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AUBF Flashcards

1
Q

Asahina, a registered medical technologist, is suspecting presence of oval fat bodies and fat droplets in a urine specimen. What stain must she use to demonstrate presence of
these sediments?

A

Sudan III stain

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2
Q

Presence of B-hydroxybutyric acid in urine specimen will give you what result on Rothera’s test?

A

No purple ring formed: it should not contain keto group (according
sa internet

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3
Q

How many hours of sexual abstinence should the patient observe prior to specimen collection?

A

48 to 120 hours

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4
Q

Which of the following tests for proteins is not based on denaturation and precipitation of proteins in urine?

A

Reagent strip test

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5
Q

All of the following can cause xanthochromia in CSF except?

A

: Increased numbers of white blood cells

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6
Q

What is the specific gravity of an isosthenuric urine on consecutive urinalysis?

A

: 1.010

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7
Q

Which of the following terms indicate the presence of blood in urine?

A

hematuria

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8
Q

What is the confirmatory test for elevated alpha-fetoprotein?

A

Amniotic acetylcholinesterase

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9
Q

What is the confirmatory test for elevated alpha-fetoprotein?

A

Amniotic acetylcholinesterase

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9
Q

What type of proteinuria occurs after several hours of prolonged standing?

A

orthostatic

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10
Q

What urine analyte is detected by reagent strips using Greiss reaction?

A

nitrite

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11
Q

What is the best method of preserving urine specimens for analysis?

A

Refrigeration

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12
Q

Which of the following artifacts is the most commonly found in urine and other body fluids & is characterized as having a dimple center?

A

Starch granules

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13
Q

On macroscopic examination of the physical characteristics and pH of the seminal fluid specimen of a 32 year old male, the following results were obtained:
Liquefaction: coagulation did not occur
Color: white
Viscosity: watery
Volume: 4.0 ml
pH: 7.2
Which of the above results s/are not normal?

A

Viscosity and liquefaction

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14
Q

Elevated level of adenosine deaminase in pleural fluid suggests what disease?

A

tuberculosis

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15
Q

All of the following can result in inaccurate urine pH measurements using reagent strip EXCEPT:

A

Choices are: double dipping of the reagent strip into the specimen &
Maintaning the specimen at room temperature for 4 hours

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16
Q

A medical technologist performed a STAT microscopic urinalysis and reported the following:
WBC: 10-13/hpf
RBC: 2-6/hpf
Hyaline Cast: 5-7/lpf
Bacteria: 1+
The urine sediment was not discarded and was reexamined microscopically 5 hours after the results were reported. A second technologist reported the same results, except
2+ bacteria and no hyaline cast were found. The most probable explanation for the second technologist’s findings:

A

Cast dissolved due to increase urine pH

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17
Q

A midstream clean-catch urine is submitted to the laboratory for routine urinalysis and bacterial culture. The routine urinalysis is done first, and 3 hours later, the specimen
is sent to the microbiology department for culture. As the medical technologist on duty, what is your course of action for the said specimen?

A

Reject it due to time delay and contamination

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18
Q

After a successful lumbar tap, what department is tube labeled 2 routinely sent to?

A

Microbiology

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19
Q

What cast indicates the mildest renal damage and a few being found after strenuous physical exertion?

A

hyaline cast

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20
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the recommended urine containers?

A

snap-on lid

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21
Q

What is the single most important measure of semen quality?

A

Sperm motility

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22
Q

What is the purpose of boiling the urine until the volume is reduced to 10 ml in Hart’s test?

A

removal of acetone & acetoacetic acid

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23
Q

What urine analyte has the longest time frame of reaction in a reagent strip?

A

leukocyte esterase

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24
Q

Which of the following chemical tests will not detect bilirubin & bile pigments in urine?

