B MCAT- Bio, Biochem Flashcards

1
Q

Endoplasmic Reticulum

A

A membrane-bound organelle within a cell.
The ER is a series of membranes continuous with the nuclear envelope.

Rough ER is decorated with ribosomes for generating secreted proteins. (Note that many OTHER proteins are made by ribosomes in the cytoplasm.)

Smooth ER is for detoxification and lipid synthesis. Majority of steroid synthesis reactions are carried out by enzymes in the smooth ER.

Intracellular vesicles deliver what is make by the ER to the Golgi apparatus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ligase

A

Category of enzymes that join things together.
A+B>AB

Ligating is joining things together. Usually requires energy in the form of ATP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

isomerase

A

Category of enzymes that facilitates an isomerization.
A > B

Isomers are the broad category of molecules with the molecular formula, different structure.

eg. Could change a compound from R to S form.

eg. Converting glucose-6-P to fructose-6-P in glycolysis using phospho-glucose isomerase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

lyase

A

Category of enzymes that break compounds apart WITHOUT water.

A > B+C

eg. argininosuccinate > arginine + furmarate
in urea cycle, via enzyme argininosuccinate lyase.

Generate either a double bond or a ring structure in order to work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

transferase

A

Category of enzymes that moves a group from one molecule to another.
A + BX > AX + B

eg. KINASE moves a phosphate group from one molecule to another, or takes a phosphate from ATP.

eg. tRNA transfers an amino acid to a growing peptide chain via peptidyl transferase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

hydrolase

A

Category of enzymes that break compounds apart by adding water to the compound.

A + H2O > B + C

Lots of digestive enzymes (eg. lipase, pepsidase) fall into this category.

eg. serine hydrolase/protease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

oxidoreductase

A

Category of enzymes that move electrons around–oxidation and reduction reactions. Two reactions.
A + B: <=> A: + B

These are heavily involved in the electron transport chain and citric acid cycle.

*If an enzyme has dehydrogenase in its name, it is moving around electrons in NADH or FADH2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

lysosome

A

Membrane-bound organelle within the cell that recycles proteins and other materials for reuse.

Also maintain pH and protect the cell from these contents.

The garbage disposal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Nucleus

A

A membrane-bound organelle within the cell that contains all genetic material for cellular replication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Mitochondrion

A

A membrane-bound organelle within the cell.
Carries out aerobic respiration, generating ATP via the ETC. Major role in metabolism.
Have their own genome and a symbiotic relationship with the cell.

All mitochondria in humans comes only from the egg, the mother. There are mitochondria in sperm, but only behind the head to help with motility, never enter egg.

(plural: mitochondria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Peroxisomes

A

Membrane-bound organelle within the cell.
Break down long chain fatty acids for beta oxidation (acetyl Co-A) and making other lipid molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cytoskeleton

A

Part of cell that regulates shape and rigidity.

Polymerized actin fibers.

Also used during annophase of miosis and mitosis. Drives cleavage furrow of cytokinesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Microtubules

A

Polymerized tubule fibers.
Tube-shaped.
Components of mitotic spindles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Intermediate Filaments

A

Diverse proteins that function in adhesion within a cell; make cells stick together (or to a plate). Help in cytoskeletal integrity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Prokaryotic cell classification

A

Two categories of prokaryotes:
bacteria and
archaea.

Bacteria can be gram positive (thick peptidoglycan cell wall, less dangerous, show up purple with dye), or
gram negative (thin peptidoglycan double membrane cell wall, much more dangerous to humans, show up red with dye)

So far, no archaea that are human pathogens have been discovered. There are archaea that live in humans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

3 shapes of bacteria

A

Bacteria typically subcategorized by shape:
chocci spherical
bactilli –oblong
spirilli–spiral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

binary fission in bacteria

A

asexual reproduction in bacteria. The single chromosome in a single bacteria cell divides and each half attaches to the cell wall. The cell then divides and two full-sized daughter cells are formed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

transformation in bacteria

A

Bacteria bring foreign material (e.g. plasmids) FROM THE ENVIRONMENT into themselves and integrate it into their genome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

conjugation in bacteria

A

a form of sexual reproduction in bacteria where two cells join via a conjugation bridge and a pilus and DNA is passed from one (with an F-plasmid) to the other.

