Autoflight Flashcards

1
Q

Name the axis an their corresponding letters?

A
X = Longitudinal
Y = Lateral
Z =  Vertical

(Boeing X and Y swapped)

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2
Q

Differentiation of roll altitude results in?

A

Roll rate and Roll acceleration

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3
Q

Integration of pitch-acceleration results In?

A

Pitch rate and Pitch acceleration

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4
Q

To change an altitude a flight control must be extended how much?

A

Must only be shortly deflected

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5
Q

If a signal causes the system to over correct itself then this is called?

A

Hunting

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6
Q

When hunting occurs in a flight control system was is used to correct it?

A

Damping, slows down the response and avoids excessive overshoots or overcorrections

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7
Q

How is damping carried out?

A

Can be in the form of electrical resistance in a circuit or the application of a brake in a mechanical circuit.

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8
Q

The autopilot represents 2 different control loops, these are?

A

Inner loops and Outer Loops

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9
Q

What does the inner loop of an auto flight system do?

A

Stabilizes the aircraft attitude around the pitch or roll axis

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10
Q

What does the Outer Loop of an auto flight system do?

A

Controls the aircraft in Lateral and vertical direction. (airspeed, attitude, track, interception)

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11
Q

synchronisation of an autopilot, when is it engaged and why?

A

It is engaged when the autopilot is disengaged to prevent any jerks of flight controls when selected.

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12
Q

Why must the autopilot always be electrically powered and functionally operative?

A

Because a disengaged autopilot synchronises with the actual aircraft altitude?.

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13
Q

Explain Fail Passive?

A

The system monitor will disconnect a system BEFORE a dangerous situation occurs. (2 computers for monitoring, multiple channels, multiple feedback)

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14
Q

Explain fail operational?

A

After a single failure the system continues its operation but degrades to fail passive. (by adding a third or fourth channel)

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15
Q

What critical modes is Fail Operational autopilot used in?

A

Take Off, Landing, Go Around

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16
Q

Explain Fail Safe?

A

The crew is part of the monitoring, when only one kind of sensor or computer is available.

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17
Q

Two duel flight control computers with two duplex servo actuators is a?

A

Quadruple Channel Fail Operational System

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18
Q

What is the autopilots task?

A

To control the aircraft via associated servos in the right order to fly

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19
Q

What are the pilots tasks in an autopilot system?

A
  • Mode Selection and Switching
  • Setting of different navigation parameters (Speed, Altitude, Heading)
  • Selection of configurations, flaps, Landing gear, trim.
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20
Q

Where are the autopilot operational modes displayed?

A

At the specified flight mode annunciator or integrated in the PFD

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21
Q

Name some navigation inputs that can be used by the autopilot?

A

VOR, LOC, ILS maybe more???

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22
Q

Name 3 power sources for actuators?

A

Pneumatic, Electronic and Hydraulic

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23
Q

In an electronic actuator what operates the clutch?

A

An electrical solenoid

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24
Q

What is the definition of serie mode?

A

Servo movement is added to the input from the pedals. There is no feedback to the pedals fellable, rudder deflections are small (up to 6 degrees -/+)

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25
Q

What is the definition of Parallel Mode?

A

In critical modes the servo movement is directly applied to the pedal input, pedals move accordingly. Rudder deflections are large ( Up to 25 Degrees)

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26
Q

When is Parallel Mode active?

A

During Take Off, Approach, Landing and Go-Around.

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27
Q

Where are sensors installed for control wheel steering?

A

Force sensors are installed in the mechanical steering links or directly inside the control wheel Hub.

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28
Q

What is an advantage of control wheel steering?

A

It simplifies the steering of an aeroplane and protects against excessive steering commands

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29
Q

Is CWS available when autopilot is not engaged.

A

Yes

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30
Q

What is the task of a flight director?

A

To provide computer steering commands to the command bars of an ADI and/or autopilot system.

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31
Q

What is an advantage of the FD system?

A

Instead of having to calculate a route for himself using 6 or 7 different instruments, the pilot can fly by simply zeroing in on the cross pointer.

32
Q

What are command bars shown on a flight director?

A

Roll, pitch and yow/Rudder bar. Steering Bars shown on PFD or ADI.

33
Q

Where is the FD mode shown?

A

Shown on the flight director mode selector and displayed on the ADI.

34
Q

What is meant by flight path vector?

A

This shows the actual flight path angle and track

35
Q

When is a flight path vector used?

A

For landing approach or take-off climb

36
Q

In which phase is there no autopilot possible or allowed?

A

Take off but it can be engaged afterwards

37
Q

In flight phases what is CAPTURE PHASE?

A

When the aircraft captures the localiser OR glideslope beams for guidance during automatic landing

38
Q

In flight phases what is LOCALISER CAPTURE?

A

smooth and stable capture, 4 - 40 NM from runway threshold at airspeeds up to 1.5 Minimum safety speed.

39
Q

In flight phases what is GLIDESLOP CAPTURE?