A

Acetest Tablet test

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25
Q

A 52-year-old man has painful swelling in both knees. He is hospitalized and an arthrocentesis is scheduled for the following morning. In the morning, a fasting blood sugar
is drawn for routine chemistry tests. Synovial fluid is aspirated from the left knee and submitted to the laboratory.
Blood Chemistry results:
fasting glucose – 85 mg/dL
uric acid – 12.7 mg/dL
Synovial fluid results:
Appearance: cloudy, yellow
Viscosity: low
Microscopic analysis: many intracellular needle-shaped crystals with negative birefringence (yellow)
Glucose: 55 mg/dL
Uric acid: 12.4 mg/dL
Gram stain: negative
The above results are most consistent with a diagnosis of which of the following disorders?

A

gouty arthritis

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26
Q

Salt and acetic test performed on urine of a 30 year old woman yields Positive (2+) result, what is the exact description of the result?

A

Precipitates is ¼ - ½ of solution

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27
Q

What does it mean if the microscope used has a higher numerical aperture?

A

Better light-gathering capacity of the lens

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28
Q

Which of the following solutions should NOT be used to clean the microscope lenses?

A

distilled water

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29
Q

Approximately 75% of the renal calculi that form in patients contain which of the following substances?

A

calcium

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30
Q

Why do we have to remove the reagent strip immediately from the specimen?

A

to avoid run-over between pads

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31
Q

Based on what you had learned, the kidneys play an important role in which of the following functions?
1) Excretion of waste products
2) Maintenance of acid-base equilibrium
3) regulation of water & electrolyte balance
4) control of blood pressure & fluid balance

A

all are correct

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32
Q

What is the pH of a normal seminal fluid?

A

7.2-8.0

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33
Q

Robe Villegas, a middle aged man had several episodes of unbearable headaches after surviving a terrible fall. Recently, his physician requested for CSF analysis. His
laboratory results showed:
Total CSF Protein: 30 g/dL
CSF Lactate: 27 mg/dL
Predominant cell in differential count: macrophages with remnants of RBCs
Based on the laboratory results and history of patient, what specific disorder does patient Robe have?

A

intracranial hemorrhage

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34
Q

Which of the following should be done to preserve the integrity of the reagent strips?

A

Store in a tightly capped container

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35
Q

Pathologic accumulation of serous fluid in a body cavity is called

A

effusion

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36
Q

Calculate the total sperm count given the following information.
sperm cells counted in 5 RBC squares of hemocytometer= 35
Dilution= 1:20
semen volume= 4 mL

A

140 million sperms/mL

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37
Q

What should be done to a pregnancy test result when the lines developed are very faint or light?

A

It should be reported as positive

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38
Q

A 3 ml seminal fluid is submitted to the laboratory for sperm count. The medical technologist counted 443 sperm in 2 WBC squares. The sample is diluted 1:20. Compute
for the sperm cells per ejaculate count

A

132,900,000

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39
Q

Which of the following crystals is considered non-pathologic?

A

ammonium biurate

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40
Q

The chemical principle employed by reagent strips for detection of glucose is?

A

Glucose oxidase reaction

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41
Q

Which of the following results in a reagent strip signifies that the patient has hemolytic disorders?

A

positive urobilinogen

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42
Q

Arielle, a licensed medical technologist, received a slightly hazy urine specimen that turned black upon standing. It has a specific gravity of 1.030 and has easily
disappearing foam observed. What is the major concern regarding this sample?

A

color

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43
Q

A technologist observes a 1+ protein reaction on the dipstick when performing a routine urinalysis. What should the technologist do?

A

Confirm the result using sulfosalicylic acid

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44
Q

Which of the following urinary crystals-description pairs is NOT correctly matched?

A

Calcium phosphate – coffin-lid shape

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45
Q

For an accurate evaluation of CSF glucose, a blood glucose test must be run for comparison. When should the Medical Technologist draw blood for glucose determination?

A

2 hours before lumbar tap

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46
Q

What is the clarity of a well-mixed urine specimen that has visible particulate matter & through which newsprint can be seen but not read

A

Cloudy

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47
Q

How much urine specimen is required for Pettenkofer test?

A

2 mL

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48
Q

Which of the following test results with Iodine indicates presence of increased amount of urobilin in urine?