Also called cell-to-cell exchange.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

transduction in bacteria

A

Gene transfer (integration of foreign material) via a VIRUS (viral vector).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

growth in bacteria (4 stages)

A

1) lag phase –bacteria adapting to conditions
2) exponential (log phase)–fast growth
3) stationary –growth can’t be sustained because lack of resources
4) death –resources are depleted

In research, you want to keep your samples in the exponential (log phase), or early stationary phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

bacteria phage (i.e. phage)

A

A virus that infects a bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

transfection

A

The process by which genetic material is introduced into animal cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

plasmid

A

A plasmid is a small, circular, double-stranded DNA molecule that is distinct from a cell’s chromosomal DNA. Plasmids naturally exist in bacterial cells, and they also occur in some eukaryotes. Often, the genes carried in plasmids provide bacteria with genetic advantages, such as antibiotic resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

ribosome

A

Site of protein synthesis within a cell.

Ribosomes are made from rRNA, which are made in the nucleus during transcription.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Western Blot

A

Experiment which shows you the presence and relative amount of a specific protein.

First, run sample on electrophoresis gel.
Second, introduce antibody conjugated to a florescent probe, which will bind specifically to protein of interest.

Left Lane&raquo_space;> Right Lane:
purified sample >
sample of normal cell nuclear lysate>
sample of whole cell lysate from normal cell>
sample of affected cell nuclear lysate >
sample of affected whole cell lysate.

Intensity of band indicates amount of protein present.
Lower band indicates part of protein missing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

lysate

A

the product of lysis, a cell that has been broken down.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Bohr Effect on Oxyhemoglobin Disassociation Curve

A

The Bohr Effect describes what happens when there is an off-loading of oxygen from hemoglobin to surrounding tissues.

The sigmoidal curve shifts RIGHT (partial pressure of oxygen in surrounding tissue on x axis; % hemoglobin oxygen-bound on y axis).

An INCREASE of the following conditions lead to this Bohr effect right shift of the curve:
-temperature
-pCO2 (i.e. active muscles)
-acid
-exercise
-(2,3) DPG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Effect of Carbon Monoxide poisoning on the Oxyhemoglobin Disassociation Curve

A

CO causes the sigmoidal curve to shift left and peak at a lower point.

Hemoglobin’s affinity for CO is more than 200x that of O2. Therefore, there is less hemoglobin available for O2 to bind to, causing the curve to peak at a lower point.

However, a CO bound at the first of four binding sites on a hemoglobin protein will still increase affinity for the remaining sites and the curve will initially rise faster (shift left) than without CO. This leads to the O2 not as readily leaving the hemoglobin to go to surrounding tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the term for the effect that causes the upslope in a sigmoidal curve?

A

cooperativity

Ex. Oxyhemoglobin Disassociation Curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

endonuclease

A

An enzyme involved in DNA excision repair that cut at specific DNA sequences (e.g. to remove a dimer caused by UV radiation).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Operons

A

Tool to start DNA transcription to RNA.

4 pieces (genes) to any operon: regulator > promoter > operator > structural (e.g. enzyme that performs respective duty of the particular operon).

2 categories of operons:
1) Inducible systems–default is that the receptor is bound to the operator and keeps it in the “off” position; the RNA polymerase can not travel past the promoter region of the operon. When inducer is present, receptor binds to it instead and the operon can transcribe.
2) Repressible systems–the repressor can not bind to the operon by itself.

2 prokaryotic operons to know:
1. Lac Operon
2. Trp Operon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

paracrine vs. autocrine vs. endocrine vs. direct signaling via gap junctions

A

There are four categories of chemical signaling found in multicellular organisms: paracrine signaling, endocrine signaling, autocrine signaling, and direct signaling across gap junctions.

