HEMAQE Flashcards

(94 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following reagents used for
Cyanmethemoglobin method has the
purpose of reducing the incubation time of
solution

A

Sodium bicarbonate

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2
Q

What is the expected end-point result of
performing Protamine Sulfate Dilution in
samples with abnormal specimens?

A

Paracoagulation

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3
Q

In performing plasminogen assay, which of
the following converts plasminogen to
plasma?

A

Streptokinase

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4
Q

A 10-year-old female child has developed
microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
secondary to kidney acute renal failure
after infection with E. coli 0157:H7. Other
significant laboratory results were
decreased platelet count and the presence
of casts and protein in the urine. What is
most likely the cause of the diagnosis for
the patient?

A

Hemolytic uremic syndrome

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5
Q

Which of the following RBC inclusions can
possibly be seen with Megaloblastic
anemia?

A

Cabot ring

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6
Q

Which RBC indices are used as parameters
in classifying anemias based on
morphology?

A

MCV and MCHC

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7
Q

What causes prolongation in Stypven time?

A

There is a presence of lupus anticoagulant

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8
Q

In the direct method for platelet count, what is the total magnification used when
examining the platelets?

A

100x

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9
Q

What red blood cell index reflects the red
blood size?

A

Mean corpuscular volume

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10
Q

How much hemoglobin is equivalent to
1mm reading of hematocrit?

A

0.34 grams of hemoglobin

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11
Q

Which of the following pathways
generates 2,3-BPG and enhances oxygen
delivery to tissues?

A

Rapport-leubering Pathway

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12
Q

What test aids in assessing the normal
function of the adrenal gland?

A

Eosinophil Depression Test

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13
Q

Which condition involves oculataneous
albinism in children with Swiss cheese appearance of platelets?

A

Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome

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14
Q

What is the objective lens used in counting
the red blood cells?

A

HPO

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15
Q

Which RBC indices best reflect a normal
red blood cell?

A

MCV=93 fL; MCHC = 34 g/dL

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16
Q

An 18-year-old female patient has been
prone to hemorrhage since she was a child.
Which substance is most likely to be
deficient?

A

Procoagulant substances

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17
Q

What is the appearance of the resting and
circulating platelets?

A

Biconvex disc shaped

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18
Q

You perform a whole blood
lumiaggregometry on a specimen from a
patient who complains to have excessive
beleeing from minor cuts. The following
clinical findings gives a normal aggregation
with ristocetin. What is the most likely
related disorder?

A

Glanzmann Thrombasthenia

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19
Q

What is being quantified by the Nitroblue
Tetrazolium test?

A

Neutrophil

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20
Q

Which lymphoid neoplasm is characterized
by peripheral blood lymphocytosis
composed of cells with cobblestone or
soccer ball chromatin pattern?

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

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21
Q

Which of the following best describes a
hyperchromic Red Blood Cells?

A

RBCs tent to lyse easily due to have an
increased hemoglobin concentration

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22
Q

Which is the correct method that uses 40-
60 mmHg pressure to test for bleeding
time?

A

Ivy method

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23
Q

What could be the possible factor
deficiency if the Prothrombin Time is
prolonged but all other test results are
normal?

A

Factor VII deficiency

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24
Q

Which is not present in aged serum?