A

Greenish fluorescence

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49
Q

A red orange to brick red solution was formed after performing Benedict’s test on urine sample. It was graded 4+ by a MedTech, what is the estimated concentration of
glucose in the urine?

A

> 2 g%

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50
Q

Which of the following might cause the urine to be cloudy?
1. white blood cells
2. bacteria
3. non-squamous epithelial cells
4. hemoglobin

A

Bacteria

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51
Q

During microscopic examination of urine sediments, how can you tell that the pH of urine is acidic?

A

There are amorphous urates and/or uric acid

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52
Q

5-HIAA is a degradation product of ?

A

serotonin

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53
Q

All of the following diseases could cause a positive result for urine glucose except?

A

Osteoarthritis

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54
Q

Sperm motility evaluation is routinely performed when?

A

within 1 hour of collection

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55
Q

What is the reference value for CSF lactate?

A

10-24 mg/dL

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56
Q

Which of the following renal disorders frequently occurs following a bacterial infection of the skin or throat?

A

acute glomerulonephritis

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57
Q

What would be the implication of delayed delivery and analysis of urine specimen?

A

decreased glucose concentration

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58
Q

Which of the following methods does not measure urine specific gravity?

A

Spectrophotometry

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59
Q

A medical technologist will perform a sperm count but while preparing he/she noticed that the diluting reagent is not available. What is the best substitute for the diluting
fluid?

A

Cold water

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60
Q

Spermatogenesis occurs in the seminiferous tubules but where does development of flagella takes place?

A

Epididymis

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61
Q

What crystal is described as a sphere covered in spicules?

A

ammonium biurate

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62
Q

What condition is characterized by excretion of porphyrins in urine that makes the urine appear dark red or purple? This condition is also referred to as the origin of the
legend of vampires in Romania.

A

porphyria

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63
Q

A spike in 450 nm was observed after an amniotic fluid is subjected to spectrophotometry. What does it indicate?

A

Fetus is suffering from HDN.

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64
Q

Presence of urobilinogen in urine produces which of the following results with Ehrlich’s reagent?

A

Magenta color

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65
Q

Which of the following feature is NOT a distinguishing characteristic of yeast?

A

motility

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66
Q

If urine develops yellow foam on top when it is shaken, what abnormal test result could be expected on the reagent strip?

A

bilirubin

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67
Q

Which of the following urine specimen is most useful when screening for glucosuria?

A

2-hour postprandial specimen

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68
Q

Which of the following correctly describes normal amniotic fluid when subjected to spectrophotometry?

A

Absorbance is highest at 365 nm and decreases linearly at 550 nm.

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69
Q

In which of the following conditions is urobilinogen present in increased amount in urine?
I. Malaria
II. Pernicious anemia
III. Cholelithiasis
IV.Congestive Heart Failure
V.Nephrotic Disease
VI. Infectious Mononucleosis

A

I, II, IV, VI

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70
Q

Which of the following structures are the functional units of the kidneys?

A

Nephrons

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71
Q

WBC casts are most likely indicative of which of the following disorders?

A

pyelonephritis

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72
Q

All of the following are causes of inflammatory joint disorder EXCEPT?

A

Osteoarthritis

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73
Q

While performing analysis of the baby’s urine, the medical technologist smelled its “mousy” odor. Which of the following substances could be excreted in urine that
produces the characteristic “mousy” odor?

A

phenylketones

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74
Q

What is a semen analysis?

A

routine test for infertility

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75
Q

Which of the following conditions refers to presence of intact red blood cells in urine?

A

hematuria

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76
Q

Generalized loss of proximal tubular function is a characteristic of which of the following renal disorder?

A

Fanconi Syndrome

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77
Q

Based on your experience, why is it best to open both eyes during microscopic examination?

A

To avoid eyestrain

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78
Q

Laboratory findings of the blood & urine specimens from an 80-year old man diagnosed of chronic renal failure are as follows:
24-hour urine volume: 1000 mL; serum creatinine: 2.0 mg/dL; urine creatinine: 200 mg/dL
With these findings, what is the calculated glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of the patient assuming that his body surface area is within normal limits?