Paracrine signaling is between cells that are close together, via Diffusion through the extracellular matrix. Fast acting, short lasting.

Signals from distant cells are called endocrine signals, and they originate from endocrine cells. (In the body, many endocrine cells are located in endocrine glands, such as the thyroid gland, the hypothalamus, and the pituitary gland.) These types of signals usually produce a slower response but have a longer-lasting effect. The ligands released in endocrine signaling are called hormones, signaling molecules that are produced in one part of the body but affect other body regions some distance away.

Autocrine signals are produced by signaling cells that can also bind to the ligand that is released. This means the signaling cell and the target cell can be the same or a similar cell. Ex. pain sensation.

Gap junctions in animals and plasmodesmata in plants are connections between the plasma membranes of neighboring cells. These water-filled channels allow small signaling molecules, called intracellular mediators, to diffuse between the two cells. Small molecules, such as calcium ions (Ca2+), are able to move between cells, but large molecules like proteins and DNA cannot fit through the channels. The specificity of the channels ensures that the cells remain independent but can quickly and easily transmit signals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

peptide hormones

A

Tend to end in “-in”. Water soluble, can not cross cell membrane. Require receptor to communicate across a cell membrane.

Act very fast.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

glucagon vs. insulin

A

Hormone insulin and its opposite glucagon are both peptide hormones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Steroid hormones

A

Water soluble. Carried around bloodstream by molecules that are not water soluble.

Can cross cell membranes.

Slower acting, longer lasting.

Secreted by three “steroid glands”—the adrenal cortex, testes, and ovaries—and during pregnancy by the placenta.

All steroid hormones are derived from cholesterol.

Tend to end in “-one” or “-ol” or “-oid”?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Amino Acid Derivatives

A

Tend to have “-ine” or “-in” ending?

Tend to be a couple amino acids stuck together (vs. a long polypeptide chain).

38
Q

negative feedback generally…

A

supports/ regulates homeostasis.

39
Q

positive feedback generally…

A

disrupts homeostasis.

ex. oxytocin during labor.

40
Q

tropic hormone is

A

a hormone acting on another hormone.

41
Q

all releasing hormones come from the….

A

hypothalamus

42
Q

Lac Operon

A

An inducible operon (default position is “off”). When the structural gene is “on”, it produces an enzyme that can break down lactose to make glucose and galactose (if no glucose present on its own).

43
Q

Trp Operon

A

A repressible operon (default position is “on”); when it is “on” the structural gene codes to make tryptophan. In presence of plenty of tryptophan, the tryptophan becomes co-repressor and binds to the operator gene to repress production of more tryptophan. (negative feedback mechanism)

44
Q

Key players of DNA replication

A

In eukaryotes, DNA is replicated via transcription to mRNA in the nucleus of the cell.

Helicase unwinds the DNA.
Single-strand binding proteins keep the integrity of the strands.
DNA polymerase transcribes to RNA in a semi-conservative process.
DNA ligase puts the strands back together.
Eukaryotes have multiple origins of replication.

3 steps to DNA transcription:
Initiation, elongation, and termination.

After post-translational modifications (intron splicing, 5’ cap, poly A tail), the mRNA can leave the cell’s nucleus.

45
Q

Basics of DNA excision repair

A

3 types of DNA excision repair:
base excision
nucleotide excision
mismatch repair

Endonucleases remove the damaged DNA.

46
Q

Start and stop codons

A

AUG = start codon. Always methionine!

stop codons:
UAA
UGA
UAG

47
Q

polypeptides form via…

A

Amino terminus (nucleophile) attacks the carbonyl carbon on the carboxyl terminus of the next amino acid in a condensation reaction which releases an H2O and forms a peptide bond.