A

Factor V

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25
Using a Modified Fonio’s Method, Martin counted 35 platelets on 10 consecutive oil immersion fields, what is the total platelet count of the patient?
700,000 platelets/uL
26
What is the length of time required to form a clot in vitro under standard conditions?
Clotting Time
27
Which synthesizes the role of vWF and fibrinogen in primary hemostasis?
vWF participates in collagen binding while fibrinogen binds to adjacent platelets
28
Which of these is the best site of choice for skin puncture in adults?
Palmar surface of the distal portion of the middle and ring finger on the non-dominant hand
29
What is the immediate reaction of the hemostatic system upon injury?
Vasoconstriction
30
Which is the last step in primary hemostasis?
Platelet adherence to one another
31
A normal hemoglobin has iron in which of the following states?
Ferrous
32
What is the standing time after the tubes for OFT have been gently shaken?
2 hours
33
In a normally maturating blood cell, what should happen to the proportion of the cytoplasm to the nucleus?
Increasing
34
Why is there a decreasing level of basophilia in the cytoplasm as the cell matures?
The decrease in RNA of the cell will cause a lesser affinity for a basic dye
35
In Sahli-Adams method for hemoglobin determination, what is the reagent that we use to convert hemoglobin to hematin?
0.1 N hydrochloric acid
36
How can you differentiate AML from ALL using the Sudan Black B stain?
AML is positive while ALL is negative for SBB
37
What subtype of acute myelogenous leukemia is associated with high incidence of DIC?
Acute promyelocytic leukemia, hypergranular variant
38
What are the reagents used in performing activated partial thromboplastin time?
Calcium, partial thromboplastin
39
A 29-year-old woman with a history of a blood disorder presents to the clinic for follow-up after a hospitalization for a vasco-occlusive pain crisis complicated by influenza A. Her lab findings: hemoglobin electrophoresis: 92% Hb S, 6% Hb F, 2% Hb A2; PBS: anisopoikilocytosis and boatshaped erythrocytes. Which of the following RBC defect/s is/are involved in this patient?
Functional abnormality of hemoglobin and membrane damage
40
Which of the following best describes where D-dimer is produced from?
Cross linked and stabilized fibrin clot
41
A woman has developed a massive blood clot in her left leg resulting in occlusion of normal blood flow. What property of the vascular intima is most likely deficient or nearly absent in this clinical presentation?
Anticoagulant property
42
On a well stained blood film, what is the color of cytoplasm of the monocytes?
Blue gray
43
What protein neutralizes free plasmin?
Alpha-2 antiplasmin
44
Which is due to abnormally increased platelet reactivity and increased sensitivity to platelet agonists?
Sticky platelet syndrome
45
Which of the following granulocyte precursor cells has a round oval, quadrangular nucleus with fine-reddish purple chromatin and the cytoplasm generally lacks granules?
Myeloblast
46
Which is the major site of T cell maturation and differentiation?
Thymus
47
Which of the following is the main negative regulator of intestinal iron absorption?
Hepcidin
48
Which coagulation factor is dependent on Vitamin K to produce a functional structure?
Factor X
49
Which is an in-vitro phenomenon wherein thrombocytes surround neutrophils?
Platelet satellitosis
50
During bone marrow recovery, why are monocytes predominantly see in the peripheral blood and not neutrophils?
Monocytes are immediately released upon maturation
51
. Which can kill certain tumor cells, microbial agents and virus-infected cells without prior sensitization/exposure?
Natural killer cells
52
What is the recommended plasma sample used for coagulation tests?
<10,000/uL PPP
53
A shift to the left in the PBS means an increase in which type of cells?
Immature granulocytes
54
Which structure in the vascular intima secretes the von Willebrand factor?
Endothelial cells
55
The erythroid precursors in the bone marrow surround which of the following cells?
Macrophage
56
How does the increased oxygen delivery to the kidneys affect the erythropoietic process?
Reduced stimulus for erythropoietin production
57
What abnormal hemoglobin is formed when the iron is oxidized to its ferric state?
Methemoglobin
58
Which scenario corresponds to the effect of fibrinolytic inhibitors?
Decreased fibrinolysis- leading to thrombosis
59
Which of the following WBCs produce heparan sulfate, the body’s natural anticoagulant?
Basophils
60
Which is the first progenitor cell that undergoes endomitosis in megakaryocytopoiesis?
LD-CFU-Meg
61
This RBC inclusion describes as a ‘bar of gold’ is commonly observed in which condition?
Hb CC
62
Which cytokine is involved in the differentiation and maturation of Basophil?
IL-3 and TSLP
63
What is the objective lens used in WBC differential counting?
OIO
64
Patients with leukemia who undergo chemotherapy treatments would usually have _____ levels of white blood cells and ____ levels of platelets in their laboratory results using hematology analyzers
Falsely decreased white blood cells; Falsely increased platelets
65
The elevation of which of the following molecules cannot cause an increased ESR?
Albumin
66
How many smaller squares are there in one large corner square?
16 smaller squares
67
What is released by platelets and that is primarily responsible for clot retraction?
Thrombosthenin
68
Which is the other name of reticulocyte?
Diffuse basophilic erythrocyte
69
A medical technologist was having a hard time doing the white blood cell differential count on the blood smears since the red blood cells are too pale and the white blood cells are barely visible. How will he fix the problem with the blood smears?
The staining time should be prolonged
70
What anticoagulant is present in blue band capillary tubes?
No anticoagulant
71
What substance on the intact vascular endothelium acts as an eicosanoid platelet inhibitor?
Prostacylin
72
. How many WBCs are counted for routine differential counting?
100
73
Which best represents the mechanism involved in Glanzmann thrombasthenia?
Inability of fibrinogen to bind with platelets
74
What is the best RBC diluting fluid?
Dacie’s fluid
75
Which is the purpose of examining the bone marrow using a core cylinder?
Estimate bone marrow cellularity
76
What is the dilution factor if the blood is aspirated up to 0.2 mark of the WBC Thoma pipette?
50
77
Which procoagulant has the highest concentration in the plasma
Fibrinogen
78
What is the relationship between the fibrinogen concentration in the plasma and the time it takes to form a clot?
Inversely proportional
79
Which is a resident macrophage in the lymph nodes?
Dendritic cell
80
What is the concentration of sodium citrate used in coagulation tests?
0.105-0.109 M
81
A man in his late 50s presents signs and symptoms of myeloproliferative neoplasm. To clinically diagnose the patient, the hematologist-oncologist orders cytogenetic analysis. Upon testing, the patient’s results show a mutation in the Jak2 gene. What disorder will be ruled out by the clinician in diagnosing the patient?
Chronic myelogenous leukemia
82
Which is true about the role of ZPI?
Inhibit Xa with the help from Protein Z
83
Which hemolytic anemia involves globin abnormality?
Sickle cell anemia
84
Which is associated with toxic granulations in neutrophils?
Bacterial Infections
85
Which of the following cytokines, stimulates the granulocytic colonies and differentiation of progenitors towards neutrophil lineage?
G-CSF
86
Which represents the actual reticulocyte count per liter of whole blood?
ARC
87
Which myeloproliferative disorder is characterized by thrombocytosis, abnormal platelet functions and a mutation in jak 1 and Jak 2 gene?
Essential thrombocythemia
88
. Which causes a falsely prolonged PT and PTT?
Short draw
89
What is the average diameter of a thrombocyte?
2-4 um
90
. What can be observed at the bottom layer of the blood sample after centrifugation of an anticoagulated blood?
Red cell layer
91
What is the average diameter of a thrombocyte?
2-4 um
91
. What can be observed at the bottom layer of the blood sample after centrifugation of an anticoagulated blood?
Red cell layer
92
When platelets fail to cease the contents of their granules and tubular systems, which of the following will immediately be affected?
Platelet activation
93
Which refers to the variation in cell shape?
Poikilocytosis