A

69 mL/min

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79
Q

Based on what you had learned, what were those white precipitates formed when urine was mixed with Sulkowitch reagent?

A

calcium oxalates

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80
Q

Which of the following substances are the primary chemical constituents of a normal urine?

A

water, chloride, urea

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81
Q

Which of the following chemical tests is most frequently performed on synovial fluid?

A

glucose

82
Q

Which of the following pairs of analyte and renal diseases is correctly matched?

A

: ketones – diabetes mellitus

83
Q

What graph is used to plot absorbance difference at 450 nm and gestational age to assess the severity of hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

Liley graph

84
Q

Which of the following correctly describes a Reiter cell?

A

Vacuolated macrophage with ingested neutrophils

85
Q

What are the three renal functions?

A

Filtration
Reabsorption
Secretion

86
Q

Where does water reabsorption take place in the nephron?

A

PCT and DCT

87
Q

Where does reabsorption of glucose take place in the nephron?

A

PCT

88
Q

Which hormone controls reabsorption of water in the distal tubules?

A

Antidiuretic Hormone

89
Q

Which hormone controls reabsorption of sodium?

A

Aldosterone

90
Q

Measurement of the number of solute particles per unit of solvent, irrespective of molecular weight?

A

Osmolality

91
Q

What is widely accepted as the best overall measure of kidney function?

A

Glomerular Filtrate Rate

92
Q

Name a test that is commonly performed to estimate the glomerular filtration rate

A

Creatinine Clearance

93
Q

What is the preferred specimen for routine urinalysis?

A

First Morning Specimen

94
Q

Ideally, how soon after collection should a urine specimen be tested

A

Within 1-2 hours

95
Q

It a measurement of the dissolved solute in the urine and reflects the concentrating ability of the kidneys

A

Specific Gravity

96
Q

Which substances contribute most to specific gravity of normal urine?

A

Urea and Sodium Chloride

97
Q

What is normal specific gravity a random urine?

A

1.001-1.035

98
Q

What is normal specific gravity of a 24hr specimen?

A

1.015-1.025

99
Q

Urine specific gravity is less than 1.010

A

Hyposthenuria

100
Q

What is another name for the refractometer?

A

Total Solid Meter

101
Q

How does the refractometer measure specific gravity?

A

By refractive index

102
Q

Increased urine production

A

Diuresis

103
Q

Urine production over 2000 mL per day

A

Polyuria

104
Q

Urine production less than 500 mL per day

A

Oliguria

105
Q

No urine prodcution

A

Anuria

106
Q

How is thee volume of urine produced affected by diabetes mellitus?

A

Increased

107
Q

How is the volume of urine produced affected by diabetes insipidus?

A

Increased

108
Q

What is responsible for the color of normal urine?

A

Urochrome

109
Q

What might cause the urine to be almost colorless (straw)?

A

Dilute urine

110
Q

What might cause the urine to yellow-green?

A

Bilirubin oxidized to biliverdin

111
Q

When is melanin present in the urine?

A

Metastatic Melanin

112
Q

What might cause the urine to be black or brown?

A

Homogentisic acid
Melanin

113
Q

When is homogentisic acid present in the urine?

A

Alkaptonuria

114
Q

What might cause the urine to be port wine colored?

A

Porphyrins

115
Q

What might cause the urine to be smoky in appearance?

A

Red Blood Cells

116
Q

What might cause the urine to be cloudy?

A

White Blood Cells

117
Q

What causes a fruity odor in urine?

A

Ketones

118
Q

How does a vegetarian diet affect the urine pH?

A

Alkaline urine

119
Q

Which protein does reagent strip detect?

A

Albumin

120
Q

Which proteins are detected by the acid precipitation test for protein?

A

Albumin
Bence Jones Proteins

121
Q

Which acid is commonly used to precipitate urine protein?