48
Q

Acidic Amino Acids, negatively (-) charged R group when deprotonated

A

E, Glu, Glutamic acid (glutamate when deprotonated, neg charge, COO- in R group)

D, Asp, Aspartic acid (aspartate when deprotonated, neg charge, COO- in R group)

Y, Tyr, Tyrosine (aromatic with O- in R group)

49
Q

Basic Amino Acids, positively (+) charged R group when protonated

A

H, His, Histidine

R, Arg, Arginine

K, Lys, Lysine

All have N with lone pair nucleophile in side chain.

50
Q

Hydrophobic (non-polar) Amino Acids

A

G, Gly, Glycine

A, Ala, Alanine

L, Leu, Leucine

I, Ile, Isoleucine

V, Val, Valine

P, Pro, Proline

M, Met, Methionine

W, Trp, Tryptophan
(aromatic)

F, Phe, Phenylalanine
(aromatic)

All have either long carbon chains (aliphatic) or are aromatic.

51
Q

Hydrophilic (polar) Uncharged Amino Acids

A

N, Asn, Asparagine

Q, Gln, Glutamine

S, Ser, Serine

T, Thr, Threonine

C, Cys, Cysteine (-SH R group; can form disulfide bonds!)

(N, O, or S in side chain.)

and more…

52
Q

mRNA and tRNA are antiparallel, so read tRNA right to left. Ex: tRNA’s anticodon to mRNA’s stop codon (AUG) will read… 5’-CAU -3’ in tRNA.

A

Ex: tRNA’s anticodon to mRNA’s stop codon (AUG) will read… 5’-CAU -3’ in tRNA.

53
Q

Post-translational processing

A

Even after translation from mRNA > tRNA > amino acid chain, we don’t have a functioning protein until post-translational processing.

This includes…
Covalent modifications like peptide bonds, N-terminus, C-terminus, and amino acid residues.
and non-covalent modifications like protein folding, trafficking (ex. packaging based on where protein is headed), and addition of cofactors.

Translation happens in the ribosomes and the post-translational processing happens in the golgi apparatus. (?)

54
Q

Gel electrophoresis lab technique

A

Gel electrophoresis is an electrolytic process used to separate molecules by charge.

Gel plate connected to battery or electrical socket to put charge at either end.

Cations (+) will migrate to the cathode (-).

Anions (-) will migrate to the anode (+).

Which molecules are represented by the bands depends on which end you started on.

55
Q

Agarose Gel Electrophoresis

A

AGAROSE GEL electrophoresis can separate NUCLEIC ACIDS by size. Mesh-like substance in gel that causes larger nucleic acids to get stuck, while smaller nucleic acids get through and travel further, faster (similar to proteins in acrylamous gel).

Read top to bottom (larger to smaller).

A “ladder” on the side provides a frame of reference by which to measure the size of each nucleic acid per how many bases it has (in kilobases, kb).

Note that nucleic acids are always negatively charged because of the phosphate groups, so always migrating down toward the anode.

56
Q

Using electrolytic gels in cloning

A

Restriction enzymes, a type of endonuclease, cut very specific DNA sequences that are ~3-6 bases in length. “Molecular scissors” in cloning.

So, if you know the size of the gene sequence or plasmid you are looking for, you can use gels as a fast diagnostic tool check size.

57
Q

Southern Blots

A

Southern blot is a test to run after agarose gel electrophoresis to detect the presence of a specific DNA sequence in your fragment.

First, run sample with agarose gel electrophoresis to separate by size and identify your predicted fragment.

Second, transfer fragments to a solid membrane.

Third, construct a radiolabeled DNA probe specific to the sequence of interest.

Only fragments complimentary to the probe will be visible.

(Northern blots work the same but geared for RNA.)

58
Q

Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)

A

Differences in restriction sites result in different fragment sizes, and therefore different number of bands.

More restriction sites > more bands.

Used to confirm cloning experiments or identify genes associated with genetic disorders.

59
Q

Polyacrylamide Gel Electrophoresis (PAGE)

A

Acrylamide gels are used to separate PROTEINS based on size.

Pores of the gel allow for smaller proteins to travel faster and further than larger proteins (similar to nucleic acids in agarose gel).

