Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

QE REVIEWER > Hema > Flashcards

Hema Flashcards

1
Q

Fill in the blanks: Clot retraction is to platelet number and to fibrinogen concentration.

A

Directly proportional; inversely proportional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What test is intended to measure a specific fragment arising from the degradation of cross-linked fibrin?

A

D-Dimer immunoassay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following factors is inhibited by antithrombin?

A

All of the choices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following statements below correctly identifies the similarities and differences between primary hemostasis and secondary hemostasis?
I. Primary hemostasis is activated by release of tissue factor by the damaged endothelial cell, whereas secondary hemostasis is activated when the injury is large enough and subendothelial collagen is exposed.
II. Platelets play a role in both primary and secondary hemostasis.
III. The final product of primary hemostasis is white thrombus, which is composed of platelets and fibrin strands, while the final product of secondary hemostasis is red thrombus which is composed of blood elements and fibrin strands.

A

II only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Platelet function deficiencies are reflected in diminished or absent aggregation. Which of the following aggregation results is true for Bernard-Soulier Syndrome?

A

Normal aggregation with Arachidonic acid and Collagen; Abnormal aggregation with Ristocetin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following are causes of too alkaline smears? I. Leucocytosis with many blasts form
II. Heparin in blood sample
III. Old smear
IV. Prolonged washing V. Inadequate fixation VI. Humid environment

A

I, II and III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Momiji Nishiya is having a hard time in making good quality blood films to be examined by the morning shift staff. In desperation, she endorsed smears that are good in length, smooth transition from thick to thin but appears to be bullet in shaped. What would be course of action of the Medical Technologist to read the slides?

A

He/she would prepare a new one, bullet shaped smears cause uneven distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is indicated by the increase levels of FDPs especially Fragments D and E?

A

Degradation and lysis of fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which process describes the formation of blood cells outside of the bone marrow?

A

Extramedullary hematopoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A 6-month-old female infant presents in the clinic with a congenital giant hemangioma in the posterior region of her neck. She has on the right lower quadrant of her abdomen. Upon laboratory examinations, the following results were obtained: WBC 9.7 × 109/L; RBC 3.3 × 1012/L; Hgb 87 g/L; platelets 23 × 109/L. Schistocytes are also found in the PBS. What is the possible diagnosis for the patient?

A

Kasabach-Merritt syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which best describes the location of heme in each globin chain?

A

Between F8 and E7 histidine residues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the concentration of the NaCl to be used in OFT?

A

0.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In mechanical coagulometry, what is the expected endpoint once fibrin threads are formed in the sample?

A

Slowing movement of the ball

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following factors affect bleeding time?

A

All of the choices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following sites is considered the best site when collecting blood for infants?

A

Lateral or medial plantar surface of the heel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What should be the size of the drop of blood when doing your manual wedge smear?

A

2-3 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which developmental period is responsible for erythropoiesis in the erythropoietic islands?

A

Mesenchymal period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How can medications cause thrombocytopenia?
1 - redistribution of platelet pools
2 - formation of an autoantibody that binds to a specific platelet membrane glycoprotein 3 - increased platelet consumption or sequestration
4 - suppress bone marrow megakaryocyte production

A

2 and 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

An erythroid precursor described to have mixtures of hemoglobin with the blue of RNA in varying shades of gray in its cytoplasm.

A

Rubricyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A bone marrow biopsy was performed as part of the cancer staging protocol for a patient with Hodgkin lymphoma. Although no evidence of spread of the tumor was apparent in the marrow, other abnormal findings were noted, including a slightly elevated myeloid-to-erythroid ratio. WBC and RBC morphology appeared normal. However, the Prussian blue stain showed abundant stainable iron in the marrow macrophages. The patient’s CBC revealed a hemoglobin of 10.8 g/dL (low), but RBC indices were within reference intervals. RBC morphology was unremarkable. These findings would be consistent with which anemia?

A

Sideroblastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

RBC pipette is used for direct platelet count. What is the volume of the RBC pipette bulb?

A

100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

All the following are WBC diluting fluids except which of these?

A

Toisson’s Fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Platelets are counted within what cell volume?

A

2-30 fL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which organ does not produce TPO?

A

All choices produce TPO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which is true of procoagulants in Fibrinogen group

A

They are consumed in coagulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the correction factor used in specimens with a low hematocrit where reticulocytes may be falsely elevated

A

45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Chel, a 78-year-old man presents with a three-year history of an elevated leukocyte count with recent fatigue and anemia. He has received two red blood cell transfusions in the past two months. His past medical history includes coronary artery disease and hypertension. His physical examination is unremarkable. The patient’s white blood cell (WBC) count is 75,000/uL, hemoglobin is 9.3 g/dL, and platelet count is 71,000/uL with a WBC differential including 60% neutrophils, 19% lymphocytes, 15% monocytes, and 6% eosinophils. What is the absolute count of PMNs?