A

Sulfosalicylic Acid

122
Q

Present in the urine patients with multiple myeloma and Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia?

A

Bence Jones Proteins

123
Q

A benign proteinuria most commonly seen in young adults. It is characterized by protein in urine after standing.

A

Orthostatic Proteinuria

124
Q

What reagents are used in the glucose test on the reagent strip?

A

Glucose oxidase/peroxidase

125
Q

Which sugar does the reagent strip detect?

A

Glucose

126
Q

A defect in the renal tubules’ ability to reabsorb glucose?

A

Renal Glucosuria

127
Q

Which is more sensitive for glucose, the reagent strip or copper reduction test?

A

Reagent Strip

128
Q

What reagent is used to detect ketones on reagent strip?

A

Sodium Nitroprusside

129
Q

Laboratory tests for ketones are usually most sensitive to which ketone?

A

Acetoacetic Acid

130
Q

What reagent is used to detect bilirubin on reagent strip?

A

Diazonium Salts

131
Q

What is the significance of a positive urine bilirubin?

A

Hepatic or post-hepatic jaundice

132
Q

Which type bilirubin can be excreted in the urine?

A

Conjugated/Direct Bilirubin

133
Q

A positive urine bilirubin with a negative urobilinogen is suggestive of what condition?

A

Obstructive Jaundice

134
Q

What us the preferred specimen for a urine urobilinogen?

A

2 hour specimen collected between 2-4pm

135
Q

What reagent is used to detect urobilinogen in the quantitative test?

A

Ehrlich’s reagent

136
Q

How should a specimen for urobilinogen be stored?

A

Dark container

137
Q

Which substances in the urine are light sensitive?

A

Bilirubin
Urobilinogen

138
Q

What is the significance of a positive urine leukocyte esterase test?

A

Urinary Tract Infection

139
Q

What are the most reliable indicators of renal disease?

A

Proteinuria
Casts

140
Q

The colorless precursor of the porphyrins?

A

Porphobilinogen

141
Q

A rapid method to detect porphobilinogen that does not require a separation phase?

A

Hoesch Test

142
Q

Which hormone in the urine is indicative of pregnancy?

A

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

143
Q

At what pH are the formed elements best preserved in urine?

A

Acid

144
Q

Which stain can be used for urine sediment examination?

A

Sternheimer-Malbin

145
Q

In urine sediment examination, which elements are reported per high power field?

A

RBC
WBC

146
Q

The presence of white blood cells in the urine?

A

Pyuria

147
Q

Which type of white blood cells are seen most frequently in the urine sediment with urinary tract infection?

A

Segmented Neutrophil

148
Q

WBCs whose granules demonstrate Brownian movement?

A

Glitter cells

149
Q

What is the significance of crenated RBCs in the urine sediment?

A

Hypertonic urine

150
Q

RBCs that have lost their hemoglobin?

A

Ghost cells

151
Q

What protein is found in all casts?

A

Tamm Horsfall protein

152
Q

A hyaline cast with a tapering end?

A

Cylindroid

153
Q

What is the clinical significance of WBC casts in the urine sediment?

A

Pyelonephritis

154
Q

What is the clinical significance of RBC casts in the urine sediment?

A

Glomerulonephritis

155
Q

What is the clinical significance of epithelial cells in the urine sediment?

A

Renal tubular damage

156
Q

What is the clinical significance of fatty casts in the urine sediment?

A

Nephrotic Syndrome

157
Q

What might cause casts to dissolve?

A

Alkaline urine

158
Q

Most often yeast seen in urine sediment?

A

Candida Albicans

159
Q

Which crystal is the only needle found in alkaline urine?

A

Calcium Phosphate

160
Q

Name two crystals that are seen in the urine with severe liver disease?

A

Leucine
Tyrosine

161
Q

What is the clinical significance of cholesterol crystals in the urine sediment?

A

Nephrotic syndrome

162
Q

Which urinary crystals are birefringent?

A

Calcium oxalate

163
Q

A form of stored iron

A

Hemosiderin

164
Q

Accumulation of a large amount of fluid in a cavity?