Read top to bottom, with anions (-) always migrating down to the bottom anode; smaller anions migrating further down than the larger ones.

Can run in different conditions.
1) Native PAGE - NO denaturant added. Proteins separated by mass and charge.
2) SDS PAGE - Anionic detergent; breaks all non-covalent interactions. Masks charge and separates proteins by size only.
3) Reductive SDS PAGE - SDS + reducing agent; breaks disulfide bonds found in the tertiary and quaternary protein structures. Separates by mass.

60
Q

Which blot is used for what?

A

Remember SNOW DROP.
S (southern) D (dna)
N (northern) R (rna)
o____________o
W (western) P (proteins)

61
Q

Isoelectric Focusing Gel

A

Separates PROTEINS based on isoelectric point (pI).

Cathode&raquo_space;> Anode
14&raquo_space;>1

Phosphorylation adds negative charge and causes a decrease the pI.

Lowering pI makes the protein negatively charged for a wider range–anions will migrate further toward anode.

Recall…
When the pH equals pI (pH=pI), the protein is at its isoelectric point; no net charge. Zwitterionic form.
When the pH is lower than the pI of the protein (pH<PI), it will be positively charged.
When the pH is higher than the PI of the protein (pH>PI), it will be negatively charged.

62
Q

amino acid mutation nomenclature

A

ex:
N90G
= N asparagine, at position 90, replaced with G glycine.

63
Q

codominance

A

When two dominant alleles are both expressed. Ex. There are three human alleles for blood type–A, B, and i. You inherit two of the three. If you get AB, both are expressed.

64
Q

incomplete dominance

A

two homogeneous genotypes mate and create a hetrogenome in which you get an inbetween expression. Ex. straight hair + curly hair = wavy hair.

65
Q

hemizygous

A

For males, half of their sex-linked chromosomes are X and half are y. For X-linked recessive traits, males can either have the trait and have it expressed, or not have the allele for the trait.

Females can have the trait, not have the trait, or be a carrier of the trait.

Sex linked traits on Y chromosome are extremely rare. Think: sex-linked = X-linked, unless otherwise explained.

66
Q

genotype vs. phenotype

A

There is not a perfect correlation between genotype and phenotype.

Genotype is your given genes; phenotype is what is observable (based on interaction between genotype and the environment.

67
Q

penetrance

A

(think percentage)

The portion of the population with a certain genotype who actually express the phenotype.

68
Q

expressivity

A

The degree (intensity) to which a particular trait is expressed.

69
Q

Silent mutation

A

A mutation that does not show up in proteins.

70
Q

germline

A

Germline (germ) cells create gametes—sperm in males and ovule in females.

Germ cells are diploid (2n chromosomes) and undergo meiosis to form gamete (n chromosomes).

Germ cells are the only cells which can undergo meiosis and mitosis

Regarding mutations, the only mutations that are passed along are those which affect the germ cells.

71
Q

3 types of chromosomal mutations

A

deletion, inversion, duplication

All affect a single chromosome.

72
Q

Insertion mutation

A

Insertion of a chunk of one chromosome into a different chromosome.

(not to be confused with crossover during cell replication; in that case we are swapping chunks of DNA from the SAME chromosome number, ex. #15)

73
Q

Point mutations

A

Two types–missense and nonsense.

One nucleotide is swapped with another. Can affect proteins downstream. Though it is possible to have a silent point mutation (typically because of redundancy of wobble base position).

74
Q

Mis-sense mutation

A

A mistake in nucleotides intending to code for one amino acid, but instead coding for another.

Mis-sense mutations tend to be particularly severe and troublesome if the intended and actual amino acids have different characteristics (ex. polar and nonpolar side chains). Can cause severe disruption to the protein structure.

75
Q

Nonsense mutation

A

Codes for a premature STOP codon. Protein synthesis stops prematurely (truncates protein during translation).