A

captured within performance limits above or below glideslope centreline +/- 3 degrees.

40
Q

In flight phases what is ALIGN PHASE?

A

Engages automatically at 150/30 feet radio altitude. Autopilot commands align manoeuvre to bring aircraft heading to runway heading

41
Q

In flight phases what is FLARE PHASE?

A

Engaged automatically at about 50 feet rad alt. Nose up column is supplied by the autopilot and thrust reduced to idle stop.

42
Q

In flight phases what is NOSE LOWERING?

A

Initiated immediately after touch down of main landing gear. decreases to a minimum pitch rate 2 degrees per second. Even when the nose is down the autopilot commands more nose down (to make sure these is always firm contact)

43
Q

From what angle can localiser capture be achieved?

A

Up to 90 degrees either side

44
Q

In flight phases what is ROLLOUT?

A

The AFS supplies a ground rollout mode which controls the aircraft to stay on the runway centre line.

45
Q

What is decision height?

A

Wheel height above runway elevation by which go around must be initiated unless adequate visual reference has been established and aircraft position and approach path have been assessed as satisfactory to continue approach.

46
Q

What is alert height?

A

Height above the runway based on characteristics of aircraft and its fail operational landing system.

47
Q

What would happen if a failure occurs below alert height?

A

Failure would be ignored and approach continued.

48
Q

In a Go-Around Mode how does the pilot steer the plane?

A

The pilot does not steer the plane, HDG hold is automatically selected.

49
Q

What is the difference between heading hold and heading select?

A

Heading Hold - autopilot makes steering signals to hold the aircrafts existing heading
Heading Select - AFCS controls the aircraft to capture and hold the heading which the crew selects on the flight mode panel.

50
Q

What is the difference between Altitude hold and Altitude select?

A

Altitude Hold - AFCS makes steering signals to level off the aircraft and holds the resulting altitude.
Altitude select - Makes steering signals to level the aircraft off at preselected altitude then holds the altitude

51
Q

In AFCS explain level change?

A

The change of an aircraft altitude from one altitude to another.

52
Q

Vertical speed and flight path angle, explain?

A

Vertical speed allows you to select a Vertical speed and flight path angle allows you to select the flight path angle??

53
Q

What is the input source for Vertical and lateral navigation?

A

The flight management computer gives steering signals and thrust commands to the FCC.

54
Q

What is the task of the auto throttle/thrust system?

A

To control the power settings of the engines to reach and maintain a preselected speed or thrust limit.

55
Q

What is Thrust Limit Computation?

A

The maximum allowable engine thrust.

56
Q

What input parameters are used to compute thrust limit?

A
  • Selectable flight modes (Take off, GA, etc)
  • Ambient Conditions
  • Bleed air demand from engine
57
Q

What flight control surface is used for pitch trim?

A

Horizontal Stabilizer

58
Q

What is pitch trim used for?

A

To position the horizontal stabilizers if there are any steady state elevator deflections of more then 3 seconds.

59
Q

What are the different types of actuator that are used for pitch trim?

A

Jack Screw that is hydraulically actuated electrically controlled or electrically actuated.

60
Q

What are some of the Pitch Trim functions?

A
  • Electric Trim
  • Auto Trim
  • Mach/Speed Trim
  • Alpha Trim
61
Q

What is the function of Yaw Damping?

A

To counteract Dutch Roll

62
Q

Does a yaw damper eliminate Dutch Roll?

A

Dutch Roll is only damped not eliminated

63
Q

What is Dutch Roll?

A

Dutch Roll is a combination of Yaw and Rolling.

64
Q

What is the signal source to the Yaw Damper?

A

Yaw rate or Yaw acceleration

65
Q

What is stall?

A

Stall is caused by the separation of airflow from the wings upper surface that causes a rapid decrease in lift

66
Q

How is a stall situation alerted?

A

Using either AOA stall sensors or stall warning switches a red light is turned on and a warning horn is sounded.

67
Q

What are the two different types of altitude alert?

A

Altitude entry alert and altitude exit alert.

68
Q

What does wind shear mean?

A

Strong horizontal or vertical wind shift that acts at right angles to the direction the wind is blowing.

69
Q

When is wind shear most dangerous for an aircraft?

A

When slowed for landing or directly after take off

70
Q

What is a microburst?

A

A localised extremely high intensity column of descending air.

71
Q

How is the pilot alerted of a wind shear situation?

A

Visual Warnings on the PFD / FMA and aural warnings.

72
Q

What does the auto land light illuminated mean?

A

Triggered below 200ft, in LAND and FLARE mode if an automatic landing related failure occurs.

73
Q

What can be tested in the Auto flight System?

A

The Auto flight system has a STATUS/TEST panel installed in the flight deck.

74
Q

What can be read out?

A

Using the Flight Fault Review and faults that have occurred in flight can be read out. Stored in the system in a first in last out order.

75
Q

What test must be carried out to verify CAT III operation?

A

Land Test

76
Q

Where is the modern place for AFS tests to be carried out?

A

MCDU