A

Effusion

165
Q

Accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity?

A

Ascites

166
Q

An effusion due a systemic disease process

A

Transudate

167
Q

An effusion due a inflammatory process within the body cavity

A

Exudate

168
Q

When might blasts be seen in CSF

A

Acute lymphocytic or Acute myelogenous leukemia

169
Q

Collection of synovial fluid, a normal joint does not have enough fluid for aspiration?

A

Arthrocentesis

170
Q

Neutrophils with small, dark cytoplasmic granules consisting of precipitated rheumatoid factor

A

Ragocytes

171
Q

What disease is diagnosed by a high amniotic fluid bilirubin?

A

Hemolytic disease of the newborn

172
Q

A protein in cervicovaginal secretions of pregnant women that is used to assess the signs and symptoms of preterm labor?

A

Fetal Fibronectin

173
Q

What must occur before semen analysis can begin?

A

Liquefaction

174
Q

How soon after receipt should semen be evaluated for sperm motility

A

Within 1hour

175
Q

What reagents are used to test for occult blood in feces?

A

Orthotoluidine
Guaiac

176
Q

Excess fecal fat caused by poor fat absorption in the intestine?

A

Steotorrhea

177
Q

On what organ is angiotensin 1 converted to angiotensin 2

A

Lungs

178
Q

Aldosterone is one of those hormones whose production is stimulated upon activation of the RAA system. It is responsible for the reabsorption of what substance

A

Sodium

179
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Tubular reabsorption refers to the passage of essential substances from the tubules to the blood for them to be re-circulated in the body

A

True

180
Q

Glomerular filtration tests like creatinine clearance are reported in what unit of measurement

A

mL/min

181
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Majority of glucose reabsorption happens in the distal convoluted tubules

A

False

182
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
In acidotic blood conditions, hydrogen ions are secreted in exchange for reabsorption of sodium and bicarbonate ions

A

True

183
Q

Low sodium level in our body could lead to
___ water retention

A

Low

184
Q

The cellular structure of the glomerulus is composed of three layers. _____ refer to the intertwined foot process of the inner layer of the bowman’s capsule

A

visceral epithelium

185
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Sodium is passively reabsorbed in the descending loop of henle

A

False

186
Q

Which of the following tests is used to assess tubular reabsorption?

A

Specific gravity

187
Q

The glomerulus is surrounded by a structure called the

A

Bowman’s capsule

188
Q

Which of these urinary structures is not involved in the countercurrent mechanism

A

Juxtaglomerular apparatus

189
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Renal threshold of glucose is around 160-180mg/dL

A

True

190
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
The walls ascending loop of henle is impermeable to water

A

True

191
Q

All of the following prevent albumin and other proteins from entering the glomerulus except for

A

Basement membrane

192
Q

Normal renal blood how counts for

A

1200mL/min

193
Q

The glomerulus serves the filtering apparatus of the nephron. The glomerular filtration barrier composed of

A

capillary endothelium, podocytes, basement membrane

194
Q

Glomerular filtration test are corrected if we have dealing with body that vary greatly,
From the average body size of ___ m2

A

1.73

195
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Color indicates the presence of particulate matter in urine

A

False

196
Q

Indicator for alkaline pH/reaction in the urine strip

A

Red

197
Q

What will happen to the urine specific gravity of a little boy who keeps running?

A

Increased

198
Q

Indicator for acidic pH/reaction in the urine strip

A

Blue

199
Q

What will happen to the urine specific gravity in patients with End Stage Renal Disease?

A

Increased

200
Q

Which of the following organizations publishes
guidelines for writing procedures and policies in
the urinalysis?

A

CLSI

201
Q

An acceptable disinfectant for decontamination of blood and body fluid

A

Sodium hypochlorite

202
Q

Centrifuging an uncapped specimen may produce a biological hazard in the form of:

A

Aerosols

203
Q

n automated urinalysis, the specific gravity is measured by:

A

Refractometry

QE REVIEWER (10 decks)

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