A

45,000/mm3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following apparatus can be used for both determination of ESR and Hematocrit?

A

Wintrobe tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The activity of Factors XII and XI can be determined using what clotting time method?

A

Drop Slide Method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following statements presents the difference between T cells and B cells?

A

T cells function in cellular immunity while B cells function in humoral immunity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

EDTA is not preferred as an anticoagulant in performing assays for hemostasis. Why?

A

Tend to round up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following accelerates the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin?

A

A complex of Xa and Va

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the coagulation protein measured by the 5.0 M urea solubility clot test?

A

Fibrin stabilizing factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When using Wright’s stain, what should be the appearance of the platelets?

A

Gray blue with purple granules and 2-4 μm in size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following is the best possible treatment for a patient with DIC?

A

Resolve the underlying cause of the DIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Each large corner square of the Improved Neubauer counting chamber is further divided into how many smaller squares?

A

16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Why is Factor VII the first to be depleted in Vitamin K antagonism?

A

It has the shortest half-life

38
Q

Which of the following white blood cell has the smallest percentage as seen on a normal peripheral smear?

A

Basophil

39
Q

Which of the following procoagulant structures of the vascular intima activates platelets by binding to vWF?

A

Collagen

40
Q

Majority of the adult hemoglobin is composed of which 2 identical pairs of unlike polypeptide chains?

A

Alpha 2, Beta 2

41
Q

Tilting of the blood-filled tube in the during the process of measuring ESR would result to?

A

Increased ESR

42
Q

During the preparation for the microhematocrit method, Lenlen, a Medical Technologist of Dilawan Laboratory, improperly sealed the capillary tube. What is the possible effect of this error?

A

Decreased hematocrit reading

43
Q

What is the effect of platelet satellitisms in the platelet count?

A

Pseudothrombocytopenia

44
Q

A specimen was sent to the laboratory for platelet count determination. Machine flagging indicated the presence of platelet clumps. There is a presence of platelet satellitism upon checking the smear. What anticoagulant should be used as a corrective measure?

A

3.2% sodium citrate

45
Q

Determine the specific factor deficiency/disease with the following results in mixing and substitution study based on the following results. PT: prolonged
APTT: prolonged
TT: normal
Normal plasma: corrected Adsorbed plasm: not corrected Aged serum: not corrected

A

Prothrombin deficiency

46
Q

Which of the following factor deficiencies is PT most sensitive to?

A

Factor VII deficiency

47
Q

How many leukocytes are counted in a routine WBC differential cell count?

A

100

48
Q

The following laboratory findings are consistent with which of the following conditions? Clot retraction - abnormal
Bleeding time - prolonged
Primary Aggregation - absent with ADP, thrombin, collagen, epinephrine Ristocetin-induced Platelet Aggregation - Positive (Normal)

A

Glanzmann Thrombasthenia

49
Q

Which of these involves consumptive coagulation entrapping platelets in the intravascular fibrin clots?

A

DIC

50
Q

What do you call the multipotent common myeloid progenitor?

A

CFU-GEMM

51
Q

Reticulated platelets are seen in a patient’s peripheral blood smear. As a medical technologist, what can you assume about the patient’s condition?

A

The patient has increased need in platelets thus increasing the rate of production

52
Q

Why is there an increase of leukocytes in the peripheral blood?

A

Increase mobilization from maturation-storage compartment to circulating pool

53
Q

Which of the following can possibly result to a platelet count of 45,000/uL?

A

Thrombocytopenia

54
Q

Which of the following antibodies is present in early HIT?

A

Anti-platelet factor 4

55
Q

What qualitative platelet disorder is likely associated with the following platelet aggregation results: Abnormal aggregation to collagen, ADP, and epinephrine; Normal aggregation to Ristocetin?

A

Glanzmann Thrombasthenia

56
Q

Small platelets and thrombocytopenia can be characteristically seen in which condition?

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

57
Q

It refers to the diverse group of genetic disorders characterized by a primary, quantitative reduction in globin chain synthesis.

A

Thalassemia

58
Q

All the following leukocytes exhibit a cytoplasm that is filled with granules and whose nuclei are segmented or lobulated except which one of these?

A

Lymphocyte

59
Q

Which of the following will convert plasminogen to plasmin?

A

TPA

60
Q

What is the effect of Aspirin in primary hemostasis?

A

Aspirin inactivates platelet cyclooxygenase.

61
Q

Which among the following describes hemoglobin?
I. Transport carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs II. Contributes to the acid-base balance
III. One gram of hemoglobin carries 1.54 mL of oxygen IV. Transport oxygen from the tissues to lungs

A

I and II

62
Q

Which RBC maturation stage does not belong with the others listed?