May be less impactful if it happened later in the translation have little to no effect (especially considering post-translational modifications), or could be early on and cause a great deal of damage.

76
Q

frameshift mutations

A

A nucleic acid is deleted, shifting the entire reading frame downstream from that spot. The ribosome reads bases in 3s.

Can also result in stop codons in addition to other mutations.

77
Q

lab techniques:
-Autoradiography and self-directed mutagenesis determine…
-RT PCR is used to measure…
-Generating cell lines with modified proteins can be used to test…

A

-Autoradiography and self-directed mutagenesis determine potential phosphorylation sites.

-RT PCR is used to measure mRNA levels of specific genes.

-Generating cell lines with modified proteins can be used to test potential treatment options.

78
Q

role of insulin

A

Peptide hormone. Receptor outside cell, fast-acting, short-lasting.

Increases glucose uptake by cells, effectively lowering blood glucose.

79
Q

what happens to red blood cells when body is metabolically active?

A

CO2 increases during exercise. Bohr Effect curve shifts right (hemoglobin releases more oxygen; hemoglobin has less affinity for oxygen).

CO2 + H2O > H2CO3 (carbonic acid) > HCO3- + H+
Blood becomes more acidic (pH decreases).

(Cell takes up Cl-)

80
Q

What can cause a change in red bloods cells so that Bohr Effect curve shifts left?

A

A left shift in the Bohr effect curve indicates that hemoglobin is holding oxygen tighter; more affinity for it.

Can be caused by…
- Decrease in C02 (hyperventilating). reduction in H+, increase in pH.
- High altitudes where there is less O2 present.
- Fetal hemoglobin where affinity for O2 must be greater than mom’s.

81
Q

Innate immune system

A

The immune response innate in human’s white blood cells (there at birth). Includes skin, mucus, tears, cilia, macrophages, and granulocytes.

82
Q

macrophage

A

A type of white blood cell that surrounds and kills microorganisms, removes dead cells, and stimulates the action of other immune system cells.

83
Q

Adaptive immune system

A

The adaptive immune system can learn to recognize an infection we have seen before. Includes lymphocytes (B-cells and T-cells).

B-cells form memory to attack foreign material.
T-cells attack your body’s own cells that have been invaded.

84
Q

hypertonic vs. hypotonic

A

Hypertonic refers to blood having relatively higher osmotic pressure (more concentrated, less water) than surrounding tissue.

Hypotonic is blood having lower osmotic pressure (less concentrated, more water) than surrounding tissue.

Water will flow from hypotonic to hypertonic spaces.

85
Q

2 kidney hormones–ADH and aldosterone

A

Vasopressin (ADH) helps regulate plasma osmolarity.
As water increases, osmolarity decreases, vasopressin decreases.

Aldosterone regulates plasma volume and pressure by increasing sodium reabsorption in the nephron (which, in turn, reabsorbs water).

86
Q

bicarbonate buffer equation for blood

A

H2O + CO2 > H2CO3 > H+ + HCO3-

87
Q

Schwann cells

A

Schwann cells (SCs) are a type of glial cell that surrounds neurons, keeping them alive and sometimes covering them with a myelin sheath.

The major glial cell type in the peripheral nervous system.

They play essential roles in the development, maintenance, function, and regeneration of peripheral nerves.

88
Q

convergent evolution

A

the process of evolution by which distantly-related organisms independently evolve similar traits to adapt to similar needs

89
Q

Epithelial cells and tissue

A

Epithelial tissues are widespread throughout the body. They form the covering of all body surfaces, line body cavities and hollow organs, respiratory track, and are the major tissue in glands. They perform a variety of functions that include protection, secretion, absorption, excretion, filtration, diffusion, and sensory reception.

90
Q

Nucleolus

A

Found inside the nucleus of eukaryotes.
Produces and assembles ribosomes.

91
Q

somatic cell

A

any cell of a living organism other than the reproductive cells.

92
Q

immunoglobulin

A

any of a class of proteins present in the serum and cells of the immune system, which function as antibodies.