraft which first call us
100
What are approach responsible for coordinating with aerodrome?
* A/c approaching to land
* Arriving a/c which are cleared to VRP's
* A/C routing through the traffic cct
101
What shall Aerodrome Controllers coordinate with other aerodromes?
CCT directions to ensure they do not conflict.
102
What information shall approach control pass to aerodrome?
* Pertinent data on all flights including the type of flight and level of arriving a/c
* The anticipated order in which control of a/c is to be transferred
* Anticipated delay to dep IFR flights together with reason for delay.
103
In what circumstances may IFR flights operating with visual reference to the ground be transferred to aerodrome?
1. A/c on instrument approach no 1 to land and for following a/c when established on final approach with appropriate sep from preceding a/c
2. A/C operating in cct
3. A/C approaching visually below all cloud when the reported aerodrome Vis is 10km or more
104
Should VFR traffic be directed to VRP's?
No as they are often overflown by other aircraft, especially outside of controlled airspace where the traffic environment will be unknown.
They should not be used to hold VFR outside of controlled airspace either.
105
When shall Aerodrome control transfer comms of aircraft to approach?
1. In VMC prior to the a/c leaving the vicinity of the aerodrome or entering IMC
2. In IMC immediately after it is airborne.
106
When can approach transfer comms of aircraft to aerodrome control?
When the aircraft is no 1 to land and
* For following a/c when they are established on final and appropriate sep exists from the preceding a/c
107
When does responsibility for sep between a/c change from approach to aerodrome?
Until such time as the a/c are flying with visual reference to the ground. Aerodrome must ensure they do not pass any instructions or advice which would reduce the sep established by approach.