A

Diffusely basophilic erythrocyte

63
Q

Which of these clinical conditions would result to an abnormally high platelet count? 1- DIC, TTP, HUS
2- Hypersplenism
3- ITP
4- Myeloproliferative disorders 5- Postoperative stress
6- Postsplenectomy

A

4, 5, and 6

64
Q

The effects of which of the following therapies is being monitored by APTT?

A

Unfractionated heparin

65
Q

It is a rare autoimmune disease caused by binding of the Donath-Landsteiner autoantibody to the patient’s red cells following cold exposure.

A

Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria

66
Q

Determine the patient’s RBC count result given the values below. Average number of red blood cells counted: 1170
Blood was aspirated up to the 0.5 mark
Number of squares counted: 5

A

5,850 x 1012/L

67
Q

Which of the following cells can be found in the maturation pool? 1-Myeloblast
2-Metamyelocyte
3-Band
4-Myelocyte

A

2 and 3

68
Q

Which of the following cells has the characteristic large blue-black granules in its cytoplasm?

A

Basophil

69
Q

What is the other term used for Hematocrit?

A

Packed Cell Volume

70
Q

Which of the following describes a fibrinogen molecule?

A

There are 6 N-terminals in the central region and 3 carboxyl terminals at both ends of the outer region.

71
Q

Bart wanted to donate his blood during the annual Mass Blood Donation in their Barangay. The Medical Technologist wanted to check his hemoglobin using the Copper Sulfate Method. A drop of blood is allowed to fall through the copper sulfate solution. After 10 seconds his blood drop remained on the surface of the solution. What is the possible explanation for this?

A

Bart is deferred from blood donation due to low hemoglobin

72
Q

What area of the counting chamber are RBCs being counted at?

A

5 intermediate squares of the middle large square

73
Q

Which of the following laboratory findings is most suggestive of a megaloblastic anemia?

A

Macroovalocytes and hypersegmented neutrophil in PBS

74
Q

Which of the WBC maturation series is the last stage capable of cell division?

A

Myelocyte

75
Q

Which is the role of thrombin?

A

Cleaves fibrinogen to form fibrinopeptides A and B

76
Q

What could be the result of Lee White Clotting Time when the Medical Technologist used the blood sample obtained from a traumatic venipuncture?

A

Falsely shortened clotting time due to contamination of tissue fluids.

77
Q

A blood picture of Howell-Jolly bodies as a product karyorrhexis was observed. Upon examination of bone marrow smear, population of erythrocytic precursors are mostly characterized by megaloblastic than normoblastic maturation. How could be this phenomenon be possible?

A

DNA synthesis is defective but cytoplasmic maturation is normal

78
Q

What is the formula in getting the mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration?

A

MCHC, measured in g/dl = [Hb/Hct]

79
Q

What is the scientific name of the snake responsible for activation of Factor X through the presence of Factor V, phospholipid, and calcium?

A

Russel’s viper venom

80
Q

Which of these holds and stores majority of iron readily available for future use?

A

Ferritin

81
Q

Which of the following is the characteristic change as megakaryoblast mature into megakaryocyte within the bone marrow?

A

Nuclear division without cytoplasmic division

82
Q

In performing CRT, what could be observed in the sample after 4 hours?

A

Clear yellow serum, red cells are well separated from the serum, red cell mass has been fully retracted

83
Q

Which teardrop-shaped poikilocyte can be observed in the peripheral blood smear of an individual with malignant infiltrative disorder in the bone marrow and rarely in autoimmune disorders?

A

Dacryocyte

84
Q

Which is the ratio of anticoagulant to whole blood in a citrated tube for coagulation testing?

A

1:9

85
Q

Which of the following conditions will show hyperextensible skin, hypermobility and laxity of joints, fragile tissues, presence of bleeding and subcutaneous hematoma?

A

Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

86
Q

Which structure is present on the red cell membrane responsible for the repulsive electric zeta potential between other cells due to its negative charge?

A

Sialic acid

87
Q

What should be the volume of bleach and water when preparing a 1000mL 10% hypochlorite solution?

A

900mL and 100mL bleach

88
Q

Which is not a characteristic of hematopoietic growth factor?

A

Individual growth factor has single biologic activities

89
Q

Which of the following platelet receptors for collagen triggers aggregation?

A

GP VI

90
Q

In a laboratory, a medical technologist assigned in the hematology section performed a clot retraction time test, upon finishing the procedure, he observed that specimen has 27% of serum that is extruded. What result will be reflected in the laboratory workup?

A

Clot Retraction Time – 3+

QE REVIEWER (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions